UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 8 June 2024

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Special Category Status (SCS) is granted by the President of India. States with SCS receive preferential treatment in federal assistance and tax breaks. The criteria for granting SCS include difficult terrain, low population density, and non-viable nature of state finances. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Special Category Status (SCS) Description About SCS Special Category Status (SCS) is a classification granted by the Centre to assist in the development of states facing geographical and socio-economic disadvantages. Introduced in 1969 on the recommendations of the Fifth Finance Commission, it was initially granted to Jammu & Kashmir, Assam, and Nagaland. Later, states like Sikkim and Tripura were also included. The SCS States used to receive grants based on the Gadgil Mukherjee formula. However, after the recommendations of the 14th Finance Commission, SCS was stopped for any new states. Current Status Currently, no new states have been granted SCS. Special funding patterns for North Eastern and Himalayan states are based on recommendations from a Sub-Group of Chief Ministers, not through SCS. Factors for SCS Before granting SCS to a state, five factors were considered: hilly and difficult terrain, low population density and/or significant tribal population, strategic location along international borders, economic and infrastructural backwardness, and non-viable nature of state finances. States with SCS Currently, 11 states in India have SCS: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, and Uttarakhand. Benefits of SCS States with SCS receive Centre-State funding from centrally sponsored schemes in a more favourable ratio of 90:10 compared to general category states. They also enjoy tax concessions and exemptions to attract investment. Demand from Bihar and Andhra Pradesh Bihar and Andhra Pradesh have been demanding SCS. Bihar’s demand is based on its low per capita income and high poverty rates. Andhra Pradesh demands SCS due to revenue loss after the 2014 bifurcation, as promised by former Prime Minister Manmohan Singh. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Special Category Status (SCS) Description About SCS Special Category Status (SCS) is a classification granted by the Centre to assist in the development of states facing geographical and socio-economic disadvantages. Introduced in 1969 on the recommendations of the Fifth Finance Commission, it was initially granted to Jammu & Kashmir, Assam, and Nagaland. Later, states like Sikkim and Tripura were also included. The SCS States used to receive grants based on the Gadgil Mukherjee formula. However, after the recommendations of the 14th Finance Commission, SCS was stopped for any new states. Current Status Currently, no new states have been granted SCS. Special funding patterns for North Eastern and Himalayan states are based on recommendations from a Sub-Group of Chief Ministers, not through SCS. Factors for SCS Before granting SCS to a state, five factors were considered: hilly and difficult terrain, low population density and/or significant tribal population, strategic location along international borders, economic and infrastructural backwardness, and non-viable nature of state finances. States with SCS Currently, 11 states in India have SCS: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, and Uttarakhand. Benefits of SCS States with SCS receive Centre-State funding from centrally sponsored schemes in a more favourable ratio of 90:10 compared to general category states. They also enjoy tax concessions and exemptions to attract investment. Demand from Bihar and Andhra Pradesh Bihar and Andhra Pradesh have been demanding SCS. Bihar’s demand is based on its low per capita income and high poverty rates. Andhra Pradesh demands SCS due to revenue loss after the 2014 bifurcation, as promised by former Prime Minister Manmohan Singh. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Special Category Status (SCS) is granted by the President of India. States with SCS receive preferential treatment in federal assistance and tax breaks. The criteria for granting SCS include difficult terrain, low population density, and non-viable nature of state finances.

• Special Category Status (SCS) is granted by the President of India.

• States with SCS receive preferential treatment in federal assistance and tax breaks.

• The criteria for granting SCS include difficult terrain, low population density, and non-viable nature of state finances.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

Special Category Status (SCS) | Description

About SCS | Special Category Status (SCS) is a classification granted by the Centre to assist in the development of states facing geographical and socio-economic disadvantages. Introduced in 1969 on the recommendations of the Fifth Finance Commission, it was initially granted to Jammu & Kashmir, Assam, and Nagaland. Later, states like Sikkim and Tripura were also included. The SCS States used to receive grants based on the Gadgil Mukherjee formula. However, after the recommendations of the 14th Finance Commission, SCS was stopped for any new states.

Current Status | Currently, no new states have been granted SCS. Special funding patterns for North Eastern and Himalayan states are based on recommendations from a Sub-Group of Chief Ministers, not through SCS.

Factors for SCS | Before granting SCS to a state, five factors were considered: hilly and difficult terrain, low population density and/or significant tribal population, strategic location along international borders, economic and infrastructural backwardness, and non-viable nature of state finances.

States with SCS | Currently, 11 states in India have SCS: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, and Uttarakhand.

Benefits of SCS | States with SCS receive Centre-State funding from centrally sponsored schemes in a more favourable ratio of 90:10 compared to general category states. They also enjoy tax concessions and exemptions to attract investment.

Demand from Bihar and Andhra Pradesh | Bihar and Andhra Pradesh have been demanding SCS. Bihar’s demand is based on its low per capita income and high poverty rates. Andhra Pradesh demands SCS due to revenue loss after the 2014 bifurcation, as promised by former Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

Explanation:

Special Category Status (SCS) | Description

States with SCS | Currently, 11 states in India have SCS: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, and Uttarakhand.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points SEBI recently formed a committee chaired by Usha Thorat. This committee is related to: (a) Improving financial literacy among investors (b) Reviewing corporate governance norms (c) Enhancing market surveillance mechanisms (d) Reviewing ownership and economic structure of clearing corporations Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: SEBI forms a committee, chaired by Usha Thorat, to review the ownership and economic structure of clearing corporations. Aim: Ensure resilience, independence, and neutrality. Previous norms by SEBI focused on dispersed ownership and governance framework. The current structure is dominated by parent exchanges, raising concerns about independence and capital infusion. Globally, major clearing corporations have diversified shareholding models. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: SEBI forms a committee, chaired by Usha Thorat, to review the ownership and economic structure of clearing corporations. Aim: Ensure resilience, independence, and neutrality. Previous norms by SEBI focused on dispersed ownership and governance framework. The current structure is dominated by parent exchanges, raising concerns about independence and capital infusion. Globally, major clearing corporations have diversified shareholding models. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

#### 2. Question

SEBI recently formed a committee chaired by Usha Thorat. This committee is related to:

• (a) Improving financial literacy among investors

• (b) Reviewing corporate governance norms

• (c) Enhancing market surveillance mechanisms

• (d) Reviewing ownership and economic structure of clearing corporations

Explanation:

• Context: SEBI forms a committee, chaired by Usha Thorat, to review the ownership and economic structure of clearing corporations.

• Aim: Ensure resilience, independence, and neutrality. Previous norms by SEBI focused on dispersed ownership and governance framework. The current structure is dominated by parent exchanges, raising concerns about independence and capital infusion. Globally, major clearing corporations have diversified shareholding models.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

Explanation:

• Context: SEBI forms a committee, chaired by Usha Thorat, to review the ownership and economic structure of clearing corporations.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL): It was set up to provide guaranteed clearing and settlement functions for transactions in money, G-Secs, foreign exchange, and derivative markets. It has set up a Trade Repository to enable financial institutions to report their transactions in Over-the-Counter (OTC) derivatives. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (c) Explanation:Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL): It was set up in April 2001 to provide guaranteed clearing and settlement functions for transactions in money, G-Secs, foreign exchange, and derivative markets. CCIL also provides non-guaranteed settlement for Rupee interest rate derivatives and cross-currency transactions through the CLS Bank. Promoters: State Bank of India, IDBI Bank Ltd, ICICI Bank Ltd, Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), Bank of Baroda and HDFC Bank Ltd. It has also set up a Trade Repository to enable financial institutions to report their transactions in Over-the-Counter (OTC) derivatives. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation:Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL): It was set up in April 2001 to provide guaranteed clearing and settlement functions for transactions in money, G-Secs, foreign exchange, and derivative markets. CCIL also provides non-guaranteed settlement for Rupee interest rate derivatives and cross-currency transactions through the CLS Bank. Promoters: State Bank of India, IDBI Bank Ltd, ICICI Bank Ltd, Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), Bank of Baroda and HDFC Bank Ltd. It has also set up a Trade Repository to enable financial institutions to report their transactions in Over-the-Counter (OTC) derivatives. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL):

• It was set up to provide guaranteed clearing and settlement functions for transactions in money, G-Secs, foreign exchange, and derivative markets. It has set up a Trade Repository to enable financial institutions to report their transactions in Over-the-Counter (OTC) derivatives.

• It was set up to provide guaranteed clearing and settlement functions for transactions in money, G-Secs, foreign exchange, and derivative markets.

• It has set up a Trade Repository to enable financial institutions to report their transactions in Over-the-Counter (OTC) derivatives.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL):

• It was set up in April 2001 to provide guaranteed clearing and settlement functions for transactions in money, G-Secs, foreign exchange, and derivative markets.

• CCIL also provides non-guaranteed settlement for Rupee interest rate derivatives and cross-currency transactions through the CLS Bank.

• Promoters: State Bank of India, IDBI Bank Ltd, ICICI Bank Ltd, Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), Bank of Baroda and HDFC Bank Ltd.

• It has also set up a Trade Repository to enable financial institutions to report their transactions in Over-the-Counter (OTC) derivatives.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

Explanation:Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL):

• It was set up in April 2001 to provide guaranteed clearing and settlement functions for transactions in money, G-Secs, foreign exchange, and derivative markets.

• CCIL also provides non-guaranteed settlement for Rupee interest rate derivatives and cross-currency transactions through the CLS Bank.

• Promoters: State Bank of India, IDBI Bank Ltd, ICICI Bank Ltd, Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), Bank of Baroda and HDFC Bank Ltd.

• It has also set up a Trade Repository to enable financial institutions to report their transactions in Over-the-Counter (OTC) derivatives.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points The “World of Debt Report” is published by which of the following organizations? (a) International Monetary Fund (IMF) (b) World Bank (c) UN Trade and Development (UNCTAD) (d) Bank for International Settlements (BIS) Correct ANs: (c) Explanation: The “A World of Debt Report 2024” by UN Trade and Development (UNCTAD) highlights a significant surge in global public debt, which reached a historic peak of $97 trillion in 2023. India’s public debt reached $2.9 trillion in 2023, amounting to 82.7% of its GDP. To address the current debt crisis, the report outlines several initiatives, including the Heavily Indebted Poor Countries (HIPC) Initiative by the IMF and World Bank, the Debt Management and Financial Analysis System (DMFAS) programme by UNCTAD, and the Global Sovereign Debt Roundtable (GSDR), launched in February 2023 by the IMF in coordination with the World Bank and India’s G20 presidency. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/ Incorrect ANs: (c) Explanation: The “A World of Debt Report 2024” by UN Trade and Development (UNCTAD) highlights a significant surge in global public debt, which reached a historic peak of $97 trillion in 2023. India’s public debt reached $2.9 trillion in 2023, amounting to 82.7% of its GDP. To address the current debt crisis, the report outlines several initiatives, including the Heavily Indebted Poor Countries (HIPC) Initiative by the IMF and World Bank, the Debt Management and Financial Analysis System (DMFAS) programme by UNCTAD, and the Global Sovereign Debt Roundtable (GSDR), launched in February 2023 by the IMF in coordination with the World Bank and India’s G20 presidency. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

#### 4. Question

The “World of Debt Report” is published by which of the following organizations?

• (a) International Monetary Fund (IMF)

• (b) World Bank

• (c) UN Trade and Development (UNCTAD)

• (d) Bank for International Settlements (BIS)

Explanation:

• The “A World of Debt Report 2024” by UN Trade and Development (UNCTAD) highlights a significant surge in global public debt, which reached a historic peak of $97 trillion in 2023. India’s public debt reached $2.9 trillion in 2023, amounting to 82.7% of its GDP.

• To address the current debt crisis, the report outlines several initiatives, including the Heavily Indebted Poor Countries (HIPC) Initiative by the IMF and World Bank, the Debt Management and Financial Analysis System (DMFAS) programme by UNCTAD, and the Global Sovereign Debt Roundtable (GSDR), launched in February 2023 by the IMF in coordination with the World Bank and India’s G20 presidency.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points The “Environmental Performance Index” is published by which of the following organizations? (a) United Nations Environment Programme (b) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (c) Germanwatch (d) None Correct ANs: (d) Explanation:Environmental Performance Index (EPI), 2024 The Yale Center for Environmental Law & Policy recently published the EPI 2024, ranking 180 countries on climate change performance, environmental health, and ecosystem vitality using 58 indicators across 11 categories. Estonia tops the list. India is ranked 176th, being the world’s third-largest greenhouse gas emitter with a 32% increase in emissions over the past decade. In 2022, India surpassed China as the largest emitter of anthropogenic sulfur dioxide. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/ Incorrect ANs: (d) Explanation:Environmental Performance Index (EPI), 2024 The Yale Center for Environmental Law & Policy recently published the EPI 2024, ranking 180 countries on climate change performance, environmental health, and ecosystem vitality using 58 indicators across 11 categories. Estonia tops the list. India is ranked 176th, being the world’s third-largest greenhouse gas emitter with a 32% increase in emissions over the past decade. In 2022, India surpassed China as the largest emitter of anthropogenic sulfur dioxide. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

#### 5. Question

The “Environmental Performance Index” is published by which of the following organizations?

• (a) United Nations Environment Programme

• (b) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change

• (c) Germanwatch

Explanation:Environmental Performance Index (EPI), 2024

• The Yale Center for Environmental Law & Policy recently published the EPI 2024, ranking 180 countries on climate change performance, environmental health, and ecosystem vitality using 58 indicators across 11 categories. Estonia tops the list. India is ranked 176th, being the world’s third-largest greenhouse gas emitter with a 32% increase in emissions over the past decade. In 2022, India surpassed China as the largest emitter of anthropogenic sulfur dioxide.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

Explanation:Environmental Performance Index (EPI), 2024

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Fungi are primarily photosynthetic organisms. Fungi can reproduce both sexually and asexually. Fungi have cell walls made of chitin. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation S1is incorrect: Fungi are not photosynthetic; they are heterotrophic, meaning they obtain their food by absorbing dissolved molecules, typically by secreting digestive enzymes into their environment. Unlike plants, fungi do not contain chlorophyll and cannot perform photosynthesis. S2 is correct: Fungi have complex life cycles and can reproduce both sexually and asexually, often depending on environmental conditions. For example, yeasts reproduce asexually by budding, while many fungi reproduce sexually by forming spores. S3 is correct: Fungal cell walls are primarily composed of chitin, a strong, flexible nitrogen-containing polysaccharide. This is different from plant cell walls, which are made of cellulose. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation S1is incorrect: Fungi are not photosynthetic; they are heterotrophic, meaning they obtain their food by absorbing dissolved molecules, typically by secreting digestive enzymes into their environment. Unlike plants, fungi do not contain chlorophyll and cannot perform photosynthesis. S2 is correct: Fungi have complex life cycles and can reproduce both sexually and asexually, often depending on environmental conditions. For example, yeasts reproduce asexually by budding, while many fungi reproduce sexually by forming spores. S3 is correct: Fungal cell walls are primarily composed of chitin, a strong, flexible nitrogen-containing polysaccharide. This is different from plant cell walls, which are made of cellulose. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Fungi are primarily photosynthetic organisms. Fungi can reproduce both sexually and asexually. Fungi have cell walls made of chitin.

• Fungi are primarily photosynthetic organisms.

• Fungi can reproduce both sexually and asexually.

• Fungi have cell walls made of chitin.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation

• S1is incorrect: Fungi are not photosynthetic; they are heterotrophic, meaning they obtain their food by absorbing dissolved molecules, typically by secreting digestive enzymes into their environment. Unlike plants, fungi do not contain chlorophyll and cannot perform photosynthesis.

• S2 is correct: Fungi have complex life cycles and can reproduce both sexually and asexually, often depending on environmental conditions. For example, yeasts reproduce asexually by budding, while many fungi reproduce sexually by forming spores.

• S3 is correct: Fungal cell walls are primarily composed of chitin, a strong, flexible nitrogen-containing polysaccharide. This is different from plant cell walls, which are made of cellulose.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

Explanation

• S3 is correct: Fungal cell walls are primarily composed of chitin, a strong, flexible nitrogen-containing polysaccharide. This is different from plant cell walls, which are made of cellulose.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) : ICBMs are capable of carrying multiple independently targetable reentry vehicles (MIRVs). The primary purpose of ICBMs is to intercept and destroy incoming ballistic missiles. ICBMs can be launched from land-based silos, submarines, or mobile platforms. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation Statement 1: Correct. ICBMs are capable of carrying multiple independently targetable reentry vehicles (MIRVs), which allows a single missile to deliver multiple nuclear warheads to different targets. Statement 2: Incorrect. The primary purpose of ICBMs is not to intercept and destroy incoming ballistic missiles; rather, they are designed to deliver nuclear warheads over long distances. The systems designed to intercept and destroy incoming missiles are known as missile defense systems. Statement 3: Correct. ICBMs can be launched from various platforms, including land-based silos, submarines (referred to as Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missiles or SLBMs), and mobile platforms, providing strategic flexibility. Refer:https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation Statement 1: Correct. ICBMs are capable of carrying multiple independently targetable reentry vehicles (MIRVs), which allows a single missile to deliver multiple nuclear warheads to different targets. Statement 2: Incorrect. The primary purpose of ICBMs is not to intercept and destroy incoming ballistic missiles; rather, they are designed to deliver nuclear warheads over long distances. The systems designed to intercept and destroy incoming missiles are known as missile defense systems. Statement 3: Correct. ICBMs can be launched from various platforms, including land-based silos, submarines (referred to as Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missiles or SLBMs), and mobile platforms, providing strategic flexibility. Refer:https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) :

• ICBMs are capable of carrying multiple independently targetable reentry vehicles (MIRVs). The primary purpose of ICBMs is to intercept and destroy incoming ballistic missiles. ICBMs can be launched from land-based silos, submarines, or mobile platforms.

• ICBMs are capable of carrying multiple independently targetable reentry vehicles (MIRVs).

• The primary purpose of ICBMs is to intercept and destroy incoming ballistic missiles.

• ICBMs can be launched from land-based silos, submarines, or mobile platforms.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation

• Statement 1: Correct. ICBMs are capable of carrying multiple independently targetable reentry vehicles (MIRVs), which allows a single missile to deliver multiple nuclear warheads to different targets.

• Statement 2: Incorrect. The primary purpose of ICBMs is not to intercept and destroy incoming ballistic missiles; rather, they are designed to deliver nuclear warheads over long distances. The systems designed to intercept and destroy incoming missiles are known as missile defense systems.

• Statement 3: Correct. ICBMs can be launched from various platforms, including land-based silos, submarines (referred to as Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missiles or SLBMs), and mobile platforms, providing strategic flexibility.

Refer:https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

Explanation

Refer:https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Agni-V: It has a range of over 5,000 kilometers, capable of reaching targets in Europe. The missile is equipped with Multiple Independently targetable Reentry Vehicles (MIRVs). Agni-V is part of India’s Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP). How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation S1 is Correct: The missile has a range of over 5,000 kilometers, which allows it to reach targets across much of Asia, including China, and potentially parts of Europe. This extended range places Agni-V in the category of ICBMs. S2 is Correct: Agni-V is designed to be equipped with Multiple Independently targetable Reentry Vehicles (MIRVs). This capability means that a single missile can carry multiple warheads, each capable of striking different targets independently. This significantly enhances the missile’s effectiveness and deterrent value. S3 is incorrect: Agni-I was developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP) and tested in 1989. After its success, Agni missile program was separated from the IGMDP upon realizing its strategic importance. It was designated as a special program in India’s defence budget and provided adequate funds for subsequent development. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation S1 is Correct: The missile has a range of over 5,000 kilometers, which allows it to reach targets across much of Asia, including China, and potentially parts of Europe. This extended range places Agni-V in the category of ICBMs. S2 is Correct: Agni-V is designed to be equipped with Multiple Independently targetable Reentry Vehicles (MIRVs). This capability means that a single missile can carry multiple warheads, each capable of striking different targets independently. This significantly enhances the missile’s effectiveness and deterrent value. S3 is incorrect: Agni-I was developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP) and tested in 1989. After its success, Agni missile program was separated from the IGMDP upon realizing its strategic importance. It was designated as a special program in India’s defence budget and provided adequate funds for subsequent development. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about Agni-V:

• It has a range of over 5,000 kilometers, capable of reaching targets in Europe. The missile is equipped with Multiple Independently targetable Reentry Vehicles (MIRVs). Agni-V is part of India’s Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP).

• It has a range of over 5,000 kilometers, capable of reaching targets in Europe.

• The missile is equipped with Multiple Independently targetable Reentry Vehicles (MIRVs).

• Agni-V is part of India’s Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP).

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation

• S1 is Correct: The missile has a range of over 5,000 kilometers, which allows it to reach targets across much of Asia, including China, and potentially parts of Europe. This extended range places Agni-V in the category of ICBMs.

• S2 is Correct: Agni-V is designed to be equipped with Multiple Independently targetable Reentry Vehicles (MIRVs). This capability means that a single missile can carry multiple warheads, each capable of striking different targets independently. This significantly enhances the missile’s effectiveness and deterrent value.

• S3 is incorrect: Agni-I was developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP) and tested in 1989. After its success, Agni missile program was separated from the IGMDP upon realizing its strategic importance. It was designated as a special program in India’s defence budget and provided adequate funds for subsequent development.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

Explanation

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about Mount Kanlaon is correct? (a) It is located in Luzon, the Philippines. (b) It is the highest peak in the Visayas region of the Philippines. (c) It is an extinct volcano located on the island of Borneo. (d) It is part of the Ring of Fire in Japan. Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: Mount Kanlaon, located in the central Philippines, erupted recently (through a Phreatic eruption), prompting hundreds of people to seek shelter in evacuation centres. About Mount Kanlaon/ Canlaon: It stands as the highest peak on Negros Island and is one of the active volcanoes within the Philippines’ Pacific Ring of Fire. The volcano comprises various pyroclastic cones and craters, with its summit boasting a broad caldera and a crater lake. Phreatic eruptions, characterized by steam-driven explosions resulting from heated groundwater, are typical occurrences, often preceding or following traditional volcanic eruptions. Rfer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: Mount Kanlaon, located in the central Philippines, erupted recently (through a Phreatic eruption), prompting hundreds of people to seek shelter in evacuation centres. About Mount Kanlaon/ Canlaon: It stands as the highest peak on Negros Island and is one of the active volcanoes within the Philippines’ Pacific Ring of Fire. The volcano comprises various pyroclastic cones and craters, with its summit boasting a broad caldera and a crater lake. Phreatic eruptions, characterized by steam-driven explosions resulting from heated groundwater, are typical occurrences, often preceding or following traditional volcanic eruptions. Rfer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

#### 9. Question

Which of the following statements about Mount Kanlaon is correct?

• (a) It is located in Luzon, the Philippines.

• (b) It is the highest peak in the Visayas region of the Philippines.

• (c) It is an extinct volcano located on the island of Borneo.

• (d) It is part of the Ring of Fire in Japan.

Explanation:

• Context: Mount Kanlaon, located in the central Philippines, erupted recently (through a Phreatic eruption), prompting hundreds of people to seek shelter in evacuation centres.

• About Mount Kanlaon/ Canlaon: It stands as the highest peak on Negros Island and is one of the active volcanoes within the Philippines’ Pacific Ring of Fire. The volcano comprises various pyroclastic cones and craters, with its summit boasting a broad caldera and a crater lake. Phreatic eruptions, characterized by steam-driven explosions resulting from heated groundwater, are typical occurrences, often preceding or following traditional volcanic eruptions.

• It stands as the highest peak on Negros Island and is one of the active volcanoes within the Philippines’ Pacific Ring of Fire. The volcano comprises various pyroclastic cones and craters, with its summit boasting a broad caldera and a crater lake.

• Phreatic eruptions, characterized by steam-driven explosions resulting from heated groundwater, are typical occurrences, often preceding or following traditional volcanic eruptions.

Rfer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

Explanation:

• Context: Mount Kanlaon, located in the central Philippines, erupted recently (through a Phreatic eruption), prompting hundreds of people to seek shelter in evacuation centres.

• Phreatic eruptions, characterized by steam-driven explosions resulting from heated groundwater, are typical occurrences, often preceding or following traditional volcanic eruptions.

Rfer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points The “Global Annual to Decadal Climate Update (2024-2028)” is released by which organization? (a) World Meteorological Organization (WMO) (b) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) (c) National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) (d) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) Correct Ans: (a) Explanation:Global Annual to Decadal Climate Update (2024-2028) This annual report by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) synthesizes global annual to decadal predictions. Key highlights include an 80% likelihood that the annual average global temperature will temporarily exceed 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels for at least one year between 2024-2028; Predicted reductions in sea-ice concentration in the Barents Sea, Bering Sea, and the Sea of Okhotsk. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation:Global Annual to Decadal Climate Update (2024-2028) This annual report by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) synthesizes global annual to decadal predictions. Key highlights include an 80% likelihood that the annual average global temperature will temporarily exceed 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels for at least one year between 2024-2028; Predicted reductions in sea-ice concentration in the Barents Sea, Bering Sea, and the Sea of Okhotsk. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

#### 10. Question

The “Global Annual to Decadal Climate Update (2024-2028)” is released by which organization?

• (a) World Meteorological Organization (WMO)

• (b) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)

• (c) National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)

• (d) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

Explanation:Global Annual to Decadal Climate Update (2024-2028)

• This annual report by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) synthesizes global annual to decadal predictions. Key highlights include an 80% likelihood that the annual average global temperature will temporarily exceed 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels for at least one year between 2024-2028; Predicted reductions in sea-ice concentration in the Barents Sea, Bering Sea, and the Sea of Okhotsk.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

Explanation:Global Annual to Decadal Climate Update (2024-2028)

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/07/upsc-current-affairs-7-june-2024/

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