UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 9 December 2024

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 10 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 10 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the role of the Chief Justice of India in case scheduling: The Chief Justice of India has exclusive authority over the allocation of cases to benches. The Chief Justice must consult the Supreme Court Registry before finalizing the schedule. The master of the roster principle allows the Chief Justice to determine which bench hears a particular case. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct: The Chief Justice has exclusive authority over allocating cases to benches as the master of the roster. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice is not required to consult the Registry while finalizing the schedule; the Registry performs an administrative role under the CJI’s directions. Statement 3 is correct: The master of the roster principle enables the Chief Justice to decide which bench hears a particular case. About Scheduling of Cases in the Supreme Court: Who is in Charge? Chief Justice of India (CJI):Acts as the master of the roster, deciding the allocation and scheduling of cases. Supreme Court Registry:Administers filing, scrutiny, listing, and scheduling of cases. Law Governing Case Scheduling: Governed by Supreme Court Rules, 2013, outlining procedural aspects like filing, listing, and hearing. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct: The Chief Justice has exclusive authority over allocating cases to benches as the master of the roster. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice is not required to consult the Registry while finalizing the schedule; the Registry performs an administrative role under the CJI’s directions. Statement 3 is correct: The master of the roster principle enables the Chief Justice to decide which bench hears a particular case. About Scheduling of Cases in the Supreme Court: Who is in Charge? Chief Justice of India (CJI):Acts as the master of the roster, deciding the allocation and scheduling of cases. Supreme Court Registry:Administers filing, scrutiny, listing, and scheduling of cases. Law Governing Case Scheduling: Governed by Supreme Court Rules, 2013, outlining procedural aspects like filing, listing, and hearing.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about the role of the Chief Justice of India in case scheduling:

• The Chief Justice of India has exclusive authority over the allocation of cases to benches.

• The Chief Justice must consult the Supreme Court Registry before finalizing the schedule.

• The master of the roster principle allows the Chief Justice to determine which bench hears a particular case.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct: The Chief Justice has exclusive authority over allocating cases to benches as the master of the roster.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice is not required to consult the Registry while finalizing the schedule; the Registry performs an administrative role under the CJI’s directions.

Statement 3 is correct: The master of the roster principle enables the Chief Justice to decide which bench hears a particular case.

About Scheduling of Cases in the Supreme Court:

Who is in Charge?

• Chief Justice of India (CJI):Acts as the master of the roster, deciding the allocation and scheduling of cases.

• Supreme Court Registry:Administers filing, scrutiny, listing, and scheduling of cases.

Law Governing Case Scheduling:

• Governed by Supreme Court Rules, 2013, outlining procedural aspects like filing, listing, and hearing.

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct: The Chief Justice has exclusive authority over allocating cases to benches as the master of the roster.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice is not required to consult the Registry while finalizing the schedule; the Registry performs an administrative role under the CJI’s directions.

Statement 3 is correct: The master of the roster principle enables the Chief Justice to decide which bench hears a particular case.

About Scheduling of Cases in the Supreme Court:

Who is in Charge?

• Chief Justice of India (CJI):Acts as the master of the roster, deciding the allocation and scheduling of cases.

• Supreme Court Registry:Administers filing, scrutiny, listing, and scheduling of cases.

Law Governing Case Scheduling:

• Governed by Supreme Court Rules, 2013, outlining procedural aspects like filing, listing, and hearing.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the global context of de-dollarisation: De-dollarisation involves completely abandoning the use of the U.S. dollar in global trade. China and Russia have increased the use of their local currencies in bilateral trade as part of de-dollarisation. De-dollarisation aims to strengthen the dominance of gold as the sole global reserve asset. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect: De-dollarisation reduces dependence on the U.S. dollar but does not aim to completely abandon its use. Statement 2 is correct: Countries like China and Russia are using local currencies for bilateral trade, reducing reliance on the dollar. Statement 3 is incorrect: While gold plays a role in diversification, de-dollarisation promotes alternatives, including regional currencies, not just gold. What is De-dollarisation? Definition: The process of reducing reliance on the U.S. dollar in international trade and reserves to mitigate risks associated with currency volatility. Global Context: Countries like China and Russia have initiated measures such as bilateral trade in local currencies and increasing gold reserves. India’s Initiatives: Local Currency Trade Agreements: India has signed agreements with select nations for bilateral trade in local currencies, reducing transaction costs and exchange rate volatility. Diversification of ForexReserves: Increased focus on gold and other currencies in reserves. Promoting INR Trade: Steps to internationalize the Indian rupee for global trade settlements. Impact of De-dollarisation: On the Global Economy: Reduced Dollar Dominance: Weakens the U.S. dollar’s role as a global reserve currency. Geopolitical Tensions: May lead to trade blocs and financial realignments. Alternative Currencies: Promotes regional currencies or gold as trade and reserve assets. On India’s Economy: Trade Diversification: Enhances resilience against dollar volatility. Risk Mitigation: Shields the economy from sudden dollar-driven shocks. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect: De-dollarisation reduces dependence on the U.S. dollar but does not aim to completely abandon its use. Statement 2 is correct: Countries like China and Russia are using local currencies for bilateral trade, reducing reliance on the dollar. Statement 3 is incorrect: While gold plays a role in diversification, de-dollarisation promotes alternatives, including regional currencies, not just gold. What is De-dollarisation? Definition: The process of reducing reliance on the U.S. dollar in international trade and reserves to mitigate risks associated with currency volatility. Global Context: Countries like China and Russia have initiated measures such as bilateral trade in local currencies and increasing gold reserves. India’s Initiatives: Local Currency Trade Agreements: India has signed agreements with select nations for bilateral trade in local currencies, reducing transaction costs and exchange rate volatility. Diversification of ForexReserves: Increased focus on gold and other currencies in reserves. Promoting INR Trade: Steps to internationalize the Indian rupee for global trade settlements. Impact of De-dollarisation: On the Global Economy: Reduced Dollar Dominance: Weakens the U.S. dollar’s role as a global reserve currency. Geopolitical Tensions: May lead to trade blocs and financial realignments. Alternative Currencies: Promotes regional currencies or gold as trade and reserve assets. On India’s Economy: Trade Diversification: Enhances resilience against dollar volatility. Risk Mitigation: Shields the economy from sudden dollar-driven shocks.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about the global context of de-dollarisation:

• De-dollarisation involves completely abandoning the use of the U.S. dollar in global trade.

• China and Russia have increased the use of their local currencies in bilateral trade as part of de-dollarisation.

• De-dollarisation aims to strengthen the dominance of gold as the sole global reserve asset.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect: De-dollarisation reduces dependence on the U.S. dollar but does not aim to completely abandon its use.

Statement 2 is correct: Countries like China and Russia are using local currencies for bilateral trade, reducing reliance on the dollar.

Statement 3 is incorrect: While gold plays a role in diversification, de-dollarisation promotes alternatives, including regional currencies, not just gold.

What is De-dollarisation?

• Definition: The process of reducing reliance on the U.S. dollar in international trade and reserves to mitigate risks associated with currency volatility.

• Global Context: Countries like China and Russia have initiated measures such as bilateral trade in local currencies and increasing gold reserves.

India’s Initiatives:

• Local Currency Trade Agreements: India has signed agreements with select nations for bilateral trade in local currencies, reducing transaction costs and exchange rate volatility.

• Diversification of ForexReserves: Increased focus on gold and other currencies in reserves.

• Promoting INR Trade: Steps to internationalize the Indian rupee for global trade settlements.

Impact of De-dollarisation:

On the Global Economy:

• Reduced Dollar Dominance: Weakens the U.S. dollar’s role as a global reserve currency.

• Geopolitical Tensions: May lead to trade blocs and financial realignments.

• Alternative Currencies: Promotes regional currencies or gold as trade and reserve assets.

On India’s Economy:

• Trade Diversification: Enhances resilience against dollar volatility.

• Risk Mitigation: Shields the economy from sudden dollar-driven shocks.

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect: De-dollarisation reduces dependence on the U.S. dollar but does not aim to completely abandon its use.

Statement 2 is correct: Countries like China and Russia are using local currencies for bilateral trade, reducing reliance on the dollar.

Statement 3 is incorrect: While gold plays a role in diversification, de-dollarisation promotes alternatives, including regional currencies, not just gold.

What is De-dollarisation?

• Definition: The process of reducing reliance on the U.S. dollar in international trade and reserves to mitigate risks associated with currency volatility.

• Global Context: Countries like China and Russia have initiated measures such as bilateral trade in local currencies and increasing gold reserves.

India’s Initiatives:

• Local Currency Trade Agreements: India has signed agreements with select nations for bilateral trade in local currencies, reducing transaction costs and exchange rate volatility.

• Diversification of ForexReserves: Increased focus on gold and other currencies in reserves.

• Promoting INR Trade: Steps to internationalize the Indian rupee for global trade settlements.

Impact of De-dollarisation:

On the Global Economy:

• Reduced Dollar Dominance: Weakens the U.S. dollar’s role as a global reserve currency.

• Geopolitical Tensions: May lead to trade blocs and financial realignments.

• Alternative Currencies: Promotes regional currencies or gold as trade and reserve assets.

On India’s Economy:

• Trade Diversification: Enhances resilience against dollar volatility.

• Risk Mitigation: Shields the economy from sudden dollar-driven shocks.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize: The prize exclusively rewards individuals from India. The recipient is selected by an international jury chaired by a former Prime Minister of India. The prize was instituted to commemorate Indira Gandhi’s contributions to India’s nuclear program. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect: The prize is awarded to individuals or organizations worldwide, not exclusively from India. Statement 2 is incorrect: The international jury may include prominent figures, but it is not necessarily chaired by a former Prime Minister. For 2024, it was chaired by Shivshankar Menon. Statement 3 is incorrect: The prize was instituted to honor contributions to peace, disarmament, and development, not specifically India’s nuclear program. About Indira Gandhi Peace Prize: Origin: Instituted in 1986 by the Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust in memory of India’s former Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi. Aim: Honors contributions to peace, disarmament, and development, fostering global harmony, scientific progress, and human betterment. Award Components: Monetary Prize: ₹25 lakh Citation: Recognizing exemplary achievements. Award Given By: Selected by an international jury, chaired this year by Shivshankar Menon, former National Security Adviser. Recipient for 2024: Michelle Bachelet: Former Chilean President and UN High Commissioner for Human Rights, for championing gender equality, democracy, and human rights globally. Notable Past Recipients: Mikhail Gorbachev (1987) UNICEF (1989) Jimmy Carter (1997) Angela Merkel (2013) ISRO (2014) Sir David Attenborough (2019) Pratham NGO (2021) Indian Medical Association and the Trained Nurses Association of India (2022) Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect: The prize is awarded to individuals or organizations worldwide, not exclusively from India. Statement 2 is incorrect: The international jury may include prominent figures, but it is not necessarily chaired by a former Prime Minister. For 2024, it was chaired by Shivshankar Menon. Statement 3 is incorrect: The prize was instituted to honor contributions to peace, disarmament, and development, not specifically India’s nuclear program. About Indira Gandhi Peace Prize: Origin: Instituted in 1986 by the Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust in memory of India’s former Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi. Aim: Honors contributions to peace, disarmament, and development, fostering global harmony, scientific progress, and human betterment. Award Components: Monetary Prize: ₹25 lakh Citation: Recognizing exemplary achievements. Award Given By: Selected by an international jury, chaired this year by Shivshankar Menon, former National Security Adviser. Recipient for 2024: Michelle Bachelet: Former Chilean President and UN High Commissioner for Human Rights, for championing gender equality, democracy, and human rights globally. Notable Past Recipients: Mikhail Gorbachev (1987) UNICEF (1989) Jimmy Carter (1997) Angela Merkel (2013) ISRO (2014) Sir David Attenborough (2019) Pratham NGO (2021) Indian Medical Association and the Trained Nurses Association of India (2022)

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize:

• The prize exclusively rewards individuals from India.

• The recipient is selected by an international jury chaired by a former Prime Minister of India.

• The prize was instituted to commemorate Indira Gandhi’s contributions to India’s nuclear program.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The prize is awarded to individuals or organizations worldwide, not exclusively from India.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The international jury may include prominent figures, but it is not necessarily chaired by a former Prime Minister. For 2024, it was chaired by Shivshankar Menon.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The prize was instituted to honor contributions to peace, disarmament, and development, not specifically India’s nuclear program.

About Indira Gandhi Peace Prize:

• Origin: Instituted in 1986 by the Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust in memory of India’s former Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi.

• Aim: Honors contributions to peace, disarmament, and development, fostering global harmony, scientific progress, and human betterment.

• Award Components: Monetary Prize: ₹25 lakh Citation: Recognizing exemplary achievements.

• Monetary Prize: ₹25 lakh

• Citation: Recognizing exemplary achievements.

• Award Given By:

• Selected by an international jury, chaired this year by Shivshankar Menon, former National Security Adviser.

Recipient for 2024: Michelle Bachelet: Former Chilean President and UN High Commissioner for Human Rights, for championing gender equality, democracy, and human rights globally.

Notable Past Recipients:

• Mikhail Gorbachev (1987)

• UNICEF (1989)

• Jimmy Carter (1997)

• Angela Merkel (2013)

• ISRO (2014)

• Sir David Attenborough (2019)

• Pratham NGO (2021)

• Indian Medical Association and the Trained Nurses Association of India (2022)

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The prize is awarded to individuals or organizations worldwide, not exclusively from India.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The international jury may include prominent figures, but it is not necessarily chaired by a former Prime Minister. For 2024, it was chaired by Shivshankar Menon.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The prize was instituted to honor contributions to peace, disarmament, and development, not specifically India’s nuclear program.

About Indira Gandhi Peace Prize:

• Origin: Instituted in 1986 by the Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust in memory of India’s former Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi.

• Aim: Honors contributions to peace, disarmament, and development, fostering global harmony, scientific progress, and human betterment.

• Award Components: Monetary Prize: ₹25 lakh Citation: Recognizing exemplary achievements.

• Monetary Prize: ₹25 lakh

• Citation: Recognizing exemplary achievements.

• Award Given By:

• Selected by an international jury, chaired this year by Shivshankar Menon, former National Security Adviser.

Recipient for 2024: Michelle Bachelet: Former Chilean President and UN High Commissioner for Human Rights, for championing gender equality, democracy, and human rights globally.

Notable Past Recipients:

• Mikhail Gorbachev (1987)

• UNICEF (1989)

• Jimmy Carter (1997)

• Angela Merkel (2013)

• ISRO (2014)

• Sir David Attenborough (2019)

• Pratham NGO (2021)

• Indian Medical Association and the Trained Nurses Association of India (2022)

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following geographical features is most prominently associated with the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC)? a) Kalahari Desert b) Congo River Basin c) Great Rift Valley d) Sahara Desert Correct Solution: b) The Democratic Republic of Congo is home to the Congo River Basin, which includes the Congo River (Africa’s second-longest river) and the world’s second-largest tropical rainforest, making it a significant ecological region. Incorrect Solution: b) The Democratic Republic of Congo is home to the Congo River Basin, which includes the Congo River (Africa’s second-longest river) and the world’s second-largest tropical rainforest, making it a significant ecological region.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following geographical features is most prominently associated with the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC)?

• a) Kalahari Desert

• b) Congo River Basin

• c) Great Rift Valley

• d) Sahara Desert

Solution: b)

The Democratic Republic of Congo is home to the Congo River Basin, which includes the Congo River (Africa’s second-longest river) and the world’s second-largest tropical rainforest, making it a significant ecological region.

Solution: b)

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the lifespan and reproduction of the Laysan Albatross, recently in news: The average lifespan of the species is less than 1 year. They lay multiple eggs in a single breeding season. They do not exhibit pair bonding and mate with multiple partners throughout their life. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect: The Laysan Albatross has a notable lifespan, often exceeding 60 years, with individuals like Wisdom living beyond 74 years. Statement 2 is incorrect: They lay a single egg per year as part of their reproductive strategy. Statement 3 is incorrect: They exhibit strong pair bonding and typically mate for life, sharing incubation and parental duties. About Laysan Albatross: Name:Laysan Albatross (Phoebastria immutabilis) It is a pelagic bird found predominantly in the North Pacific Ocean. Region found in:Primarily the North Pacific Ocean, with 99.7% of its population nesting in the Northwestern Hawaiian Islands, particularly at Midway Atoll National Wildlife Refuge. Key Characteristics: Medium-sized seabird resembling a gull, with long, slender wings for sustained flight. Feeds on squid, fish eggs, and crustaceans far from land. Mates for life, laying a single egg per year with shared incubation duties. Notable lifespan, often exceeding 60 years, with some individuals like Wisdom reaching 74 years. IUCN Status:Near Threatened Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect: The Laysan Albatross has a notable lifespan, often exceeding 60 years, with individuals like Wisdom living beyond 74 years. Statement 2 is incorrect: They lay a single egg per year as part of their reproductive strategy. Statement 3 is incorrect: They exhibit strong pair bonding and typically mate for life, sharing incubation and parental duties. About Laysan Albatross: Name:Laysan Albatross (Phoebastria immutabilis) It is a pelagic bird found predominantly in the North Pacific Ocean. Region found in:Primarily the North Pacific Ocean, with 99.7% of its population nesting in the Northwestern Hawaiian Islands, particularly at Midway Atoll National Wildlife Refuge. Key Characteristics: Medium-sized seabird resembling a gull, with long, slender wings for sustained flight. Feeds on squid, fish eggs, and crustaceans far from land. Mates for life, laying a single egg per year with shared incubation duties. Notable lifespan, often exceeding 60 years, with some individuals like Wisdom reaching 74 years. IUCN Status:Near Threatened

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the lifespan and reproduction of the Laysan Albatross, recently in news:

• The average lifespan of the species is less than 1 year.

• They lay multiple eggs in a single breeding season.

• They do not exhibit pair bonding and mate with multiple partners throughout their life.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c) 1 and 3 only

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Laysan Albatross has a notable lifespan, often exceeding 60 years, with individuals like Wisdom living beyond 74 years.

Statement 2 is incorrect: They lay a single egg per year as part of their reproductive strategy.

Statement 3 is incorrect: They exhibit strong pair bonding and typically mate for life, sharing incubation and parental duties.

About Laysan Albatross:

• Name:Laysan Albatross (Phoebastria immutabilis)

• It is a pelagic bird found predominantly in the North Pacific Ocean.

• Region found in:Primarily the North Pacific Ocean, with 99.7% of its population nesting in the Northwestern Hawaiian Islands, particularly at Midway Atoll National Wildlife Refuge.

Key Characteristics:

• Medium-sized seabird resembling a gull, with long, slender wings for sustained flight.

• Feeds on squid, fish eggs, and crustaceans far from land.

• Mates for life, laying a single egg per year with shared incubation duties.

• Notable lifespan, often exceeding 60 years, with some individuals like Wisdom reaching 74 years.

• IUCN Status:Near Threatened

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Laysan Albatross has a notable lifespan, often exceeding 60 years, with individuals like Wisdom living beyond 74 years.

Statement 2 is incorrect: They lay a single egg per year as part of their reproductive strategy.

Statement 3 is incorrect: They exhibit strong pair bonding and typically mate for life, sharing incubation and parental duties.

About Laysan Albatross:

• Name:Laysan Albatross (Phoebastria immutabilis)

• It is a pelagic bird found predominantly in the North Pacific Ocean.

• Region found in:Primarily the North Pacific Ocean, with 99.7% of its population nesting in the Northwestern Hawaiian Islands, particularly at Midway Atoll National Wildlife Refuge.

Key Characteristics:

• Medium-sized seabird resembling a gull, with long, slender wings for sustained flight.

• Feeds on squid, fish eggs, and crustaceans far from land.

• Mates for life, laying a single egg per year with shared incubation duties.

• Notable lifespan, often exceeding 60 years, with some individuals like Wisdom reaching 74 years.

• IUCN Status:Near Threatened

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about PM e-Vidya: It includes the SWAYAM platform, which offers higher education courses with credit transfer. Virtual Labs under PM e-Vidya are limited to science and mathematics subjects. The DIKSHA platform provides learning content only for Classes 1–12. PM e-Vidya was launched as part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct: The SWAYAM platform provides Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) for higher education and school-level courses with credit transfer options. Statement 2 is incorrect: Virtual Labs also include skilling e-labs, in addition to science and mathematics labs. Statement 3 is incorrect: The DIKSHA platform offers content beyond school education, including teacher training and other educational resources. Statement 4 is correct: PM e-Vidya was launched in May 2020 under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan. About PM e-Vidya: Launched in: May 2020, under the Ministry of Education as part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan. Aim: Ensure equitable, accessible, and quality education through digital, online, and on-air platforms, addressing learning gaps exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. Key Features: DIKSHA Platform: National digital platform offering QR-coded Energized Textbooks, interactive content, and over 5.58 crore learning sessions. DTH TV Channels: Expanded from 12 to 200 channels, delivering content in multiple languages for Classes 1–12. SWAYAM Platform: MOOC-based platform offering over 10,000 higher education and school-level courses with credit transfer provisions. Virtual Labs: 750 science and mathematics labs (Classes 6–12) and 75 skilling e-labs for simulated learning environments. Community Outreach: Education content broadcast through radio and podcasts like Shiksha Vani for areas with limited internet access. ISL Promotion: Channel 31 delivers ISL-based content 24×7, facilitating education for hearing-impaired students and supporting ISL as a subject. Recognitions: PM e-Vidya, an ICT-based education initiative, was recognized by UNESCOin 2022 for its impact during COVID-19. The Central Institute of Educational Technology (CIET), part of the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT), received the UNESCO King Hamad Bin Isa Al-Khalifa Prize for the Use of ICT in Education for 2021 Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct: The SWAYAM platform provides Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) for higher education and school-level courses with credit transfer options. Statement 2 is incorrect: Virtual Labs also include skilling e-labs, in addition to science and mathematics labs. Statement 3 is incorrect: The DIKSHA platform offers content beyond school education, including teacher training and other educational resources. Statement 4 is correct: PM e-Vidya was launched in May 2020 under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan. About PM e-Vidya: Launched in: May 2020, under the Ministry of Education as part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan. Aim: Ensure equitable, accessible, and quality education through digital, online, and on-air platforms, addressing learning gaps exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. Key Features: DIKSHA Platform: National digital platform offering QR-coded Energized Textbooks, interactive content, and over 5.58 crore learning sessions. DTH TV Channels: Expanded from 12 to 200 channels, delivering content in multiple languages for Classes 1–12. SWAYAM Platform: MOOC-based platform offering over 10,000 higher education and school-level courses with credit transfer provisions. Virtual Labs: 750 science and mathematics labs (Classes 6–12) and 75 skilling e-labs for simulated learning environments. Community Outreach: Education content broadcast through radio and podcasts like Shiksha Vani for areas with limited internet access. ISL Promotion: Channel 31 delivers ISL-based content 24×7, facilitating education for hearing-impaired students and supporting ISL as a subject. Recognitions: PM e-Vidya, an ICT-based education initiative, was recognized by UNESCOin 2022 for its impact during COVID-19. The Central Institute of Educational Technology (CIET), part of the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT), received the UNESCO King Hamad Bin Isa Al-Khalifa Prize for the Use of ICT in Education for 2021

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about PM e-Vidya:

• It includes the SWAYAM platform, which offers higher education courses with credit transfer.

• Virtual Labs under PM e-Vidya are limited to science and mathematics subjects.

• The DIKSHA platform provides learning content only for Classes 1–12.

• PM e-Vidya was launched as part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct: The SWAYAM platform provides Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) for higher education and school-level courses with credit transfer options.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Virtual Labs also include skilling e-labs, in addition to science and mathematics labs.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The DIKSHA platform offers content beyond school education, including teacher training and other educational resources.

Statement 4 is correct: PM e-Vidya was launched in May 2020 under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan.

About PM e-Vidya:

• Launched in: May 2020, under the Ministry of Education as part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan.

• Aim: Ensure equitable, accessible, and quality education through digital, online, and on-air platforms, addressing learning gaps exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic.

Key Features:

• DIKSHA Platform: National digital platform offering QR-coded Energized Textbooks, interactive content, and over 5.58 crore learning sessions.

• DTH TV Channels: Expanded from 12 to 200 channels, delivering content in multiple languages for Classes 1–12.

• SWAYAM Platform: MOOC-based platform offering over 10,000 higher education and school-level courses with credit transfer provisions.

• Virtual Labs: 750 science and mathematics labs (Classes 6–12) and 75 skilling e-labs for simulated learning environments.

• Community Outreach: Education content broadcast through radio and podcasts like Shiksha Vani for areas with limited internet access.

• ISL Promotion: Channel 31 delivers ISL-based content 24×7, facilitating education for hearing-impaired students and supporting ISL as a subject.

• Recognitions: PM e-Vidya, an ICT-based education initiative, was recognized by UNESCOin 2022 for its impact during COVID-19. The Central Institute of Educational Technology (CIET), part of the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT), received the UNESCO King Hamad Bin Isa Al-Khalifa Prize for the Use of ICT in Education for 2021

• PM e-Vidya, an ICT-based education initiative, was recognized by UNESCOin 2022 for its impact during COVID-19.

• The Central Institute of Educational Technology (CIET), part of the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT), received the UNESCO King Hamad Bin Isa Al-Khalifa Prize for the Use of ICT in Education for 2021

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct: The SWAYAM platform provides Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) for higher education and school-level courses with credit transfer options.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Virtual Labs also include skilling e-labs, in addition to science and mathematics labs.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The DIKSHA platform offers content beyond school education, including teacher training and other educational resources.

Statement 4 is correct: PM e-Vidya was launched in May 2020 under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan.

About PM e-Vidya:

• Launched in: May 2020, under the Ministry of Education as part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan.

• Aim: Ensure equitable, accessible, and quality education through digital, online, and on-air platforms, addressing learning gaps exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic.

Key Features:

• DIKSHA Platform: National digital platform offering QR-coded Energized Textbooks, interactive content, and over 5.58 crore learning sessions.

• DTH TV Channels: Expanded from 12 to 200 channels, delivering content in multiple languages for Classes 1–12.

• SWAYAM Platform: MOOC-based platform offering over 10,000 higher education and school-level courses with credit transfer provisions.

• Virtual Labs: 750 science and mathematics labs (Classes 6–12) and 75 skilling e-labs for simulated learning environments.

• Community Outreach: Education content broadcast through radio and podcasts like Shiksha Vani for areas with limited internet access.

• ISL Promotion: Channel 31 delivers ISL-based content 24×7, facilitating education for hearing-impaired students and supporting ISL as a subject.

• PM e-Vidya, an ICT-based education initiative, was recognized by UNESCOin 2022 for its impact during COVID-19.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Which of the following places is known as the “Botanical Garden of Kashmir”? a) Baradari b) Kokernag c) Dal Lake d) Gulmarg Correct Solution: b) Kokernag, located in the Anantnag district, is renowned for its lush gardens and freshwater springs, earning it the title of the “Botanical Garden of Kashmir.” About Places in News: Kokernag Location:Anantnag district Speciality:Famous for its freshwater springs and lush gardens, it is known as the “Botanical Garden of Kashmir.” Baradari Location:Reasi district Speciality: An architectural marvel near the Chenab River, known for its historical significance and picturesque surroundings. Incorrect Solution: b) Kokernag, located in the Anantnag district, is renowned for its lush gardens and freshwater springs, earning it the title of the “Botanical Garden of Kashmir.” About Places in News: Kokernag Location:Anantnag district Speciality:Famous for its freshwater springs and lush gardens, it is known as the “Botanical Garden of Kashmir.” Baradari Location:Reasi district Speciality: An architectural marvel near the Chenab River, known for its historical significance and picturesque surroundings.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following places is known as the “Botanical Garden of Kashmir”?

• a) Baradari

• b) Kokernag

• c) Dal Lake

• d) Gulmarg

Solution: b)

Kokernag, located in the Anantnag district, is renowned for its lush gardens and freshwater springs, earning it the title of the “Botanical Garden of Kashmir.”

About Places in News:

• Location:Anantnag district

• Speciality:Famous for its freshwater springs and lush gardens, it is known as the “Botanical Garden of Kashmir.”

• Location:Reasi district

• Speciality: An architectural marvel near the Chenab River, known for its historical significance and picturesque surroundings.

Solution: b)

Kokernag, located in the Anantnag district, is renowned for its lush gardens and freshwater springs, earning it the title of the “Botanical Garden of Kashmir.”

About Places in News:

• Location:Anantnag district

• Speciality:Famous for its freshwater springs and lush gardens, it is known as the “Botanical Garden of Kashmir.”

• Location:Reasi district

• Speciality: An architectural marvel near the Chenab River, known for its historical significance and picturesque surroundings.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the miscellaneous and non-miscellaneous days in the Supreme Court: Non-miscellaneous days are exclusively for final hearings of cases. Miscellaneous days are used for admission and issuing notices for fresh matters. Both miscellaneous and non-miscellaneous days are governed by the Supreme Court Rules, 2013. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect: Non-miscellaneous days are primarily used for after-notice matters and regular hearings but are not exclusively for final hearings. Statement 2 is correct: Miscellaneous days, typically Mondays and Fridays, are allocated for admission hearings and issuing notices for fresh cases. Statement 3 is correct: The procedural framework for both types of days is outlined in the Supreme Court Rules, 2013. Procedure for Case Scheduling: Filing Process:Cases are filed through the court’s e-portal or physical counter by Advocates-on-Record (AoR). Scrutiny:Cases are verified for defects by the Registry and allotted a diary number. Listing:After verification, cases are listed for hearing based on their type: Miscellaneous Days (Mondays and Fridays):Fresh matters for issuing notices. Non-Miscellaneous Days (Tuesdays to Thursdays):After-notice or regular hearing matters. Admission:Cases requiring full hearings are admitted after preliminary consideration. Hearing and Judgment:Admitted cases are scheduled for detailed hearings, leading to verdicts. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect: Non-miscellaneous days are primarily used for after-notice matters and regular hearings but are not exclusively for final hearings. Statement 2 is correct: Miscellaneous days, typically Mondays and Fridays, are allocated for admission hearings and issuing notices for fresh cases. Statement 3 is correct: The procedural framework for both types of days is outlined in the Supreme Court Rules, 2013. Procedure for Case Scheduling: Filing Process:Cases are filed through the court’s e-portal or physical counter by Advocates-on-Record (AoR). Scrutiny:Cases are verified for defects by the Registry and allotted a diary number. Listing:After verification, cases are listed for hearing based on their type: Miscellaneous Days (Mondays and Fridays):Fresh matters for issuing notices. Non-Miscellaneous Days (Tuesdays to Thursdays):After-notice or regular hearing matters. Admission:Cases requiring full hearings are admitted after preliminary consideration. Hearing and Judgment:Admitted cases are scheduled for detailed hearings, leading to verdicts.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about the miscellaneous and non-miscellaneous days in the Supreme Court:

• Non-miscellaneous days are exclusively for final hearings of cases.

• Miscellaneous days are used for admission and issuing notices for fresh matters.

• Both miscellaneous and non-miscellaneous days are governed by the Supreme Court Rules, 2013.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: Non-miscellaneous days are primarily used for after-notice matters and regular hearings but are not exclusively for final hearings.

Statement 2 is correct: Miscellaneous days, typically Mondays and Fridays, are allocated for admission hearings and issuing notices for fresh cases.

Statement 3 is correct: The procedural framework for both types of days is outlined in the Supreme Court Rules, 2013.

Procedure for Case Scheduling:

• Filing Process:Cases are filed through the court’s e-portal or physical counter by Advocates-on-Record (AoR).

• Scrutiny:Cases are verified for defects by the Registry and allotted a diary number.

• Listing:After verification, cases are listed for hearing based on their type:

• Miscellaneous Days (Mondays and Fridays):Fresh matters for issuing notices.

• Non-Miscellaneous Days (Tuesdays to Thursdays):After-notice or regular hearing matters.

• Admission:Cases requiring full hearings are admitted after preliminary consideration.

• Hearing and Judgment:Admitted cases are scheduled for detailed hearings, leading to verdicts.

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: Non-miscellaneous days are primarily used for after-notice matters and regular hearings but are not exclusively for final hearings.

Statement 2 is correct: Miscellaneous days, typically Mondays and Fridays, are allocated for admission hearings and issuing notices for fresh cases.

Statement 3 is correct: The procedural framework for both types of days is outlined in the Supreme Court Rules, 2013.

Procedure for Case Scheduling:

• Filing Process:Cases are filed through the court’s e-portal or physical counter by Advocates-on-Record (AoR).

• Scrutiny:Cases are verified for defects by the Registry and allotted a diary number.

• Listing:After verification, cases are listed for hearing based on their type:

• Miscellaneous Days (Mondays and Fridays):Fresh matters for issuing notices.

• Non-Miscellaneous Days (Tuesdays to Thursdays):After-notice or regular hearing matters.

• Admission:Cases requiring full hearings are admitted after preliminary consideration.

• Hearing and Judgment:Admitted cases are scheduled for detailed hearings, leading to verdicts.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the geography and climate of the Democratic Republic of Congo: The Congo River is the longest river in Africa. The DRC is predominantly covered by deserts. The Congo Basin is drained entirely by the Nile River. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: d) About the Democratic Republic of Congo: Location:Central sub-Saharan Africa, within the Congo Basin. Capital:Kinshasa Neighbouring Countries: Borders Republic of Congo, Central African Republic, South Sudan, Uganda, Rwanda, Burundi, Tanzania, Zambia, Angola. Rivers:Home to the Congo River, Africa’s second-longest river, and the Congo Basin, the second-largest tropical rainforest globally. Mountains: Features mountain terraces and plateaus, along with diverse ecosystems like the Miombo woodlands and cloud forests. Climate: Predominantly equatorial, with hot and humid conditions in the north and west, and cooler, drier climates in the south and east. Incorrect Solution: d) About the Democratic Republic of Congo: Location:Central sub-Saharan Africa, within the Congo Basin. Capital:Kinshasa Neighbouring Countries: Borders Republic of Congo, Central African Republic, South Sudan, Uganda, Rwanda, Burundi, Tanzania, Zambia, Angola. Rivers:Home to the Congo River, Africa’s second-longest river, and the Congo Basin, the second-largest tropical rainforest globally. Mountains: Features mountain terraces and plateaus, along with diverse ecosystems like the Miombo woodlands and cloud forests. Climate: Predominantly equatorial, with hot and humid conditions in the north and west, and cooler, drier climates in the south and east.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the geography and climate of the Democratic Republic of Congo:

• The Congo River is the longest river in Africa.

• The DRC is predominantly covered by deserts.

• The Congo Basin is drained entirely by the Nile River.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: d)

About the Democratic Republic of Congo:

• Location:Central sub-Saharan Africa, within the Congo Basin.

• Capital:Kinshasa

• Neighbouring Countries: Borders Republic of Congo, Central African Republic, South Sudan, Uganda, Rwanda, Burundi, Tanzania, Zambia, Angola.

• Rivers:Home to the Congo River, Africa’s second-longest river, and the Congo Basin, the second-largest tropical rainforest globally.

• Mountains: Features mountain terraces and plateaus, along with diverse ecosystems like the Miombo woodlands and cloud forests.

• Climate: Predominantly equatorial, with hot and humid conditions in the north and west, and cooler, drier climates in the south and east.

Solution: d)

About the Democratic Republic of Congo:

• Location:Central sub-Saharan Africa, within the Congo Basin.

• Capital:Kinshasa

• Neighbouring Countries: Borders Republic of Congo, Central African Republic, South Sudan, Uganda, Rwanda, Burundi, Tanzania, Zambia, Angola.

• Rivers:Home to the Congo River, Africa’s second-longest river, and the Congo Basin, the second-largest tropical rainforest globally.

• Mountains: Features mountain terraces and plateaus, along with diverse ecosystems like the Miombo woodlands and cloud forests.

• Climate: Predominantly equatorial, with hot and humid conditions in the north and west, and cooler, drier climates in the south and east.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which of the following places is referred to as “Mini Kashmir” due to its scenic beauty and forests? a) Doodhpathri b) Pahalgam c) Bhadarwah d) Gulmarg Correct Solution: c) Bhadarwah, located in the Doda district of Jammu and Kashmir, is often called “Mini Kashmir” for its lush forests, breathtaking landscapes, and adventure tourism opportunities. Bhadarwah Location:Doda district Speciality:Often called “Mini Kashmir,” it is renowned for its scenic beauty, forests, and adventure tourism. Doodhpathri Location:Budgam district Speciality:A pristine meadow surrounded by coniferous forests, it is popular for its serene ambiance and the Shaliganga River. Incorrect Solution: c) Bhadarwah, located in the Doda district of Jammu and Kashmir, is often called “Mini Kashmir” for its lush forests, breathtaking landscapes, and adventure tourism opportunities. Bhadarwah Location:Doda district Speciality:Often called “Mini Kashmir,” it is renowned for its scenic beauty, forests, and adventure tourism. Doodhpathri Location:Budgam district Speciality:A pristine meadow surrounded by coniferous forests, it is popular for its serene ambiance and the Shaliganga River.

#### 10. Question

Which of the following places is referred to as “Mini Kashmir” due to its scenic beauty and forests?

• a) Doodhpathri

• b) Pahalgam

• c) Bhadarwah

• d) Gulmarg

Solution: c)

Bhadarwah, located in the Doda district of Jammu and Kashmir, is often called “Mini Kashmir” for its lush forests, breathtaking landscapes, and adventure tourism opportunities.

• Location:Doda district

• Speciality:Often called “Mini Kashmir,” it is renowned for its scenic beauty, forests, and adventure tourism.

Doodhpathri

• Location:Budgam district

• Speciality:A pristine meadow surrounded by coniferous forests, it is popular for its serene ambiance and the Shaliganga River.

Solution: c)

Bhadarwah, located in the Doda district of Jammu and Kashmir, is often called “Mini Kashmir” for its lush forests, breathtaking landscapes, and adventure tourism opportunities.

• Location:Doda district

• Speciality:Often called “Mini Kashmir,” it is renowned for its scenic beauty, forests, and adventure tourism.

Doodhpathri

• Location:Budgam district

• Speciality:A pristine meadow surrounded by coniferous forests, it is popular for its serene ambiance and the Shaliganga River.

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates for

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE