UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 8 November 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India: Statement I: The CAG can be removed from office by the President of India on the ground of proven misbehaviour or incapacity. Statement II: The procedure for the removal of the CAG is the same as that of a judge of the Supreme Court of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I correctly identifies that the CAG is removed by the President for specific reasons (proven misbehaviour or incapacity), as outlined in the Constitution (Article 148). Statement-II correctly states that the procedure for removal is analogous to that of a Supreme Court judge, which requires a resolution passed by a special majority of Parliament (a majority of the total membership of each House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting). This special procedure is the only way the President can effect the removal and thus serves as the definitive explanation for the manner of removal specified in Statement-I. This ensures the independence of the CAG from the executive, aligning with the CAG’s role as the “Guardian of the Public Purse.” Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I correctly identifies that the CAG is removed by the President for specific reasons (proven misbehaviour or incapacity), as outlined in the Constitution (Article 148). Statement-II correctly states that the procedure for removal is analogous to that of a Supreme Court judge, which requires a resolution passed by a special majority of Parliament (a majority of the total membership of each House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting). This special procedure is the only way the President can effect the removal and thus serves as the definitive explanation for the manner of removal specified in Statement-I. This ensures the independence of the CAG from the executive, aligning with the CAG’s role as the “Guardian of the Public Purse.”

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:

Statement I: The CAG can be removed from office by the President of India on the ground of proven misbehaviour or incapacity.

Statement II: The procedure for the removal of the CAG is the same as that of a judge of the Supreme Court of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I correctly identifies that the CAG is removed by the President for specific reasons (proven misbehaviour or incapacity), as outlined in the Constitution (Article 148).

• Statement-II correctly states that the procedure for removal is analogous to that of a Supreme Court judge, which requires a resolution passed by a special majority of Parliament (a majority of the total membership of each House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting).

• This special procedure is the only way the President can effect the removal and thus serves as the definitive explanation for the manner of removal specified in Statement-I.

• This ensures the independence of the CAG from the executive, aligning with the CAG’s role as the “Guardian of the Public Purse.”

Solution: A

• Statement-I correctly identifies that the CAG is removed by the President for specific reasons (proven misbehaviour or incapacity), as outlined in the Constitution (Article 148).

• This special procedure is the only way the President can effect the removal and thus serves as the definitive explanation for the manner of removal specified in Statement-I.

• This ensures the independence of the CAG from the executive, aligning with the CAG’s role as the “Guardian of the Public Purse.”

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which of the following is the most appropriate description of Gogabeel Lake in the context of its formation and location? (a) A large tectonic lake formed by faulting, situated in the Kaimur region of Bihar. (b) An artificial reservoir created by damming the Kosi river for irrigation and flood control in the northern plains. (c) A crescent-shaped oxbow lake formed by river meandering, located between the Ganga and Mahananda rivers. (d) A glacial-fed lake that serves as the confluence point for the three major rivers of the region. Correct Solution: C Gogabeel Lake is a prime example of an oxbow lake, a specific type of waterbody created by the natural evolution of a river system. An oxbow lake is formed when a wide meander (loop) of a river is cut off from the main channel, typically during a flood, leaving a crescent-shaped body of water. The lake’s formation is due to the meandering of rivers in the area, specifically the Mahananda and Kankhar rivers in the north and the Ganga in the south and east. Its designation as a Community Reserve and its recognition as the 94th Ramsar Site of India underscore its ecological importance as a wetland. Located in the Katihar district of Bihar, its position as a seasonal floodplain connecting the Ganga and Mahananda is crucial to its ecosystem. Incorrect Solution: C Gogabeel Lake is a prime example of an oxbow lake, a specific type of waterbody created by the natural evolution of a river system. An oxbow lake is formed when a wide meander (loop) of a river is cut off from the main channel, typically during a flood, leaving a crescent-shaped body of water. The lake’s formation is due to the meandering of rivers in the area, specifically the Mahananda and Kankhar rivers in the north and the Ganga in the south and east. Its designation as a Community Reserve and its recognition as the 94th Ramsar Site of India underscore its ecological importance as a wetland. Located in the Katihar district of Bihar, its position as a seasonal floodplain connecting the Ganga and Mahananda is crucial to its ecosystem.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following is the most appropriate description of Gogabeel Lake in the context of its formation and location?

• (a) A large tectonic lake formed by faulting, situated in the Kaimur region of Bihar.

• (b) An artificial reservoir created by damming the Kosi river for irrigation and flood control in the northern plains.

• (c) A crescent-shaped oxbow lake formed by river meandering, located between the Ganga and Mahananda rivers.

• (d) A glacial-fed lake that serves as the confluence point for the three major rivers of the region.

Solution: C

• Gogabeel Lake is a prime example of an oxbow lake, a specific type of waterbody created by the natural evolution of a river system. An oxbow lake is formed when a wide meander (loop) of a river is cut off from the main channel, typically during a flood, leaving a crescent-shaped body of water.

• The lake’s formation is due to the meandering of rivers in the area, specifically the Mahananda and Kankhar rivers in the north and the Ganga in the south and east.

• Its designation as a Community Reserve and its recognition as the 94th Ramsar Site of India underscore its ecological importance as a wetland.

• Located in the Katihar district of Bihar, its position as a seasonal floodplain connecting the Ganga and Mahananda is crucial to its ecosystem.

Solution: C

• The lake’s formation is due to the meandering of rivers in the area, specifically the Mahananda and Kankhar rivers in the north and the Ganga in the south and east.

• Its designation as a Community Reserve and its recognition as the 94th Ramsar Site of India underscore its ecological importance as a wetland.

• Located in the Katihar district of Bihar, its position as a seasonal floodplain connecting the Ganga and Mahananda is crucial to its ecosystem.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to the CAG’s newly approved Central Revenue Audit (CRA) and Central Expenditure Audit (CEA) Cadres, which of the following is the intended primary benefit of this reform? (a) Providing a clear separation of audit functions between the Union and State governments. (b) Eliminating the need for the CAG’s reports to be examined by the Public Accounts Committee (PAC). (c) Consolidating dispersed cadre control to develop domain expertise and improve audit quality of Central Government finances. (d) Ensuring that all staff of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department (IA&AD) are placed under all-India transfer liability. Correct Solution: C The primary motivation behind the CAG’s creation of the Central Revenue Audit (CRA) and Central Expenditure Audit (CEA) cadres is to address the fragmentation and inefficiency caused by the current dispersed cadre control across multiple state civil audit offices. This reform aims to centralize the management of over 4,000 audit professionals into two specialized streams. The ultimate goal is to build deeper domain expertise in auditing Central Government receipts (CRA) and expenditures (CEA), thereby significantly enhancing the overall quality and professional specialisation in government financial audits. Incorrect Solution: C The primary motivation behind the CAG’s creation of the Central Revenue Audit (CRA) and Central Expenditure Audit (CEA) cadres is to address the fragmentation and inefficiency caused by the current dispersed cadre control across multiple state civil audit offices. This reform aims to centralize the management of over 4,000 audit professionals into two specialized streams. The ultimate goal is to build deeper domain expertise in auditing Central Government receipts (CRA) and expenditures (CEA), thereby significantly enhancing the overall quality and professional specialisation in government financial audits.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the CAG’s newly approved Central Revenue Audit (CRA) and Central Expenditure Audit (CEA) Cadres, which of the following is the intended primary benefit of this reform?

• (a) Providing a clear separation of audit functions between the Union and State governments.

• (b) Eliminating the need for the CAG’s reports to be examined by the Public Accounts Committee (PAC).

• (c) Consolidating dispersed cadre control to develop domain expertise and improve audit quality of Central Government finances.

• (d) Ensuring that all staff of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department (IA&AD) are placed under all-India transfer liability.

Solution: C

• The primary motivation behind the CAG’s creation of the Central Revenue Audit (CRA) and Central Expenditure Audit (CEA) cadres is to address the fragmentation and inefficiency caused by the current dispersed cadre control across multiple state civil audit offices. This reform aims to centralize the management of over 4,000 audit professionals into two specialized streams.

• The ultimate goal is to build deeper domain expertise in auditing Central Government receipts (CRA) and expenditures (CEA), thereby significantly enhancing the overall quality and professional specialisation in government financial audits.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following statements accurately describe the architectural features and symbolism of the Taj Mahal complex? The double-dome construction ensures that the real graves of Mumtaz Mahal and Shah Jahan are housed in the main cenotaph chamber. The Charbagh garden is based on the Timurid-Persian quadripartite design, symbolizing the four rivers of paradise. The pietra dura technique involves intricate marble screen work (jali) carved from a single stone block. The main gateway and flanking structures are made of red sandstone, providing a deliberate visual contrast with the white marble mausoleum. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: The main chamber houses the cenotaphs (empty tombs) of Mumtaz Mahal and Shah Jahan, but the real graves lie in the lower crypt, a common feature in Mughal architecture for stability and security. Statement 2 is correct, emphasizing the Charbagh garden’s symbolic and architectural roots in Persian design, representing paradise. Statement 3 is incorrect: *Pietra dura is an inlay technique involving the meticulous carving and setting of precious stones (like jasper, lapis lazuli) into marble to create intricate patterns. The term refers to the inlay work, not the marble screen (jali) work, although both are found in the complex. Statement 4 is correct: The use of contrasting red sandstone for the mosque, guest house, and the main gateway creates a striking visual harmony and accentuates the purity of the central white marble mausoleum. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: The main chamber houses the cenotaphs (empty tombs) of Mumtaz Mahal and Shah Jahan, but the real graves lie in the lower crypt, a common feature in Mughal architecture for stability and security. Statement 2 is correct, emphasizing the Charbagh garden’s symbolic and architectural roots in Persian design, representing paradise. Statement 3 is incorrect: Pietra dura is an inlay technique involving the meticulous carving and setting of precious stones (like jasper, lapis lazuli) into marble to create intricate patterns. The term refers to the inlay work, not the marble screen (jali) work, although both are found in the complex. Statement 4 is correct: The use of contrasting red sandstone for the mosque, guest house, and the main gateway creates a striking visual harmony* and accentuates the purity of the central white marble mausoleum.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following statements accurately describe the architectural features and symbolism of the Taj Mahal complex?

• The double-dome construction ensures that the real graves of Mumtaz Mahal and Shah Jahan are housed in the main cenotaph chamber.

• The Charbagh garden is based on the Timurid-Persian quadripartite design, symbolizing the four rivers of paradise.

• The pietra dura technique involves intricate marble screen work (jali) carved from a single stone block.

• The main gateway and flanking structures are made of red sandstone, providing a deliberate visual contrast with the white marble mausoleum.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The main chamber houses the cenotaphs (empty tombs) of Mumtaz Mahal and Shah Jahan, but the real graves lie in the lower crypt, a common feature in Mughal architecture for stability and security.

• Statement 2 is correct, emphasizing the Charbagh garden’s symbolic and architectural roots in Persian design, representing paradise.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: *Pietra dura is an inlay technique involving the meticulous carving and setting of precious stones (like jasper, lapis lazuli) into marble to create intricate patterns. The term refers to the inlay work, not the marble screen (jali*) work, although both are found in the complex.

• Statement 4 is correct: The use of contrasting red sandstone for the mosque, guest house, and the main gateway creates a striking visual harmony and accentuates the purity of the central white marble mausoleum.

Solution: B

• Statement 2 is correct, emphasizing the Charbagh garden’s symbolic and architectural roots in Persian design, representing paradise.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM): It is a fully centrally-funded scheme, providing all funds to States and Union Territories (UTs). The mission was launched by restructuring the Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY). It primarily focuses on reducing urban poverty by creating livelihood opportunities through skill training. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect: DAY-NRLM is a major flagship scheme but is jointly funded by the Centre and States, reflecting a partnership-based approach to poverty alleviation. It is not fully centrally-funded. Statement 2 is correct: It was initially launched in 2011 as NRLM (National Rural Livelihoods Mission), succeeding SGSY, and was subsequently renamed as DAY-NRLM in 2016. Statement 3 is incorrect: The mission’s mandate is explicitly to reduce rural poverty by enabling poor rural households to access self-employment and wage opportunities, primarily through Self-Help Groups (SHGs). The urban counterpart is the National Urban Livelihoods Mission (NULM). Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect: DAY-NRLM is a major flagship scheme but is jointly funded by the Centre and States, reflecting a partnership-based approach to poverty alleviation. It is not fully centrally-funded. Statement 2 is correct: It was initially launched in 2011 as NRLM (National Rural Livelihoods Mission), succeeding SGSY, and was subsequently renamed as DAY-NRLM in 2016. Statement 3 is incorrect: The mission’s mandate is explicitly to reduce rural poverty by enabling poor rural households to access self-employment and wage opportunities, primarily through Self-Help Groups (SHGs). The urban counterpart is the National Urban Livelihoods Mission (NULM).

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM):

• It is a fully centrally-funded scheme, providing all funds to States and Union Territories (UTs).

• The mission was launched by restructuring the Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY).

• It primarily focuses on reducing urban poverty by creating livelihood opportunities through skill training.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect: DAY-NRLM is a major flagship scheme but is jointly funded by the Centre and States, reflecting a partnership-based approach to poverty alleviation. It is not fully centrally-funded.

• Statement 2 is correct: It was initially launched in 2011 as NRLM (National Rural Livelihoods Mission), succeeding SGSY, and was subsequently renamed as DAY-NRLM in 2016.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The mission’s mandate is explicitly to reduce rural poverty by enabling poor rural households to access self-employment and wage opportunities, primarily through Self-Help Groups (SHGs). The urban counterpart is the National Urban Livelihoods Mission (NULM).

Solution: A

• Statement 2 is correct: It was initially launched in 2011 as NRLM (National Rural Livelihoods Mission), succeeding SGSY, and was subsequently renamed as DAY-NRLM in 2016.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Umngot River is a vital tourism and ecological asset for the state of Meghalaya. The river is renowned for its transparent, emerald-green water, which creates an illusion of boats floating in mid-air. The river originates from the Shillong Peak and serves as a natural boundary between the Khasi and Jaintia Hills districts. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Umngot River, located near Dawki in the West Jaintia Hills district of Meghalaya, is one of the cleanest rivers in India and a major tourism and ecological asset for the state. Its pristine water supports local livelihoods through eco-tourism, boating, and fishing, while reflecting community-led conservation efforts that maintain its exceptional clarity. Statement 2 is correct. The river is world-famous for its crystal-clear, emerald-green water, which creates the iconic visual illusion that boats are floating in the air. This clarity results from low sediment load, minimal pollution, and controlled human activity in its upper catchment. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Umngot River does not originate from Shillong Peak. It rises near East Khasi Hills and flows through Dawki before entering Bangladesh. However, it does form part of the boundary between the Khasi Hills and Jaintia Hills districts in certain stretches. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Umngot River, located near Dawki in the West Jaintia Hills district of Meghalaya, is one of the cleanest rivers in India and a major tourism and ecological asset for the state. Its pristine water supports local livelihoods through eco-tourism, boating, and fishing, while reflecting community-led conservation efforts that maintain its exceptional clarity. Statement 2 is correct. The river is world-famous for its crystal-clear, emerald-green water, which creates the iconic visual illusion that boats are floating in the air. This clarity results from low sediment load, minimal pollution, and controlled human activity in its upper catchment. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Umngot River does not originate from Shillong Peak. It rises near East Khasi Hills and flows through Dawki before entering Bangladesh. However, it does form part of the boundary between the Khasi Hills and Jaintia Hills districts in certain stretches.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Umngot River is a vital tourism and ecological asset for the state of Meghalaya.

• The river is renowned for its transparent, emerald-green water, which creates an illusion of boats floating in mid-air.

• The river originates from the Shillong Peak and serves as a natural boundary between the Khasi and Jaintia Hills districts.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Umngot River, located near Dawki in the West Jaintia Hills district of Meghalaya, is one of the cleanest rivers in India and a major tourism and ecological asset for the state. Its pristine water supports local livelihoods through eco-tourism, boating, and fishing, while reflecting community-led conservation efforts that maintain its exceptional clarity.

• Statement 2 is correct. The river is world-famous for its crystal-clear, emerald-green water, which creates the iconic visual illusion that boats are floating in the air. This clarity results from low sediment load, minimal pollution, and controlled human activity in its upper catchment.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Umngot River does not originate from Shillong Peak. It rises near East Khasi Hills and flows through Dawki before entering Bangladesh. However, it does form part of the boundary between the Khasi Hills and Jaintia Hills districts in certain stretches.

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding United Nations (UN): The UN’s primary function to uphold international peace and security is executed through its development agenda, specifically the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). The UN’s core activity to maintain peace is through dialogue, collective action, and deployment of peacekeeping missions in regions of conflict. The UN implements SDGs to end poverty and protect the planet by 2030, fostering economic and social development globally. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The UN’s primary function to maintain international peace and security is executed through its peacekeeping and Security mechanisms (as described in Statement II). The SDGs (Statement III) are part of the Development Agenda, focusing on economic and social issues. Statement 2 is correct. It accurately describes the UN’s primary mechanism for Peacekeeping and Security, which is its core mandate. Statement 3 is correct. It accurately describes the UN’s Development Agenda through the implementation of the SDGs by 2030. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The UN’s primary function to maintain international peace and security is executed through its peacekeeping and Security mechanisms (as described in Statement II). The SDGs (Statement III) are part of the Development Agenda, focusing on economic and social issues. Statement 2 is correct. It accurately describes the UN’s primary mechanism for Peacekeeping and Security, which is its core mandate. Statement 3 is correct. It accurately describes the UN’s Development Agenda through the implementation of the SDGs by 2030.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding United Nations (UN):

• The UN’s primary function to uphold international peace and security is executed through its development agenda, specifically the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

• The UN’s core activity to maintain peace is through dialogue, collective action, and deployment of peacekeeping missions in regions of conflict.

• The UN implements SDGs to end poverty and protect the planet by 2030, fostering economic and social development globally.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The UN’s primary function to maintain international peace and security is executed through its peacekeeping and Security mechanisms (as described in Statement II). The SDGs (Statement III) are part of the Development Agenda, focusing on economic and social issues.

• Statement 2 is correct. It accurately describes the UN’s primary mechanism for Peacekeeping and Security, which is its core mandate.

• Statement 3 is correct. It accurately describes the UN’s Development Agenda through the implementation of the SDGs by 2030.

Solution: B

• Statement 2 is correct. It accurately describes the UN’s primary mechanism for Peacekeeping and Security, which is its core mandate.

• Statement 3 is correct. It accurately describes the UN’s Development Agenda through the implementation of the SDGs by 2030.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement I: Starlink’s Low-Earth Orbit (LEO) satellites contribute to low latency internet services primarily because the satellites are equipped with Autonomous Collision Avoidance systems. Statement II: Unlike traditional systems, Starlink’s LEO satellites use optical inter-satellite links (ISLs) to communicate with each other, transmitting data without relying solely on local ground stations. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: D Statement I is incorrect. Starlink achieves low latency primarily because of the Low-Earth Orbit (~550 km) altitude, which drastically reduces the physical distance the data signal must travel compared to high-altitude Geostationary (GEO) satellites. While the Autonomous Collision Avoidance system is a feature of the satellites, it is designed for reliability and safety (avoiding orbital debris), not for reducing latency. Statement II is correct. A key technical advantage of Starlink is the use of optical inter-satellite links (ISLs), enabling the satellites to form a constellation network and pass data between each other, thus reducing reliance on ground stations for long-distance relay. Incorrect Solution: D Statement I is incorrect. Starlink achieves low latency primarily because of the Low-Earth Orbit (~550 km) altitude, which drastically reduces the physical distance the data signal must travel compared to high-altitude Geostationary (GEO) satellites. While the Autonomous Collision Avoidance system is a feature of the satellites, it is designed for reliability and safety (avoiding orbital debris), not for reducing latency. Statement II is correct. A key technical advantage of Starlink is the use of optical inter-satellite links (ISLs), enabling the satellites to form a constellation network and pass data between each other, thus reducing reliance on ground stations for long-distance relay.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement I: Starlink’s Low-Earth Orbit (LEO) satellites contribute to low latency internet services primarily because the satellites are equipped with Autonomous Collision Avoidance systems.

Statement II: Unlike traditional systems, Starlink’s LEO satellites use optical inter-satellite links (ISLs) to communicate with each other, transmitting data without relying solely on local ground stations.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: D

• Statement I is incorrect. Starlink achieves low latency primarily because of the Low-Earth Orbit (~550 km) altitude, which drastically reduces the physical distance the data signal must travel compared to high-altitude Geostationary (GEO) satellites. While the Autonomous Collision Avoidance system is a feature of the satellites, it is designed for reliability and safety (avoiding orbital debris), not for reducing latency.

• Statement II is correct. A key technical advantage of Starlink is the use of optical inter-satellite links (ISLs), enabling the satellites to form a constellation network and pass data between each other, thus reducing reliance on ground stations for long-distance relay.

Solution: D

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), consider the following statements: It is an intergovernmental body established as part of the Bretton Woods system. Its primary function is to provide technical assistance to developed nations for market access and trade policy reform. It serves as the main UN platform exclusively for promoting foreign direct investment and technology transfer in Least Developed Countries (LDCs). How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. UNCTAD was established in 1964 and is a permanent intergovernmental body of the UN, not a part of the original Bretton Woods system (which created the IMF and World Bank). Statement 2 is incorrect. UNCTAD’s aim is to promote the integration of developing countries into the global economy through trade, finance, and sustainable development, and to help them access the benefits of globalization fairly. It delivers technical assistance for capacity-building in developing countries, not developed nations. Statement 3 is incorrect. While UNCTAD links trade, investment, and technology with inclusive growth, it acts as a key UN platform for inclusive and sustainable growth for developing countries in general, and its role is not exclusively for promoting foreign direct investment and technology transfer in LDCs. It has a broader mandate of trade, finance, and sustainable development. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. UNCTAD was established in 1964 and is a permanent intergovernmental body of the UN, not a part of the original Bretton Woods system (which created the IMF and World Bank). Statement 2 is incorrect. UNCTAD’s aim is to promote the integration of developing countries into the global economy through trade, finance, and sustainable development, and to help them access the benefits of globalization fairly. It delivers technical assistance for capacity-building in developing countries, not developed nations. Statement 3 is incorrect. While UNCTAD links trade, investment, and technology with inclusive growth, it acts as a key UN platform for inclusive and sustainable growth for developing countries in general, and its role is not exclusively for promoting foreign direct investment and technology transfer in LDCs. It has a broader mandate of trade, finance, and sustainable development.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), consider the following statements:

• It is an intergovernmental body established as part of the Bretton Woods system.

• Its primary function is to provide technical assistance to developed nations for market access and trade policy reform.

• It serves as the main UN platform exclusively for promoting foreign direct investment and technology transfer in Least Developed Countries (LDCs).

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. UNCTAD was established in 1964 and is a permanent intergovernmental body of the UN, not a part of the original Bretton Woods system (which created the IMF and World Bank).

• Statement 2 is incorrect. UNCTAD’s aim is to promote the integration of developing countries into the global economy through trade, finance, and sustainable development, and to help them access the benefits of globalization fairly. It delivers technical assistance for capacity-building in developing countries, not developed nations.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While UNCTAD links trade, investment, and technology with inclusive growth, it acts as a key UN platform for inclusive and sustainable growth for developing countries in general, and its role is not exclusively for promoting foreign direct investment and technology transfer in LDCs. It has a broader mandate of trade, finance, and sustainable development.

Solution: D

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which one of the following is the correct objective of the New Sevilla Forum on Debt? (a) To replace the existing Paris Club framework for debt restructuring of developing countries. (b) To establish a new international court for the arbitration of sovereign debt defaults. (c) To sustain global dialogue on debt reform, strengthen responsible borrowing and lending practices, and advance reforms in the global debt architecture. (d) To track the implementation of sustainable development goals exclusively within the UN DESA framework. Correct Solution: C Option (c) directly matches the stated aim of the New Sevilla Forum on Debt: “To sustain global dialogue on debt reform, strengthen responsible borrowing and lending practices, and advance reforms in the global debt architecture.” Launch: The Forum was officially launched on October 22, 2025, during the 16th session of the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD16), held in Geneva, Switzerland. Genesis: It is one of the key concrete outcomes of the Fourth International Conference on Financing for Development (FFD4), which took place in Sevilla, Spain (June 30 – July 3, 2025). The Forum is designed to implement the Sevilla Commitment and the Sevilla Platform for Action. Leadership and Support: It is a Spanish-led initiative, supported by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) and the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (DESA). Primary Aim: To sustain political momentum on debt reform, drive the reform of the global debt architecture, and ensure that borrowing works for, not against, development. Function: It acts as an open, inclusive platform for dialogue, bringing together governments (both debtor and creditor nations), finance ministers, creditors, international financial institutions (IFIs), civil society, and academics. Incorrect Solution: C Option (c) directly matches the stated aim of the New Sevilla Forum on Debt: “To sustain global dialogue on debt reform, strengthen responsible borrowing and lending practices, and advance reforms in the global debt architecture.” Launch: The Forum was officially launched on October 22, 2025, during the 16th session of the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD16), held in Geneva, Switzerland. Genesis: It is one of the key concrete outcomes of the Fourth International Conference on Financing for Development (FFD4), which took place in Sevilla, Spain (June 30 – July 3, 2025). The Forum is designed to implement the Sevilla Commitment and the Sevilla Platform for Action. Leadership and Support: It is a Spanish-led initiative, supported by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) and the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (DESA). Primary Aim: To sustain political momentum on debt reform, drive the reform of the global debt architecture, and ensure that borrowing works for, not against, development. Function: It acts as an open, inclusive platform for dialogue, bringing together governments (both debtor and creditor nations), finance ministers, creditors, international financial institutions (IFIs), civil society, and academics.

#### 10. Question

Which one of the following is the correct objective of the New Sevilla Forum on Debt?

• (a) To replace the existing Paris Club framework for debt restructuring of developing countries.

• (b) To establish a new international court for the arbitration of sovereign debt defaults.

• (c) To sustain global dialogue on debt reform, strengthen responsible borrowing and lending practices, and advance reforms in the global debt architecture.

• (d) To track the implementation of sustainable development goals exclusively within the UN DESA framework.

Solution: C

• Option (c) directly matches the stated aim of the New Sevilla Forum on Debt: “To sustain global dialogue on debt reform, strengthen responsible borrowing and lending practices, and advance reforms in the global debt architecture.”

• Launch: The Forum was officially launched on October 22, 2025, during the 16th session of the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD16), held in Geneva, Switzerland.

• Genesis: It is one of the key concrete outcomes of the Fourth International Conference on Financing for Development (FFD4), which took place in Sevilla, Spain (June 30 – July 3, 2025). The Forum is designed to implement the Sevilla Commitment and the Sevilla Platform for Action.

• Leadership and Support: It is a Spanish-led initiative, supported by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) and the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (DESA).

• Primary Aim: To sustain political momentum on debt reform, drive the reform of the global debt architecture, and ensure that borrowing works for, not against, development.

• Function: It acts as an open, inclusive platform for dialogue, bringing together governments (both debtor and creditor nations), finance ministers, creditors, international financial institutions (IFIs), civil society, and academics.

Solution: C

• Primary Aim: To sustain political momentum on debt reform, drive the reform of the global debt architecture, and ensure that borrowing works for, not against, development.

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