UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 8 January 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS): It is the National Standards Body of India established under the BIS Act, 1986, and currently governed by the BIS Act, 2016. The BIS serves as the successor to the Indian Standards Institution (ISI), which was established just before India’s independence. Its mandate includes the hallmarking of precious metals and the implementation of the Compulsory Registration Scheme for electronics. The BIS operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 4 is incorrect. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the National Standards Body of India. It was established by the BIS Act, 1986, and came into effect on April 1, 1987. To strengthen its mandate, the BIS Act, 2016 was enacted, which expanded its scope to include services and allowed the government to bring more products under the mandatory certification regime. Its origins trace back to the Indian Standards Institution (ISI), founded in 1947. Core functions of the BIS include standards formulation, product certification (ISI mark), and the hallmarking of gold and silver jewelry. It also manages the Foreign Manufacturers Certification Scheme and testing services. However, a crucial point of distinction is its administrative oversight; the BIS actually functions under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. This reflects its primary objective of protecting consumer interests and ensuring quality assurance. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 4 is incorrect. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the National Standards Body of India. It was established by the BIS Act, 1986, and came into effect on April 1, 1987. To strengthen its mandate, the BIS Act, 2016 was enacted, which expanded its scope to include services and allowed the government to bring more products under the mandatory certification regime. Its origins trace back to the Indian Standards Institution (ISI), founded in 1947. Core functions of the BIS include standards formulation, product certification (ISI mark), and the hallmarking of gold and silver jewelry. It also manages the Foreign Manufacturers Certification Scheme and testing services. However, a crucial point of distinction is its administrative oversight; the BIS actually functions under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. This reflects its primary objective of protecting consumer interests and ensuring quality assurance.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS):

• It is the National Standards Body of India established under the BIS Act, 1986, and currently governed by the BIS Act, 2016.

• The BIS serves as the successor to the Indian Standards Institution (ISI), which was established just before India’s independence.

• Its mandate includes the hallmarking of precious metals and the implementation of the Compulsory Registration Scheme for electronics.

• The BIS operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

Statement 4 is incorrect.

• The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the National Standards Body of India. It was established by the BIS Act, 1986, and came into effect on April 1, 1987. To strengthen its mandate, the BIS Act, 2016 was enacted, which expanded its scope to include services and allowed the government to bring more products under the mandatory certification regime.

• Its origins trace back to the Indian Standards Institution (ISI), founded in 1947. Core functions of the BIS include standards formulation, product certification (ISI mark), and the hallmarking of gold and silver jewelry.

• It also manages the Foreign Manufacturers Certification Scheme and testing services.

• However, a crucial point of distinction is its administrative oversight; the BIS actually functions under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. This reflects its primary objective of protecting consumer interests and ensuring quality assurance.

Solution: C

Statement 4 is incorrect.

• It also manages the Foreign Manufacturers Certification Scheme and testing services.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC): ONDC is a centralized digital marketplace that owns and manages product listings to prevent platform monopolies. It operates under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) within the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The network utilizes open protocols and standardized APIs to ensure interoperability between different buyer and seller applications. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is a landmark initiative aimed at democratizing digital commerce in India. Statement 1 is incorrect because ONDC is not a central marketplace or a platform like Amazon or Flipkart. Instead, it is a decentralized digital network that does not own listings, control sellers, or process orders directly. It functions as a set of open protocols that allow different platforms—whether for food, mobility, or grocery—to talk to each other. For example, a buyer on one app can purchase from a seller on a completely different app. This interoperability is achieved through standardized APIs, breaking the silos created by platform-centric models. Launched in April 2022, it is mentored by the DPIIT under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. By providing a level playing field, ONDC empowers small merchants and MSMEs who might otherwise be overshadowed by large e-commerce giants, thereby fostering a more inclusive and competitive digital ecosystem. Incorrect Solution: A The Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is a landmark initiative aimed at democratizing digital commerce in India. Statement 1 is incorrect because ONDC is not a central marketplace or a platform like Amazon or Flipkart. Instead, it is a decentralized digital network that does not own listings, control sellers, or process orders directly. It functions as a set of open protocols that allow different platforms—whether for food, mobility, or grocery—to talk to each other. For example, a buyer on one app can purchase from a seller on a completely different app. This interoperability is achieved through standardized APIs, breaking the silos created by platform-centric models. Launched in April 2022, it is mentored by the DPIIT under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. By providing a level playing field, ONDC empowers small merchants and MSMEs who might otherwise be overshadowed by large e-commerce giants, thereby fostering a more inclusive and competitive digital ecosystem.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC):

• ONDC is a centralized digital marketplace that owns and manages product listings to prevent platform monopolies.

• It operates under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) within the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

• The network utilizes open protocols and standardized APIs to ensure interoperability between different buyer and seller applications.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is a landmark initiative aimed at democratizing digital commerce in India.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because ONDC is not a central marketplace or a platform like Amazon or Flipkart. Instead, it is a decentralized digital network that does not own listings, control sellers, or process orders directly. It functions as a set of open protocols that allow different platforms—whether for food, mobility, or grocery—to talk to each other. For example, a buyer on one app can purchase from a seller on a completely different app. This interoperability is achieved through standardized APIs, breaking the silos created by platform-centric models. Launched in April 2022, it is mentored by the DPIIT under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

• By providing a level playing field, ONDC empowers small merchants and MSMEs who might otherwise be overshadowed by large e-commerce giants, thereby fostering a more inclusive and competitive digital ecosystem.

Solution: A

• The Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is a landmark initiative aimed at democratizing digital commerce in India.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Constitutional duties of the Election Commission of India (ECI): The power to conduct Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls is derived from the ECI’s authority under Article 324. Article 325 mandates that there shall be separate electoral rolls for Parliament and State Legislatures to ensure federal autonomy. The Constitution makes Indian citizenship a foundational requirement for voter registration under Article 326. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Election Commission of India (ECI) holds a pivotal role in maintaining the integrity of Indian democracy. Under Article 324, the ECI is vested with the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to Parliament and State Legislatures. This Article provides the ECI with “plenary powers” to ensure the purity of the electoral process, which includes conducting a Special Intensive Revision (SIR) to weed out ineligible voters. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 325 specifically mandates a single general electoral roll for every territorial constituency; it prohibits the creation of separate rolls based on religion, race, caste, or sex. Article 326 establishes the principle of adult suffrage, stating that every citizen aged 18 or older is entitled to be registered as a voter, emphasizing that citizenship is the bedrock of the franchise. While Articles 327 and 328 allow Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws regarding elections, such laws are always subject to the constitutional authority of the ECI under Article 324. Incorrect Solution: B The Election Commission of India (ECI) holds a pivotal role in maintaining the integrity of Indian democracy. Under Article 324, the ECI is vested with the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to Parliament and State Legislatures. This Article provides the ECI with “plenary powers” to ensure the purity of the electoral process, which includes conducting a Special Intensive Revision (SIR) to weed out ineligible voters. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 325 specifically mandates a single general electoral roll for every territorial constituency; it prohibits the creation of separate rolls based on religion, race, caste, or sex. Article 326 establishes the principle of adult suffrage, stating that every citizen aged 18 or older is entitled to be registered as a voter, emphasizing that citizenship is the bedrock of the franchise. While Articles 327 and 328 allow Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws regarding elections, such laws are always subject to the constitutional authority of the ECI under Article 324.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Constitutional duties of the Election Commission of India (ECI):

• The power to conduct Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls is derived from the ECI’s authority under Article 324.

• Article 325 mandates that there shall be separate electoral rolls for Parliament and State Legislatures to ensure federal autonomy.

• The Constitution makes Indian citizenship a foundational requirement for voter registration under Article 326.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Election Commission of India (ECI) holds a pivotal role in maintaining the integrity of Indian democracy. Under Article 324, the ECI is vested with the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to Parliament and State Legislatures. This Article provides the ECI with “plenary powers” to ensure the purity of the electoral process, which includes conducting a Special Intensive Revision (SIR) to weed out ineligible voters.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 325 specifically mandates a single general electoral roll for every territorial constituency; it prohibits the creation of separate rolls based on religion, race, caste, or sex.

• Article 326 establishes the principle of adult suffrage, stating that every citizen aged 18 or older is entitled to be registered as a voter, emphasizing that citizenship is the bedrock of the franchise. While Articles 327 and 328 allow Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws regarding elections, such laws are always subject to the constitutional authority of the ECI under Article 324.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement I: The Mpemba effect describes a counterintuitive physical phenomenon where hot water freezes more rapidly than cold water under similar conditions. Statement II: When water is heated, it undergoes molecular changes and mass loss due to evaporation, which can influence the subsequent rate of cooling and solidification. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A The Mpemba effect is a long-standing scientific paradox named after Erasto Mpemba, who observed it in 1969. While it seems logical that cold water would reach the freezing point faster, several factors contribute to the opposite occurring. First, evaporation plays a significant role; hot water loses mass as vapor, meaning there is less water left to freeze. Second, heating water drives out dissolved gases, which alters its thermal properties. Third, convection currents are more vigorous in hot water, facilitating faster heat transfer to the environment. Furthermore, hot water may experience different levels of supercooling compared to cold water. Recently, Indian scientists used supercomputer simulations to capture this effect, advancing our understanding of non-equilibrium physics. Because the molecular and physical changes (mass loss, convection) directly cause the accelerated freezing described in Statement I, Statement II is the correct functional explanation. This effect has practical applications in climate modeling and cryosphere studies, where understanding ice formation is critical. Incorrect Solution: A The Mpemba effect is a long-standing scientific paradox named after Erasto Mpemba, who observed it in 1969. While it seems logical that cold water would reach the freezing point faster, several factors contribute to the opposite occurring. First, evaporation plays a significant role; hot water loses mass as vapor, meaning there is less water left to freeze. Second, heating water drives out dissolved gases, which alters its thermal properties. Third, convection currents are more vigorous in hot water, facilitating faster heat transfer to the environment. Furthermore, hot water may experience different levels of supercooling compared to cold water. Recently, Indian scientists used supercomputer simulations to capture this effect, advancing our understanding of non-equilibrium physics. Because the molecular and physical changes (mass loss, convection) directly cause the accelerated freezing described in Statement I, Statement II is the correct functional explanation. This effect has practical applications in climate modeling and cryosphere studies, where understanding ice formation is critical.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement I: The Mpemba effect describes a counterintuitive physical phenomenon where hot water freezes more rapidly than cold water under similar conditions.

Statement II: When water is heated, it undergoes molecular changes and mass loss due to evaporation, which can influence the subsequent rate of cooling and solidification.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• The Mpemba effect is a long-standing scientific paradox named after Erasto Mpemba, who observed it in 1969. While it seems logical that cold water would reach the freezing point faster, several factors contribute to the opposite occurring.

• First, evaporation plays a significant role; hot water loses mass as vapor, meaning there is less water left to freeze.

• Second, heating water drives out dissolved gases, which alters its thermal properties.

• Third, convection currents are more vigorous in hot water, facilitating faster heat transfer to the environment.

• Furthermore, hot water may experience different levels of supercooling compared to cold water. Recently, Indian scientists used supercomputer simulations to capture this effect, advancing our understanding of non-equilibrium physics.

• Because the molecular and physical changes (mass loss, convection) directly cause the accelerated freezing described in Statement I, Statement II is the correct functional explanation. This effect has practical applications in climate modeling and cryosphere studies, where understanding ice formation is critical.

Solution: A

• First, evaporation plays a significant role; hot water loses mass as vapor, meaning there is less water left to freeze.

• Second, heating water drives out dissolved gases, which alters its thermal properties.

• Third, convection currents are more vigorous in hot water, facilitating faster heat transfer to the environment.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) initiatives: The SHINE initiative specifically focuses on training men in rural areas to become quality ambassadors for agricultural standards. The BIS Standardisation Portal provides a digital end-to-end lifecycle for standards, from proposal to final publication. BIS–SAKSHAM is an annual scheme designed to recognize institutional excellence in knowledge and high-impact merit. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect because SHINE (Standards Help Inform & Nurture Empowered Women) is a women-centric capacity-building initiative. It aims to position women from Self-Help Groups (SHGs) and NGOs as quality ambassadors within their communities, promoting a culture of quality and consumer rights. Statement 2 is correct; the BIS Standardisation Portal is a major digital initiative that ensures transparency and speeds up the timeline for standards formulation through a digital dashboard and role-based access. Statement 3 is also correct; BIS–SAKSHAM is the Annual Excellence Recognition Scheme that acknowledges the contribution of individuals and institutions toward standardisation and quality. These initiatives represent the BIS’s shift toward a facilitative approach, moving beyond mere regulation to foster a quality culture in India. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect because SHINE (Standards Help Inform & Nurture Empowered Women) is a women-centric capacity-building initiative. It aims to position women from Self-Help Groups (SHGs) and NGOs as quality ambassadors within their communities, promoting a culture of quality and consumer rights. Statement 2 is correct; the BIS Standardisation Portal is a major digital initiative that ensures transparency and speeds up the timeline for standards formulation through a digital dashboard and role-based access. Statement 3 is also correct; BIS–SAKSHAM is the Annual Excellence Recognition Scheme that acknowledges the contribution of individuals and institutions toward standardisation and quality. These initiatives represent the BIS’s shift toward a facilitative approach, moving beyond mere regulation to foster a quality culture in India.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) initiatives:

• The SHINE initiative specifically focuses on training men in rural areas to become quality ambassadors for agricultural standards.

• The BIS Standardisation Portal provides a digital end-to-end lifecycle for standards, from proposal to final publication.

• BIS–SAKSHAM is an annual scheme designed to recognize institutional excellence in knowledge and high-impact merit.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect because SHINE (Standards Help Inform & Nurture Empowered Women) is a women-centric capacity-building initiative. It aims to position women from Self-Help Groups (SHGs) and NGOs as quality ambassadors within their communities, promoting a culture of quality and consumer rights.

• Statement 2 is correct; the BIS Standardisation Portal is a major digital initiative that ensures transparency and speeds up the timeline for standards formulation through a digital dashboard and role-based access.

• Statement 3 is also correct; BIS–SAKSHAM is the Annual Excellence Recognition Scheme that acknowledges the contribution of individuals and institutions toward standardisation and quality. These initiatives represent the BIS’s shift toward a facilitative approach, moving beyond mere regulation to foster a quality culture in India.

Solution: B

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which one of the following is the primary objective of the “Mission 100% Railway Electrification” launched by Indian Railways? (a) To replace all broad-gauge tracks with high-speed bullet train corridors. (b) To connect all North-Eastern capitals with double-decker electric trains. (c) To privatize the entire operation of freight trains across India. (d) To eliminate diesel traction to reduce carbon emissions and fuel import dependence. Correct Solution: D The Mission 100% Railway Electrification is a cornerstone of India’s commitment to net-zero emissions. Its primary goal is the elimination of diesel traction, which is both polluting and expensive. By shifting to electric traction, Indian Railways aims to significantly reduce carbon emissions and lower the national bill for imported fossil fuels. Electric trains are more energy-efficient and offer better acceleration, which improves the speed and reliability of both passenger and freight operations. As of 2025, approximately 2% of the broad-gauge network is electrified, making it the world’s largest such system. This mission also involves a massive scale-up of renewable energy (solar and wind) to power the trains, moving the railway toward becoming a “Green Railway.” It is an economic move as well, given that electric traction reduces operating costs by nearly 70% compared to diesel. Incorrect Solution: D The Mission 100% Railway Electrification is a cornerstone of India’s commitment to net-zero emissions. Its primary goal is the elimination of diesel traction, which is both polluting and expensive. By shifting to electric traction, Indian Railways aims to significantly reduce carbon emissions and lower the national bill for imported fossil fuels. Electric trains are more energy-efficient and offer better acceleration, which improves the speed and reliability of both passenger and freight operations. As of 2025, approximately 2% of the broad-gauge network is electrified, making it the world’s largest such system. This mission also involves a massive scale-up of renewable energy (solar and wind) to power the trains, moving the railway toward becoming a “Green Railway.” It is an economic move as well, given that electric traction reduces operating costs by nearly 70% compared to diesel.

#### 6. Question

Which one of the following is the primary objective of the “Mission 100% Railway Electrification” launched by Indian Railways?

• (a) To replace all broad-gauge tracks with high-speed bullet train corridors.

• (b) To connect all North-Eastern capitals with double-decker electric trains.

• (c) To privatize the entire operation of freight trains across India.

• (d) To eliminate diesel traction to reduce carbon emissions and fuel import dependence.

Solution: D

• The Mission 100% Railway Electrification is a cornerstone of India’s commitment to net-zero emissions. Its primary goal is the elimination of diesel traction, which is both polluting and expensive. By shifting to electric traction, Indian Railways aims to significantly reduce carbon emissions and lower the national bill for imported fossil fuels.

• Electric trains are more energy-efficient and offer better acceleration, which improves the speed and reliability of both passenger and freight operations. As of 2025, approximately 2% of the broad-gauge network is electrified, making it the world’s largest such system.

• This mission also involves a massive scale-up of renewable energy (solar and wind) to power the trains, moving the railway toward becoming a “Green Railway.” It is an economic move as well, given that electric traction reduces operating costs by nearly 70% compared to diesel.

Solution: D

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India (ECI): Article 327 empowers State Legislatures to make laws regarding the preparation of electoral rolls for Parliament. Article 328 allows State Legislatures to legislate on elections to the State Legislature only if Parliament has not already made a law. The ECI’s control over elections extends to the offices of the President and Vice-President. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 327 empowers Parliament, not State Legislatures, to make laws regarding elections to both Parliament and State Legislatures, including the preparation of electoral rolls. Article 328 (Statement 2) provides a residuary power to State Legislatures to make laws regarding their own elections, but this is only applicable in areas where Parliament hasn’t already acted. Crucially, both Articles are subject to the provisions of the Constitution, meaning they cannot override the ECI’s ultimate authority under Article 324. Statement 3 is correct; the ECI’s mandate is broad, covering elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President. The ECI is a permanent, independent body designed to protect the electoral process from executive overreach, ensuring that elections remain free, fair, and credible, which is a basic feature of the Indian Constitution. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 327 empowers Parliament, not State Legislatures, to make laws regarding elections to both Parliament and State Legislatures, including the preparation of electoral rolls. Article 328 (Statement 2) provides a residuary power to State Legislatures to make laws regarding their own elections, but this is only applicable in areas where Parliament hasn’t already acted. Crucially, both Articles are subject to the provisions of the Constitution, meaning they cannot override the ECI’s ultimate authority under Article 324. Statement 3 is correct; the ECI’s mandate is broad, covering elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President. The ECI is a permanent, independent body designed to protect the electoral process from executive overreach, ensuring that elections remain free, fair, and credible, which is a basic feature of the Indian Constitution.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India (ECI):

• Article 327 empowers State Legislatures to make laws regarding the preparation of electoral rolls for Parliament.

• Article 328 allows State Legislatures to legislate on elections to the State Legislature only if Parliament has not already made a law.

• The ECI’s control over elections extends to the offices of the President and Vice-President.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 327 empowers Parliament, not State Legislatures, to make laws regarding elections to both Parliament and State Legislatures, including the preparation of electoral rolls.

• Article 328 (Statement 2) provides a residuary power to State Legislatures to make laws regarding their own elections, but this is only applicable in areas where Parliament hasn’t already acted. Crucially, both Articles are subject to the provisions of the Constitution, meaning they cannot override the ECI’s ultimate authority under Article 324.

• Statement 3 is correct; the ECI’s mandate is broad, covering elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President. The ECI is a permanent, independent body designed to protect the electoral process from executive overreach, ensuring that elections remain free, fair, and credible, which is a basic feature of the Indian Constitution.

Solution: B

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following members of the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC): Chief of Defence Staff Secretary, Defence Research and Development (DRDO) Minister of State for Defence (Raksha Rajya Mantri) Finance Minister Which of the above are members of the DAC? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: C The DAC comprises the Raksha Mantri (Chairman), the Raksha Rajya Mantris, the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS), and the three Service Chiefs. On the bureaucratic side, it includes the Defence Secretary, Secretary Defence Production, Secretary Defence R&D (who is also the head of DRDO), and Secretary Defence Finance. The finance minister is not a member of the DAC; financial oversight is represented by the Secretary of Defence Finance. This composition ensures that operational requirements, technical feasibility, and financial prudence are all considered in the procurement process. Incorrect Solution: C The DAC comprises the Raksha Mantri (Chairman), the Raksha Rajya Mantris, the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS), and the three Service Chiefs. On the bureaucratic side, it includes the Defence Secretary, Secretary Defence Production, Secretary Defence R&D (who is also the head of DRDO), and Secretary Defence Finance. The finance minister is not a member of the DAC; financial oversight is represented by the Secretary of Defence Finance. This composition ensures that operational requirements, technical feasibility, and financial prudence are all considered in the procurement process.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following members of the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):

• Chief of Defence Staff

• Secretary, Defence Research and Development (DRDO)

• Minister of State for Defence (Raksha Rajya Mantri)

• Finance Minister

Which of the above are members of the DAC?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: C

• The DAC comprises the Raksha Mantri (Chairman), the Raksha Rajya Mantris, the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS), and the three Service Chiefs. On the bureaucratic side, it includes the Defence Secretary, Secretary Defence Production, Secretary Defence R&D (who is also the head of DRDO), and Secretary Defence Finance.

• The finance minister is not a member of the DAC; financial oversight is represented by the Secretary of Defence Finance. This composition ensures that operational requirements, technical feasibility, and financial prudence are all considered in the procurement process.

Solution: C

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Secondary pollutants often exhibit regional and transboundary impacts, affecting air quality far from the original source of precursor emissions. Statement-II: Secondary aerosols can remain airborne for several days and travel hundreds of kilometres under specific meteorological conditions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Secondary pollutants (like Ozone or Secondary PM2.5) do not just stay where they are formed; they have a regional footprint. For instance, Delhi’s air is affected by emissions from coal-dominated states outside the National Capital Region. Statement-II is correct. Because these pollutants are fine particles or gases formed in the atmosphere, they can stay suspended for long periods and be carried by wind over vast distances. This mobility is precisely why they have transboundary impacts, making Statement-II a direct explanation of why Statement-I is true. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Secondary pollutants (like Ozone or Secondary PM2.5) do not just stay where they are formed; they have a regional footprint. For instance, Delhi’s air is affected by emissions from coal-dominated states outside the National Capital Region. Statement-II is correct. Because these pollutants are fine particles or gases formed in the atmosphere, they can stay suspended for long periods and be carried by wind over vast distances. This mobility is precisely why they have transboundary impacts, making Statement-II a direct explanation of why Statement-I is true.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Secondary pollutants often exhibit regional and transboundary impacts, affecting air quality far from the original source of precursor emissions.

Statement-II: Secondary aerosols can remain airborne for several days and travel hundreds of kilometres under specific meteorological conditions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. Secondary pollutants (like Ozone or Secondary PM2.5) do not just stay where they are formed; they have a regional footprint. For instance, Delhi’s air is affected by emissions from coal-dominated states outside the National Capital Region.

• Statement-II is correct. Because these pollutants are fine particles or gases formed in the atmosphere, they can stay suspended for long periods and be carried by wind over vast distances. This mobility is precisely why they have transboundary impacts, making Statement-II a direct explanation of why Statement-I is true.

Solution: A

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which of the following are physical or chemical characteristics of Copper? It is one of the few colored metals, naturally appearing reddish-brown. It is highly resistant to corrosion and oxidation. It is a brittle metal that cannot be easily drawn into wires. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. Most metals are silvery or grey; copper is unique for its reddish-brown Statement 2 is correct. Copper’s resistance to corrosion is one reason it is used in plumbing and outdoor construction (like roofing). Statement 3 is incorrect. Copper is highly ductile and malleable, meaning it can be easily drawn into thin wires and shaped, which is why it is the standard material for electrical wiring. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. Most metals are silvery or grey; copper is unique for its reddish-brown Statement 2 is correct. Copper’s resistance to corrosion is one reason it is used in plumbing and outdoor construction (like roofing). Statement 3 is incorrect. Copper is highly ductile and malleable, meaning it can be easily drawn into thin wires and shaped, which is why it is the standard material for electrical wiring.

#### 10. Question

Which of the following are physical or chemical characteristics of Copper?

• It is one of the few colored metals, naturally appearing reddish-brown.

• It is highly resistant to corrosion and oxidation.

• It is a brittle metal that cannot be easily drawn into wires.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1, 2 and 3

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. Most metals are silvery or grey; copper is unique for its reddish-brown

• Statement 2 is correct. Copper’s resistance to corrosion is one reason it is used in plumbing and outdoor construction (like roofing).

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Copper is highly ductile and malleable, meaning it can be easily drawn into thin wires and shaped, which is why it is the standard material for electrical wiring.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. Most metals are silvery or grey; copper is unique for its reddish-brown

• Statement 2 is correct. Copper’s resistance to corrosion is one reason it is used in plumbing and outdoor construction (like roofing).

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