UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 8 May 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Line of Control (LoC): The LoC is an internationally recognized border demarcated under the supervision of a United Nations peacekeeping force. The Simla Agreement of 1972 mandates that any alteration to the LoC can only occur through bilateral negotiations and peaceful means between India and Pakistan. The LoC extends from Manawar near Jammu, encompassing the entire Siachen Glacier region, and terminates at the Karakoram Pass. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Line of Control (LoC) is not an internationally recognized border. It is a de facto military boundary, a ceasefire line bilaterally accepted by India and Pakistan under the Simla Agreement. While its origin (as the CFL) involved UN intervention, the LoC itself is not demarcated or supervised by a UN peacekeeping force in the manner of an international border. Statement 2 is correct. The Simla Agreement of 1972 is foundational to the status of the LoC. A key provision of this agreement is that both India and Pakistan pledged not to alter the LoC unilaterally and committed to resolving their differences peacefully through bilateral negotiations. This underscores the principle that any change to the LoC must be mutually agreed upon. Statement 3 is incorrect. The LoC stretches approximately 740 km from Manawar near Jammu to Point NJ9842, which is near the Siachen Glacier. The LoC does not extend to encompass the entire Siachen Glacier, nor does it terminate at the Karakoram Pass, which lies further north. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Line of Control (LoC) is not an internationally recognized border. It is a de facto military boundary, a ceasefire line bilaterally accepted by India and Pakistan under the Simla Agreement. While its origin (as the CFL) involved UN intervention, the LoC itself is not demarcated or supervised by a UN peacekeeping force in the manner of an international border. Statement 2 is correct. The Simla Agreement of 1972 is foundational to the status of the LoC. A key provision of this agreement is that both India and Pakistan pledged not to alter the LoC unilaterally and committed to resolving their differences peacefully through bilateral negotiations. This underscores the principle that any change to the LoC must be mutually agreed upon. Statement 3 is incorrect. The LoC stretches approximately 740 km from Manawar near Jammu to Point NJ9842, which is near the Siachen Glacier. The LoC does not extend to encompass the entire Siachen Glacier, nor does it terminate at the Karakoram Pass, which lies further north.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Line of Control (LoC):

• The LoC is an internationally recognized border demarcated under the supervision of a United Nations peacekeeping force.

• The Simla Agreement of 1972 mandates that any alteration to the LoC can only occur through bilateral negotiations and peaceful means between India and Pakistan.

• The LoC extends from Manawar near Jammu, encompassing the entire Siachen Glacier region, and terminates at the Karakoram Pass.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Line of Control (LoC) is not an internationally recognized border. It is a de facto military boundary, a ceasefire line bilaterally accepted by India and Pakistan under the Simla Agreement. While its origin (as the CFL) involved UN intervention, the LoC itself is not demarcated or supervised by a UN peacekeeping force in the manner of an international border.

Statement 2 is correct. The Simla Agreement of 1972 is foundational to the status of the LoC. A key provision of this agreement is that both India and Pakistan pledged not to alter the LoC unilaterally and committed to resolving their differences peacefully through bilateral negotiations. This underscores the principle that any change to the LoC must be mutually agreed upon.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The LoC stretches approximately 740 km from Manawar near Jammu to Point NJ9842, which is near the Siachen Glacier. The LoC does not extend to encompass the entire Siachen Glacier, nor does it terminate at the Karakoram Pass, which lies further north.

Solution: a)

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points An extended continental shelf claim by a coastal state under UNCLOS primarily grants the state rights over: (a) Navigation and overflight in the waters above the extended shelf. (b) All living and non-living resources within the water column up to 350 nautical miles. (c) The laying of submarine cables and pipelines by any nation without restriction. (d) Seabed and subsoil resources, such as minerals and hydrocarbons. Correct Solution: d) The concept of the continental shelf, particularly an extended continental shelf beyond the 200 nautical mile Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), pertains to the sovereign rights of a coastal state over the seabed and its subsoil. The continental shelf regime grants the coastal state sovereign rights for the purpose of exploring it and exploiting its natural resources. These resources include mineral and other non-living resources of the seabed and subsoil (like oil, gas, polymetallic nodules) together with living organisms belonging to sedentary species. The provided text mentions unlocking potential mining rights for minerals, oil, and polymetallic nodules. Incorrect Solution: d) The concept of the continental shelf, particularly an extended continental shelf beyond the 200 nautical mile Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), pertains to the sovereign rights of a coastal state over the seabed and its subsoil. The continental shelf regime grants the coastal state sovereign rights for the purpose of exploring it and exploiting its natural resources. These resources include mineral and other non-living resources of the seabed and subsoil (like oil, gas, polymetallic nodules) together with living organisms belonging to sedentary species. The provided text mentions unlocking potential mining rights for minerals, oil, and polymetallic nodules.

#### 2. Question

An extended continental shelf claim by a coastal state under UNCLOS primarily grants the state rights over:

• (a) Navigation and overflight in the waters above the extended shelf.

• (b) All living and non-living resources within the water column up to 350 nautical miles.

• (c) The laying of submarine cables and pipelines by any nation without restriction.

• (d) Seabed and subsoil resources, such as minerals and hydrocarbons.

Solution: d)

The concept of the continental shelf, particularly an extended continental shelf beyond the 200 nautical mile Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), pertains to the sovereign rights of a coastal state over the seabed and its subsoil.

The continental shelf regime grants the coastal state sovereign rights for the purpose of exploring it and exploiting its natural resources. These resources include mineral and other non-living resources of the seabed and subsoil (like oil, gas, polymetallic nodules) together with living organisms belonging to sedentary species. The provided text mentions unlocking potential mining rights for minerals, oil, and polymetallic nodules.

Solution: d)

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to the Padma Awards in India, consider the following statements: The Padma Awards Committee, responsible for screening nominations, is headed by the President of India. Active government servants, including doctors and scientists working in government institutions, are strictly ineligible for Padma Awards. There is no cap on the total number of Padma Awards conferred in a year, including posthumous awards and awards to NRIs/foreigners/OCIs. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Padma Awards Committee is constituted by the Prime Minister annually and is headed by the Cabinet Secretary, not the President of India. The President formally presents the awards based on the recommendations approved by the Prime Minister and the President. Statement 2 is incorrect. While active government servants, including those in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), are generally not eligible for Padma Awards, there is a specific exception for doctors and scientists. This exception acknowledges the significant societal contributions made by these professionals even while in government service. Statement 3 is incorrect. There is a rule that the total number of Padma Awards to be given in a year should generally not exceed 120. This limit specifically excludes posthumous awards and awards conferred on NRIs (Non-Resident Indians), PIOs (Persons of Indian Origin), OCIs (Overseas Citizens of India), and foreign nationals. This cap helps maintain the prestige and selectivity of the awards. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Padma Awards Committee is constituted by the Prime Minister annually and is headed by the Cabinet Secretary, not the President of India. The President formally presents the awards based on the recommendations approved by the Prime Minister and the President. Statement 2 is incorrect. While active government servants, including those in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), are generally not eligible for Padma Awards, there is a specific exception for doctors and scientists. This exception acknowledges the significant societal contributions made by these professionals even while in government service. Statement 3 is incorrect. There is a rule that the total number of Padma Awards to be given in a year should generally not exceed 120. This limit specifically excludes posthumous awards and awards conferred on NRIs (Non-Resident Indians), PIOs (Persons of Indian Origin), OCIs (Overseas Citizens of India), and foreign nationals. This cap helps maintain the prestige and selectivity of the awards.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the Padma Awards in India, consider the following statements:

• The Padma Awards Committee, responsible for screening nominations, is headed by the President of India.

• Active government servants, including doctors and scientists working in government institutions, are strictly ineligible for Padma Awards.

• There is no cap on the total number of Padma Awards conferred in a year, including posthumous awards and awards to NRIs/foreigners/OCIs.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Padma Awards Committee is constituted by the Prime Minister annually and is headed by the Cabinet Secretary, not the President of India. The President formally presents the awards based on the recommendations approved by the Prime Minister and the President.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While active government servants, including those in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), are generally not eligible for Padma Awards, there is a specific exception for doctors and scientists. This exception acknowledges the significant societal contributions made by these professionals even while in government service.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. There is a rule that the total number of Padma Awards to be given in a year should generally not exceed 120. This limit specifically excludes posthumous awards and awards conferred on NRIs (Non-Resident Indians), PIOs (Persons of Indian Origin), OCIs (Overseas Citizens of India), and foreign nationals. This cap helps maintain the prestige and selectivity of the awards.

Solution: d)

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Supreme Court in the Balaji Raghavan judgment. Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India, in the Balaji Raghavan vs. Union of India case (1995), held that National Awards like Padma Awards do not constitute ‘titles’ within the meaning of Article 18(1) of the Constitution. Statement-II: The Supreme Court, in the same judgment, mandated that recipients of National Awards must use them as prefixes or suffixes to their names to signify the honour. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. In the landmark case of Balaji Raghavan & S.P. Anand vs. Union of India (1995), the Supreme Court unanimously held that the National Awards (Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, Padma Shri) do not constitute ‘titles’ as prohibited by Article 18(1) of the Constitution. The Court clarified that these awards are recognitions of merit and excellence. Statement-II is incorrect. The Supreme Court, in the Balaji Raghavan judgment, explicitly stated the opposite. It emphasized that while the awards themselves are not titles, their use as prefixes or suffixes to the awardees’ names would effectively transform them into titles, which is against the constitutional prohibition in Article 18(1). The Court warned against such misuse. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. In the landmark case of Balaji Raghavan & S.P. Anand vs. Union of India (1995), the Supreme Court unanimously held that the National Awards (Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, Padma Shri) do not constitute ‘titles’ as prohibited by Article 18(1) of the Constitution. The Court clarified that these awards are recognitions of merit and excellence. Statement-II is incorrect. The Supreme Court, in the Balaji Raghavan judgment, explicitly stated the opposite. It emphasized that while the awards themselves are not titles, their use as prefixes or suffixes to the awardees’ names would effectively transform them into titles, which is against the constitutional prohibition in Article 18(1). The Court warned against such misuse.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Supreme Court in the Balaji Raghavan judgment.

Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India, in the Balaji Raghavan vs. Union of India case (1995), held that National Awards like Padma Awards do not constitute ‘titles’ within the meaning of Article 18(1) of the Constitution.

Statement-II: The Supreme Court, in the same judgment, mandated that recipients of National Awards must use them as prefixes or suffixes to their names to signify the honour.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: c)

Statement-I is correct. In the landmark case of Balaji Raghavan & S.P. Anand vs. Union of India (1995), the Supreme Court unanimously held that the National Awards (Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, Padma Shri) do not constitute ‘titles’ as prohibited by Article 18(1) of the Constitution. The Court clarified that these awards are recognitions of merit and excellence.

Statement-II is incorrect. The Supreme Court, in the Balaji Raghavan judgment, explicitly stated the opposite. It emphasized that while the awards themselves are not titles, their use as prefixes or suffixes to the awardees’ names would effectively transform them into titles, which is against the constitutional prohibition in Article 18(1). The Court warned against such misuse.

Solution: c)

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT): The CBDT is primarily responsible for the administration of GST and Customs duty in India. The Chairperson and members of the CBDT are exclusively selected from the Indian Administrative Service (IAS). One of the recent key strategies of CBDT involves reducing the number of search and seizure operations to promote voluntary tax compliance. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The CBDT is the apex body for the administration of direct taxes in India, such as income tax and corporate tax. Indirect taxes like GST and Customs duty are administered by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC). Statement 2 is incorrect. The Chairperson and members of the CBDT are typically senior officers selected from the Indian Revenue Service (IRS), specifically the IRS (Income Tax) cadre. They are not exclusively from the Indian Administrative Service (IAS). Statement 3 is incorrect. Recent strategies of the CBDT, particularly in 2024-2025, involve an aggressive drive to curb black money and tax evasion, which includes intensifying search and seizure operations. For instance, reports indicated that jurisdictions were tasked with conducting a minimum number of major search and seizure operations, and a significant portion of undisclosed income recovery targets was planned through such intrusive measures, alongside data analytics. While promoting voluntary compliance is an objective, it is coupled with stringent enforcement actions. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The CBDT is the apex body for the administration of direct taxes in India, such as income tax and corporate tax. Indirect taxes like GST and Customs duty are administered by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC). Statement 2 is incorrect. The Chairperson and members of the CBDT are typically senior officers selected from the Indian Revenue Service (IRS), specifically the IRS (Income Tax) cadre. They are not exclusively from the Indian Administrative Service (IAS). Statement 3 is incorrect. Recent strategies of the CBDT, particularly in 2024-2025, involve an aggressive drive to curb black money and tax evasion, which includes intensifying search and seizure operations. For instance, reports indicated that jurisdictions were tasked with conducting a minimum number of major search and seizure operations, and a significant portion of undisclosed income recovery targets was planned through such intrusive measures, alongside data analytics. While promoting voluntary compliance is an objective, it is coupled with stringent enforcement actions.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT):

• The CBDT is primarily responsible for the administration of GST and Customs duty in India.

• The Chairperson and members of the CBDT are exclusively selected from the Indian Administrative Service (IAS).

• One of the recent key strategies of CBDT involves reducing the number of search and seizure operations to promote voluntary tax compliance.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The CBDT is the apex body for the administration of direct taxes in India, such as income tax and corporate tax. Indirect taxes like GST and Customs duty are administered by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC).

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Chairperson and members of the CBDT are typically senior officers selected from the Indian Revenue Service (IRS), specifically the IRS (Income Tax) cadre. They are not exclusively from the Indian Administrative Service (IAS).

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Recent strategies of the CBDT, particularly in 2024-2025, involve an aggressive drive to curb black money and tax evasion, which includes intensifying search and seizure operations. For instance, reports indicated that jurisdictions were tasked with conducting a minimum number of major search and seizure operations, and a significant portion of undisclosed income recovery targets was planned through such intrusive measures, alongside data analytics. While promoting voluntary compliance is an objective, it is coupled with stringent enforcement actions.

Solution: d)

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Accelerating Innovative Monitoring for Nature Restoration (AIM4NatuRe) initiative: It was launched by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) with primary funding from the World Bank. A key feature of the initiative is its focus on supporting Indigenous Peoples’ monitoring efforts in ecosystem restoration. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The AIM4NatuRe initiative was launched by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations, with significant funding from the United Kingdom (UK), contributing GBP 7 million. Statement 2 is correct. A distinctive feature of the AIM4NatuRe initiative is its inclusivity focus, which includes supporting Indigenous Peoples and local communities in their monitoring efforts related to biocentric nature restoration. Pilot projects involving Indigenous Peoples are planned in countries like Brazil and Peru. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The AIM4NatuRe initiative was launched by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations, with significant funding from the United Kingdom (UK), contributing GBP 7 million. Statement 2 is correct. A distinctive feature of the AIM4NatuRe initiative is its inclusivity focus, which includes supporting Indigenous Peoples and local communities in their monitoring efforts related to biocentric nature restoration. Pilot projects involving Indigenous Peoples are planned in countries like Brazil and Peru.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Accelerating Innovative Monitoring for Nature Restoration (AIM4NatuRe) initiative:

• It was launched by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) with primary funding from the World Bank.

• A key feature of the initiative is its focus on supporting Indigenous Peoples’ monitoring efforts in ecosystem restoration.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect. The AIM4NatuRe initiative was launched by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations, with significant funding from the United Kingdom (UK), contributing GBP 7 million.

Statement 2 is correct. A distinctive feature of the AIM4NatuRe initiative is its inclusivity focus, which includes supporting Indigenous Peoples and local communities in their monitoring efforts related to biocentric nature restoration. Pilot projects involving Indigenous Peoples are planned in countries like Brazil and Peru.

Solution: b)

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) and Bio-Input Resource Centres (BRCs): The NMNF mainly promotes the use of imported organic bio-inputs to ensure global quality standards. Bio-Input Resource Centres (BRCs) are mandated to provide financial loans to farmers for adopting natural farming, in addition to supplying inputs. A key objective of the NMNF is to reduce farmers’ dependency on externally purchased chemical inputs and thereby lower the cost of cultivation. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) emphasizes the use of on-farm prepared natural farming inputs like Beejamrut, Jeevamrut, and promotes practices rooted in local agro-ecology and indigenous knowledge. It aims to reduce dependency on externally purchased inputs, not promote imported ones. Statement 2 is incorrect. Bio-Input Resource Centres (BRCs) are established to provide farmers with locally prepared natural farming inputs (bio-fertilizers, bio-pesticides) and act as knowledge hubs for training. Their guidelines focus on input supply and technical guidance; they are not mandated to provide financial loans to farmers. Statement 3 is correct. One of the primary objectives of the NMNF is to promote natural farming to reduce dependency on external chemical inputs and lower cultivation costs for farmers. This is central to its philosophy of making agriculture more sustainable and economically viable for farmers. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) emphasizes the use of on-farm prepared natural farming inputs like Beejamrut, Jeevamrut, and promotes practices rooted in local agro-ecology and indigenous knowledge. It aims to reduce dependency on externally purchased inputs, not promote imported ones. Statement 2 is incorrect. Bio-Input Resource Centres (BRCs) are established to provide farmers with locally prepared natural farming inputs (bio-fertilizers, bio-pesticides) and act as knowledge hubs for training. Their guidelines focus on input supply and technical guidance; they are not mandated to provide financial loans to farmers. Statement 3 is correct. One of the primary objectives of the NMNF is to promote natural farming to reduce dependency on external chemical inputs and lower cultivation costs for farmers. This is central to its philosophy of making agriculture more sustainable and economically viable for farmers.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) and Bio-Input Resource Centres (BRCs):

• The NMNF mainly promotes the use of imported organic bio-inputs to ensure global quality standards.

• Bio-Input Resource Centres (BRCs) are mandated to provide financial loans to farmers for adopting natural farming, in addition to supplying inputs.

• A key objective of the NMNF is to reduce farmers’ dependency on externally purchased chemical inputs and thereby lower the cost of cultivation.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) emphasizes the use of on-farm prepared natural farming inputs like Beejamrut, Jeevamrut, and promotes practices rooted in local agro-ecology and indigenous knowledge. It aims to reduce dependency on externally purchased inputs, not promote imported ones.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Bio-Input Resource Centres (BRCs) are established to provide farmers with locally prepared natural farming inputs (bio-fertilizers, bio-pesticides) and act as knowledge hubs for training. Their guidelines focus on input supply and technical guidance; they are not mandated to provide financial loans to farmers.

• Statement 3 is correct. One of the primary objectives of the NMNF is to promote natural farming to reduce dependency on external chemical inputs and lower cultivation costs for farmers. This is central to its philosophy of making agriculture more sustainable and economically viable for farmers.

Solution: a)

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points The primary objective of the Draft Greenhouse Gases Emissions Intensity (GEI) Target Rules, 2025, released by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is to: (a) Establish a new carbon tax on all industrial units across India. (b) Mandate the complete phasing out of coal usage in the covered sectors by 2027. (c) Aid India in achieving its Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) of reducing emissions intensity of GDP by 45% by 2030 from 2005 levels. (d) Focus exclusively on promoting renewable energy adoption without setting specific emission targets for industries. Correct Solution: c) The Draft Greenhouse Gases Emissions Intensity (GEI) Target Rules, 2025, are fundamentally aimed at helping India meet its climate commitments under the Paris Agreement. A specific and primary objective is to aid India in achieving its Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) target of reducing the emissions intensity of its Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by 45% by the year 2030, compared to 2005 levels. These rules operationalize the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), 2023, by setting mandatory emission intensity reduction targets for energy-intensive industries, thereby creating a compliance mechanism. Option (a) is incorrect as the rules focus on emission intensity targets and carbon credit trading, not a new carbon tax. Option (b) is incorrect as the rules set intensity reduction targets, not a complete phase-out of coal by a specific near-term date for all covered sectors. Option (d) is incorrect because the rules explicitly set specific emission intensity targets for industries and are not solely focused on renewable energy promotion without such targets. Incorrect Solution: c) The Draft Greenhouse Gases Emissions Intensity (GEI) Target Rules, 2025, are fundamentally aimed at helping India meet its climate commitments under the Paris Agreement. A specific and primary objective is to aid India in achieving its Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) target of reducing the emissions intensity of its Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by 45% by the year 2030, compared to 2005 levels. These rules operationalize the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), 2023, by setting mandatory emission intensity reduction targets for energy-intensive industries, thereby creating a compliance mechanism. Option (a) is incorrect as the rules focus on emission intensity targets and carbon credit trading, not a new carbon tax. Option (b) is incorrect as the rules set intensity reduction targets, not a complete phase-out of coal by a specific near-term date for all covered sectors. Option (d) is incorrect because the rules explicitly set specific emission intensity targets for industries and are not solely focused on renewable energy promotion without such targets.

#### 8. Question

The primary objective of the Draft Greenhouse Gases Emissions Intensity (GEI) Target Rules, 2025, released by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is to:

• (a) Establish a new carbon tax on all industrial units across India.

• (b) Mandate the complete phasing out of coal usage in the covered sectors by 2027.

• (c) Aid India in achieving its Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) of reducing emissions intensity of GDP by 45% by 2030 from 2005 levels.

• (d) Focus exclusively on promoting renewable energy adoption without setting specific emission targets for industries.

Solution: c)

The Draft Greenhouse Gases Emissions Intensity (GEI) Target Rules, 2025, are fundamentally aimed at helping India meet its climate commitments under the Paris Agreement. A specific and primary objective is to aid India in achieving its Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) target of reducing the emissions intensity of its Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by 45% by the year 2030, compared to 2005 levels. These rules operationalize the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), 2023, by setting mandatory emission intensity reduction targets for energy-intensive industries, thereby creating a compliance mechanism.

Option (a) is incorrect as the rules focus on emission intensity targets and carbon credit trading, not a new carbon tax.

Option (b) is incorrect as the rules set intensity reduction targets, not a complete phase-out of coal by a specific near-term date for all covered sectors.

Option (d) is incorrect because the rules explicitly set specific emission intensity targets for industries and are not solely focused on renewable energy promotion without such targets.

Solution: c)

Option (a) is incorrect as the rules focus on emission intensity targets and carbon credit trading, not a new carbon tax.

Option (b) is incorrect as the rules set intensity reduction targets, not a complete phase-out of coal by a specific near-term date for all covered sectors.

Option (d) is incorrect because the rules explicitly set specific emission intensity targets for industries and are not solely focused on renewable energy promotion without such targets.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Rafale-M (Marine) jets. These jets are primarily intended to operate from India’s indigenous aircraft carrier, INS Vikrant. A key feature of the Rafale-M is its SPECTRA electronic warfare suite, designed for enhanced survivability through threat detection and jamming. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct. The Rafale-M jets are specifically being acquired for the Indian Navy and are primarily intended to operate from the deck of India’s first indigenous aircraft carrier, INS Vikrant. This will significantly enhance the carrier’s combat capabilities. Statement 2 is correct. The Rafale-M is equipped with an advanced avionics and sensor suite. One of its key features is the SPECTRA (Self-Protection Equipment Countering Threats to Rafale Aircraft) electronic warfare suite. This integrated system provides capabilities for long-range detection, identification, and localization of threats, as well as jamming and decoying for enhanced survivability in hostile environments. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct. The Rafale-M jets are specifically being acquired for the Indian Navy and are primarily intended to operate from the deck of India’s first indigenous aircraft carrier, INS Vikrant. This will significantly enhance the carrier’s combat capabilities. Statement 2 is correct. The Rafale-M is equipped with an advanced avionics and sensor suite. One of its key features is the SPECTRA (Self-Protection Equipment Countering Threats to Rafale Aircraft) electronic warfare suite. This integrated system provides capabilities for long-range detection, identification, and localization of threats, as well as jamming and decoying for enhanced survivability in hostile environments.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Rafale-M (Marine) jets.

• These jets are primarily intended to operate from India’s indigenous aircraft carrier, INS Vikrant.

• A key feature of the Rafale-M is its SPECTRA electronic warfare suite, designed for enhanced survivability through threat detection and jamming.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is correct. The Rafale-M jets are specifically being acquired for the Indian Navy and are primarily intended to operate from the deck of India’s first indigenous aircraft carrier, INS Vikrant. This will significantly enhance the carrier’s combat capabilities.

Statement 2 is correct. The Rafale-M is equipped with an advanced avionics and sensor suite. One of its key features is the SPECTRA (Self-Protection Equipment Countering Threats to Rafale Aircraft) electronic warfare suite. This integrated system provides capabilities for long-range detection, identification, and localization of threats, as well as jamming and decoying for enhanced survivability in hostile environments.

Solution: c)

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Sandy Cay Reef, a recent point of contention in the South China Sea, is located within which larger island group? (a) Paracel Islands. (b) Spratly Islands. (c) Scarborough Shoal. (d) Natuna Islands. Correct Solution: b) Sandy Cay Reef (also referred to as Tiexian Reef by China) is located in the northern Thitu Reefs, which are part of the Spratly Islands archipelago in the South China Sea. The sovereignty over Sandy Cay Reef, like many features in the Spratlys, is contested. The primary claimants involved in the dispute over Sandy Cay Reef are China, the Philippines, Taiwan, and Vietnam. Recent incidents in 2024-2025, including flag-raising activities and assertions of maritime control, have highlighted the ongoing tensions among these claimants over this specific feature. Incorrect Solution: b) Sandy Cay Reef (also referred to as Tiexian Reef by China) is located in the northern Thitu Reefs, which are part of the Spratly Islands archipelago in the South China Sea. The sovereignty over Sandy Cay Reef, like many features in the Spratlys, is contested. The primary claimants involved in the dispute over Sandy Cay Reef are China, the Philippines, Taiwan, and Vietnam. Recent incidents in 2024-2025, including flag-raising activities and assertions of maritime control, have highlighted the ongoing tensions among these claimants over this specific feature.

#### 10. Question

Sandy Cay Reef, a recent point of contention in the South China Sea, is located within which larger island group?

• (a) Paracel Islands.

• (b) Spratly Islands.

• (c) Scarborough Shoal.

• (d) Natuna Islands.

Solution: b)

Sandy Cay Reef (also referred to as Tiexian Reef by China) is located in the northern Thitu Reefs, which are part of the Spratly Islands archipelago in the South China Sea. The sovereignty over Sandy Cay Reef, like many features in the Spratlys, is contested. The primary claimants involved in the dispute over Sandy Cay Reef are China, the Philippines, Taiwan, and Vietnam. Recent incidents in 2024-2025, including flag-raising activities and assertions of maritime control, have highlighted the ongoing tensions among these claimants over this specific feature.

Solution: b)

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