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UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 7 May 2024

Kartavya Desk Staff

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The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about GST Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT): Under the GST laws, the GSTAT is a specialized appellate authority for resolving disputes. The appeals against the orders in first appeals issued by the Appellate Authorities under the Central and State GST Acts lie before the GST Appellate Tribunal, which is common under the Central as well as State GST Acts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Sanjaya Kumar Mishra, former Chief Justice of Jharkhand High Court, has been appointed as President of the GST Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT) for a four-year term by the Appointment Committee of Cabinet. Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal is the forum of second appeal in GST laws and the first common forum of dispute resolution between Centre and States. The appeals against the orders in first appeals issued by the Appellate Authorities under the Central and State GST Acts lie before the GST Appellate Tribunal, which is common under the Central as well as State GST Acts. Being a common forum, GST Appellate Tribunal will ensure that there is uniformity in redressal of disputes arising under GST, and therefore, in implementation of GST across the country. Chapter XVIII of the CGST Act provides for the Appeal and Review Mechanism for dispute resolution under the GST Regime. Section 109 of this Chapter under CGST Act empowers the Central Government to constitute, on the recommendation of Council, by notification, with effect from such date as may be specified therein, an Appellate Tribunal known as the Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal for hearing appeals against the orders passed by the Appellate Authority or the Revisional Authority. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/gst-appellate-tribunal-gstat/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Sanjaya Kumar Mishra, former Chief Justice of Jharkhand High Court, has been appointed as President of the GST Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT) for a four-year term by the Appointment Committee of Cabinet. Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal is the forum of second appeal in GST laws and the first common forum of dispute resolution between Centre and States. The appeals against the orders in first appeals issued by the Appellate Authorities under the Central and State GST Acts lie before the GST Appellate Tribunal, which is common under the Central as well as State GST Acts. Being a common forum, GST Appellate Tribunal will ensure that there is uniformity in redressal of disputes arising under GST, and therefore, in implementation of GST across the country. Chapter XVIII of the CGST Act provides for the Appeal and Review Mechanism for dispute resolution under the GST Regime. Section 109 of this Chapter under CGST Act empowers the Central Government to constitute, on the recommendation of Council, by notification, with effect from such date as may be specified therein, an Appellate Tribunal known as the Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal for hearing appeals against the orders passed by the Appellate Authority or the Revisional Authority. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/gst-appellate-tribunal-gstat/

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about GST Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT):

• Under the GST laws, the GSTAT is a specialized appellate authority for resolving disputes. The appeals against the orders in first appeals issued by the Appellate Authorities under the Central and State GST Acts lie before the GST Appellate Tribunal, which is common under the Central as well as State GST Acts.

• Under the GST laws, the GSTAT is a specialized appellate authority for resolving disputes.

• The appeals against the orders in first appeals issued by the Appellate Authorities under the Central and State GST Acts lie before the GST Appellate Tribunal, which is common under the Central as well as State GST Acts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Context: Sanjaya Kumar Mishra, former Chief Justice of Jharkhand High Court, has been appointed as President of the GST Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT) for a four-year term by the Appointment Committee of Cabinet.

• Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal is the forum of second appeal in GST laws and the first common forum of dispute resolution between Centre and States. The appeals against the orders in first appeals issued by the Appellate Authorities under the Central and State GST Acts lie before the GST Appellate Tribunal, which is common under the Central as well as State GST Acts. Being a common forum, GST Appellate Tribunal will ensure that there is uniformity in redressal of disputes arising under GST, and therefore, in implementation of GST across the country.

• Chapter XVIII of the CGST Act provides for the Appeal and Review Mechanism for dispute resolution under the GST Regime. Section 109 of this Chapter under CGST Act empowers the Central Government to constitute, on the recommendation of Council, by notification, with effect from such date as may be specified therein, an Appellate Tribunal known as the Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal for hearing appeals against the orders passed by the Appellate Authority or the Revisional Authority.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/gst-appellate-tribunal-gstat/

Explanation:

• Context: Sanjaya Kumar Mishra, former Chief Justice of Jharkhand High Court, has been appointed as President of the GST Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT) for a four-year term by the Appointment Committee of Cabinet.

• Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal is the forum of second appeal in GST laws and the first common forum of dispute resolution between Centre and States. The appeals against the orders in first appeals issued by the Appellate Authorities under the Central and State GST Acts lie before the GST Appellate Tribunal, which is common under the Central as well as State GST Acts. Being a common forum, GST Appellate Tribunal will ensure that there is uniformity in redressal of disputes arising under GST, and therefore, in implementation of GST across the country.

• Chapter XVIII of the CGST Act provides for the Appeal and Review Mechanism for dispute resolution under the GST Regime. Section 109 of this Chapter under CGST Act empowers the Central Government to constitute, on the recommendation of Council, by notification, with effect from such date as may be specified therein, an Appellate Tribunal known as the Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal for hearing appeals against the orders passed by the Appellate Authority or the Revisional Authority.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/gst-appellate-tribunal-gstat/

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation: It operates under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It is responsible for approving drugs, conducting clinical trials, setting drug standards, and ensuring quality control of imported drugs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) will now exclusively have the authority to issue manufacturing licenses for new drugs intended for export, removing this power from state governments. The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) operates under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, headquartered in New Delhi. It oversees regulatory functions under the Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and rules 1945. CDSCO is responsible for approving drugs, conducting clinical trials, setting drug standards, and ensuring quality control of imported drugs. It operates through 9 zonal offices across the country. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/central-drugs-standard-control-organisation-cdsco-3/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) will now exclusively have the authority to issue manufacturing licenses for new drugs intended for export, removing this power from state governments. The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) operates under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, headquartered in New Delhi. It oversees regulatory functions under the Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and rules 1945. CDSCO is responsible for approving drugs, conducting clinical trials, setting drug standards, and ensuring quality control of imported drugs. It operates through 9 zonal offices across the country. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/central-drugs-standard-control-organisation-cdsco-3/

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation:

• It operates under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It is responsible for approving drugs, conducting clinical trials, setting drug standards, and ensuring quality control of imported drugs.

• It operates under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

• It is responsible for approving drugs, conducting clinical trials, setting drug standards, and ensuring quality control of imported drugs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Context: The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) will now exclusively have the authority to issue manufacturing licenses for new drugs intended for export, removing this power from state governments.

• The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) operates under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, headquartered in New Delhi. It oversees regulatory functions under the Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and rules 1945. CDSCO is responsible for approving drugs, conducting clinical trials, setting drug standards, and ensuring quality control of imported drugs. It operates through 9 zonal offices across the country.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/central-drugs-standard-control-organisation-cdsco-3/

Explanation:

• Context: The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) will now exclusively have the authority to issue manufacturing licenses for new drugs intended for export, removing this power from state governments.

• The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) operates under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, headquartered in New Delhi. It oversees regulatory functions under the Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and rules 1945. CDSCO is responsible for approving drugs, conducting clinical trials, setting drug standards, and ensuring quality control of imported drugs. It operates through 9 zonal offices across the country.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/central-drugs-standard-control-organisation-cdsco-3/

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about the electromagnetic spectrum is correct? (a) Infrared radiation has shorter wavelengths than ultraviolet radiation. (b) X-rays have lower frequencies than microwaves. (c) Gamma rays have higher energy than visible light. (d) Radio waves travel faster through a vacuum compared to visible light. Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: The electromagnetic spectrum consists of various types of electromagnetic radiation arranged in order of increasing frequency and decreasing wavelength. Gamma rays are at the highest frequency end of the spectrum and possess the highest energy. Visible light, on the other hand, falls within a specific range of frequencies and has lower energy compared to gamma rays. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/290993/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: The electromagnetic spectrum consists of various types of electromagnetic radiation arranged in order of increasing frequency and decreasing wavelength. Gamma rays are at the highest frequency end of the spectrum and possess the highest energy. Visible light, on the other hand, falls within a specific range of frequencies and has lower energy compared to gamma rays. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/290993/

#### 3. Question

Which of the following statements about the electromagnetic spectrum is correct?

• (a) Infrared radiation has shorter wavelengths than ultraviolet radiation.

• (b) X-rays have lower frequencies than microwaves.

• (c) Gamma rays have higher energy than visible light.

• (d) Radio waves travel faster through a vacuum compared to visible light.

Explanation:

• The electromagnetic spectrum consists of various types of electromagnetic radiation arranged in order of increasing frequency and decreasing wavelength. Gamma rays are at the highest frequency end of the spectrum and possess the highest energy. Visible light, on the other hand, falls within a specific range of frequencies and has lower energy compared to gamma rays.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/290993/

Explanation:

• The electromagnetic spectrum consists of various types of electromagnetic radiation arranged in order of increasing frequency and decreasing wavelength. Gamma rays are at the highest frequency end of the spectrum and possess the highest energy. Visible light, on the other hand, falls within a specific range of frequencies and has lower energy compared to gamma rays.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/290993/

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points World Press Freedom Index is published by (a) International Press Institute (b) The Associated Press (c) UNESCO (d) Reporters Without Borders Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: World Press Freedom Index (WPFI) 2024 India ranked 159 out of 180 countries in the annual WPFI 2024, released by Reporters Without Borders (RSF), a Paris-based NGO advocating for freedom of information. Published on World Press Freedom Day (May 3) with the theme “A Press for the Planet: Journalism in the Face of the Environmental Crisis”. Top 3 ranked countries: Norway, Denmark, and Sweden Indicators: Based on five indicators: Political, Economic, Legislative, Social, and Security. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/reports-study-in-news-2/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: World Press Freedom Index (WPFI) 2024 India ranked 159 out of 180 countries in the annual WPFI 2024, released by Reporters Without Borders (RSF), a Paris-based NGO advocating for freedom of information. Published on World Press Freedom Day (May 3) with the theme “A Press for the Planet: Journalism in the Face of the Environmental Crisis”. Top 3 ranked countries: Norway, Denmark, and Sweden Indicators: Based on five indicators: Political, Economic, Legislative, Social, and Security. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/reports-study-in-news-2/

#### 4. Question

World Press Freedom Index is published by

• (a) International Press Institute

• (b) The Associated Press

• (c) UNESCO

• (d) Reporters Without Borders

Explanation: World Press Freedom Index (WPFI) 2024

• India ranked 159 out of 180 countries in the annual WPFI 2024, released by Reporters Without Borders (RSF), a Paris-based NGO advocating for freedom of information.

• Published on World Press Freedom Day (May 3) with the theme “A Press for the Planet: Journalism in the Face of the Environmental Crisis”. Top 3 ranked countries: Norway, Denmark, and Sweden

• Indicators: Based on five indicators: Political, Economic, Legislative, Social, and Security.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/reports-study-in-news-2/

Explanation: World Press Freedom Index (WPFI) 2024

• India ranked 159 out of 180 countries in the annual WPFI 2024, released by Reporters Without Borders (RSF), a Paris-based NGO advocating for freedom of information.

• Published on World Press Freedom Day (May 3) with the theme “A Press for the Planet: Journalism in the Face of the Environmental Crisis”. Top 3 ranked countries: Norway, Denmark, and Sweden

• Indicators: Based on five indicators: Political, Economic, Legislative, Social, and Security.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/reports-study-in-news-2/

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about oxytocin is true? (a) It is produced by the adrenal glands. (b) It is primarily involved in regulating blood pressure. (c) It is released during childbirth and breastfeeding. (d) It is a hormone that stimulates hunger. Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: About Oxytocin: Oxytocin is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in various physiological processes, including childbirth and breastfeeding. During labor, oxytocin helps stimulate uterine contractions, facilitating the birthing process. After childbirth, it promotes milk ejection by causing contraction of the cells surrounding the mammary glands, aiding in breastfeeding. However, its misuse of milch cattle to boost yield is harmful. Regulated under Section 26A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940, administering oxytocin is deemed animal cruelty and is punishable under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/use-of-oxytocin-on-cattle/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: About Oxytocin: Oxytocin is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in various physiological processes, including childbirth and breastfeeding. During labor, oxytocin helps stimulate uterine contractions, facilitating the birthing process. After childbirth, it promotes milk ejection by causing contraction of the cells surrounding the mammary glands, aiding in breastfeeding. However, its misuse of milch cattle to boost yield is harmful. Regulated under Section 26A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940, administering oxytocin is deemed animal cruelty and is punishable under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/use-of-oxytocin-on-cattle/

#### 5. Question

Which of the following statements about oxytocin is true?

• (a) It is produced by the adrenal glands.

• (b) It is primarily involved in regulating blood pressure.

• (c) It is released during childbirth and breastfeeding.

• (d) It is a hormone that stimulates hunger.

Explanation: About Oxytocin:

Oxytocin is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in various physiological processes, including childbirth and breastfeeding. During labor, oxytocin helps stimulate uterine contractions, facilitating the birthing process. After childbirth, it promotes milk ejection by causing contraction of the cells surrounding the mammary glands, aiding in breastfeeding.

• However, its misuse of milch cattle to boost yield is harmful. Regulated under Section 26A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940, administering oxytocin is deemed animal cruelty and is punishable under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/use-of-oxytocin-on-cattle/

Explanation: About Oxytocin:

Oxytocin is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in various physiological processes, including childbirth and breastfeeding. During labor, oxytocin helps stimulate uterine contractions, facilitating the birthing process. After childbirth, it promotes milk ejection by causing contraction of the cells surrounding the mammary glands, aiding in breastfeeding.

• However, its misuse of milch cattle to boost yield is harmful. Regulated under Section 26A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940, administering oxytocin is deemed animal cruelty and is punishable under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/use-of-oxytocin-on-cattle/

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Chemical Weapons Convention: It is an arms control treaty administered by the Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW). It aims to eliminate the production, stockpiling, and use of chemical weapons. Israel has signed but not ratified the agreement, while the State of Palestine has neither signed nor acceded to the treaty. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Only statements 1 and 2 are correct. Context: The U.S. accuses Russia of using the chemical compound chloropicrin against Ukrainian forces, violating the Chemical Weapons Convention. Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) Entered into force in 1997. It Prohibits the development, production, stockpiling, and use of chemical weapons. It Monitors the elimination of chemical weapons. India is a signatory and party, and it enacted the Chemical Weapons Convention Act, 2000. As of August 2022, 193 states have become parties to the CWC and accept its obligations. Israel has signed but not ratified the agreement, while three other UN member states (Egypt, North Korea and South Sudan) have neither signed nor acceded to the treaty. Most recently, the State of Palestine deposited its instrument of accession to the CWC on 17 May 2018. In September 2013, Syria acceded to the convention as part of an agreement for the destruction of Syria’s chemical weapons. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/chloropicrin/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Only statements 1 and 2 are correct. Context: The U.S. accuses Russia of using the chemical compound chloropicrin against Ukrainian forces, violating the Chemical Weapons Convention. Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) Entered into force in 1997. It Prohibits the development, production, stockpiling, and use of chemical weapons. It Monitors the elimination of chemical weapons. India is a signatory and party, and it enacted the Chemical Weapons Convention Act, 2000. As of August 2022, 193 states have become parties to the CWC and accept its obligations. Israel has signed but not ratified the agreement, while three other UN member states (Egypt, North Korea and South Sudan) have neither signed nor acceded to the treaty. Most recently, the State of Palestine deposited its instrument of accession to the CWC on 17 May 2018. In September 2013, Syria acceded to the convention as part of an agreement for the destruction of Syria’s chemical weapons. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/chloropicrin/

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about Chemical Weapons Convention:

• It is an arms control treaty administered by the Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW). It aims to eliminate the production, stockpiling, and use of chemical weapons. Israel has signed but not ratified the agreement, while the State of Palestine has neither signed nor acceded to the treaty.

• It is an arms control treaty administered by the Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW).

• It aims to eliminate the production, stockpiling, and use of chemical weapons.

• Israel has signed but not ratified the agreement, while the State of Palestine has neither signed nor acceded to the treaty.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

• Context: The U.S. accuses Russia of using the chemical compound chloropicrin against Ukrainian forces, violating the Chemical Weapons Convention.

• Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) Entered into force in 1997. It Prohibits the development, production, stockpiling, and use of chemical weapons. It Monitors the elimination of chemical weapons. India is a signatory and party, and it enacted the Chemical Weapons Convention Act, 2000.

• Entered into force in 1997. It Prohibits the development, production, stockpiling, and use of chemical weapons. It Monitors the elimination of chemical weapons.

• India is a signatory and party, and it enacted the Chemical Weapons Convention Act, 2000.

• As of August 2022, 193 states have become parties to the CWC and accept its obligations. Israel has signed but not ratified the agreement, while three other UN member states (Egypt, North Korea and South Sudan) have neither signed nor acceded to the treaty. Most recently, the State of Palestine deposited its instrument of accession to the CWC on 17 May 2018. In September 2013, Syria acceded to the convention as part of an agreement for the destruction of Syria’s chemical weapons.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/chloropicrin/

Explanation:

• Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

• Context: The U.S. accuses Russia of using the chemical compound chloropicrin against Ukrainian forces, violating the Chemical Weapons Convention.

• Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) Entered into force in 1997. It Prohibits the development, production, stockpiling, and use of chemical weapons. It Monitors the elimination of chemical weapons. India is a signatory and party, and it enacted the Chemical Weapons Convention Act, 2000.

• Entered into force in 1997. It Prohibits the development, production, stockpiling, and use of chemical weapons. It Monitors the elimination of chemical weapons.

• India is a signatory and party, and it enacted the Chemical Weapons Convention Act, 2000.

• As of August 2022, 193 states have become parties to the CWC and accept its obligations. Israel has signed but not ratified the agreement, while three other UN member states (Egypt, North Korea and South Sudan) have neither signed nor acceded to the treaty. Most recently, the State of Palestine deposited its instrument of accession to the CWC on 17 May 2018. In September 2013, Syria acceded to the convention as part of an agreement for the destruction of Syria’s chemical weapons.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/chloropicrin/

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about meteor showers is correct? (a) Meteor showers occur when comets pass close to Earth's orbit. (b) Meteor showers are caused by the collision of asteroids with Earth's atmosphere. (c) Meteor showers happen when Earth passes through the debris left behind by a comet or asteroid. (d) Meteor showers only occur during daytime. Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The Eta Aquariids meteor showers, active from April 16, will peak on May 5 and 6. This annual event, caused by debris from Halley’s Comet, peaks on May 5 and 6. It’s known for its rapid speed, producing long, glowing tails. Best observed from the Southern Hemisphere, around 30 to 40 meteors can be seen per hour during peak times. Meteor showers occur when Earth’s orbit intersects with the debris trail left behind by a comet or, less commonly, an asteroid. As Earth moves through this debris field, particles burn up in the atmosphere, creating streaks of light commonly known as “shooting stars.” Comets, with their dusty tails, are the primary source of meteor showers. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/eta-aquariid-meteor-shower/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The Eta Aquariids meteor showers, active from April 16, will peak on May 5 and 6. This annual event, caused by debris from Halley’s Comet, peaks on May 5 and 6. It’s known for its rapid speed, producing long, glowing tails. Best observed from the Southern Hemisphere, around 30 to 40 meteors can be seen per hour during peak times. Meteor showers occur when Earth’s orbit intersects with the debris trail left behind by a comet or, less commonly, an asteroid. As Earth moves through this debris field, particles burn up in the atmosphere, creating streaks of light commonly known as “shooting stars.” Comets, with their dusty tails, are the primary source of meteor showers. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/eta-aquariid-meteor-shower/

#### 7. Question

Which of the following statements about meteor showers is correct?

• (a) Meteor showers occur when comets pass close to Earth's orbit.

• (b) Meteor showers are caused by the collision of asteroids with Earth's atmosphere.

• (c) Meteor showers happen when Earth passes through the debris left behind by a comet or asteroid.

• (d) Meteor showers only occur during daytime.

Explanation:

• Context: The Eta Aquariids meteor showers, active from April 16, will peak on May 5 and 6. This annual event, caused by debris from Halley’s Comet, peaks on May 5 and 6. It’s known for its rapid speed, producing long, glowing tails. Best observed from the Southern Hemisphere, around 30 to 40 meteors can be seen per hour during peak times.

• This annual event, caused by debris from Halley’s Comet, peaks on May 5 and 6. It’s known for its rapid speed, producing long, glowing tails. Best observed from the Southern Hemisphere, around 30 to 40 meteors can be seen per hour during peak times.

• Meteor showers occur when Earth’s orbit intersects with the debris trail left behind by a comet or, less commonly, an asteroid. As Earth moves through this debris field, particles burn up in the atmosphere, creating streaks of light commonly known as “shooting stars.” Comets, with their dusty tails, are the primary source of meteor showers.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/eta-aquariid-meteor-shower/

Explanation:

• Context: The Eta Aquariids meteor showers, active from April 16, will peak on May 5 and 6. This annual event, caused by debris from Halley’s Comet, peaks on May 5 and 6. It’s known for its rapid speed, producing long, glowing tails. Best observed from the Southern Hemisphere, around 30 to 40 meteors can be seen per hour during peak times.

• This annual event, caused by debris from Halley’s Comet, peaks on May 5 and 6. It’s known for its rapid speed, producing long, glowing tails. Best observed from the Southern Hemisphere, around 30 to 40 meteors can be seen per hour during peak times.

• Meteor showers occur when Earth’s orbit intersects with the debris trail left behind by a comet or, less commonly, an asteroid. As Earth moves through this debris field, particles burn up in the atmosphere, creating streaks of light commonly known as “shooting stars.” Comets, with their dusty tails, are the primary source of meteor showers.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/eta-aquariid-meteor-shower/

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about tardigrades is true? (a) Tardigrades are exclusively aquatic organisms found only in freshwater environments. (b) Tardigrades are extremophiles capable of surviving extreme temperatures, pressures, and radiation levels. (c) Tardigrades are photosynthetic organisms that derive their energy from sunlight. (d) Tardigrades belong to the phylum Cnidaria and possess stinging cells for prey capture Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: A new marine tardigrade species discovered off the southeast coast of Tamil Nadu has been named Batillipes chandrayaani after the Chandrayaan-3 moon mission. It is the third marine tardigrade species scientifically described from Indian waters. It features a trapezoid-shaped head and four pairs of legs with sharp-tipped sensory spines. They are near-microscopic aquatic animals with plump, segmented bodies and flattened heads. They are renowned for their resilience and are among the hardest animals (surviving mass extinctions and environmental extremes), with marine tardigrades comprising 17% of all known tardigrade species. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/batillipes-chandrayaani/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: A new marine tardigrade species discovered off the southeast coast of Tamil Nadu has been named Batillipes chandrayaani after the Chandrayaan-3 moon mission. It is the third marine tardigrade species scientifically described from Indian waters. It features a trapezoid-shaped head and four pairs of legs with sharp-tipped sensory spines. They are near-microscopic aquatic animals with plump, segmented bodies and flattened heads. They are renowned for their resilience and are among the hardest animals (surviving mass extinctions and environmental extremes), with marine tardigrades comprising 17% of all known tardigrade species. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/batillipes-chandrayaani/

#### 8. Question

Which of the following statements about tardigrades is true?

• (a) Tardigrades are exclusively aquatic organisms found only in freshwater environments.

• (b) Tardigrades are extremophiles capable of surviving extreme temperatures, pressures, and radiation levels.

• (c) Tardigrades are photosynthetic organisms that derive their energy from sunlight.

• (d) Tardigrades belong to the phylum Cnidaria and possess stinging cells for prey capture

Explanation:

• Context: A new marine tardigrade species discovered off the southeast coast of Tamil Nadu has been named Batillipes chandrayaani after the Chandrayaan-3 moon mission.

• It is the third marine tardigrade species scientifically described from Indian waters. It features a trapezoid-shaped head and four pairs of legs with sharp-tipped sensory spines.

• They are near-microscopic aquatic animals with plump, segmented bodies and flattened heads. They are renowned for their resilience and are among the hardest animals (surviving mass extinctions and environmental extremes), with marine tardigrades comprising 17% of all known tardigrade species.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/batillipes-chandrayaani/

Explanation:

• Context: A new marine tardigrade species discovered off the southeast coast of Tamil Nadu has been named Batillipes chandrayaani after the Chandrayaan-3 moon mission.

• It is the third marine tardigrade species scientifically described from Indian waters. It features a trapezoid-shaped head and four pairs of legs with sharp-tipped sensory spines.

• They are near-microscopic aquatic animals with plump, segmented bodies and flattened heads. They are renowned for their resilience and are among the hardest animals (surviving mass extinctions and environmental extremes), with marine tardigrades comprising 17% of all known tardigrade species.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/batillipes-chandrayaani/

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Mount Ruang: It is located in the Andes mountain range. It is an active volcano situated in Indonesia. It is the highest peak in Africa. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 Only (d) None Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Indonesia’s Mount Ruang volcano recently erupted, triggering the highest level of alert. Indonesia is home to many volcanoes due to its location along the Pacific Ring of Fire, where several tectonic plates meet and interact. This convergence creates intense geological activity, including the subduction of oceanic plates beneath continental plates, which leads to volcanic eruptions. Indonesia has approximately 130 active volcanoes. Mount Ruang is a stratovolcano situated in Indonesia’s Sulawesi Islands. Other notable volcanoes in Indonesia include Krakatau, Merapi, and Semeru. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/mount-ruang-indonesia/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Indonesia’s Mount Ruang volcano recently erupted, triggering the highest level of alert. Indonesia is home to many volcanoes due to its location along the Pacific Ring of Fire, where several tectonic plates meet and interact. This convergence creates intense geological activity, including the subduction of oceanic plates beneath continental plates, which leads to volcanic eruptions. Indonesia has approximately 130 active volcanoes. Mount Ruang is a stratovolcano situated in Indonesia’s Sulawesi Islands. Other notable volcanoes in Indonesia include Krakatau, Merapi, and Semeru. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/mount-ruang-indonesia/

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about Mount Ruang:

• It is located in the Andes mountain range. It is an active volcano situated in Indonesia. It is the highest peak in Africa.

• It is located in the Andes mountain range.

• It is an active volcano situated in Indonesia.

• It is the highest peak in Africa.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 2 Only

Explanation:

• Context: Indonesia’s Mount Ruang volcano recently erupted, triggering the highest level of alert.

• Indonesia is home to many volcanoes due to its location along the Pacific Ring of Fire, where several tectonic plates meet and interact. This convergence creates intense geological activity, including the subduction of oceanic plates beneath continental plates, which leads to volcanic eruptions. Indonesia has approximately 130 active volcanoes.

• Mount Ruang is a stratovolcano situated in Indonesia’s Sulawesi Islands. Other notable volcanoes in Indonesia include Krakatau, Merapi, and Semeru.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/mount-ruang-indonesia/

Explanation:

• Context: Indonesia’s Mount Ruang volcano recently erupted, triggering the highest level of alert.

• Indonesia is home to many volcanoes due to its location along the Pacific Ring of Fire, where several tectonic plates meet and interact. This convergence creates intense geological activity, including the subduction of oceanic plates beneath continental plates, which leads to volcanic eruptions. Indonesia has approximately 130 active volcanoes.

• Mount Ruang is a stratovolcano situated in Indonesia’s Sulawesi Islands. Other notable volcanoes in Indonesia include Krakatau, Merapi, and Semeru.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/mount-ruang-indonesia/

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following volcanoes: Krakatau Merapi Semeru How many of the above volcanoes are situated in Indonesia? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Indonesia’s Mount Ruang volcano recently erupted, triggering the highest level of alert. Mount Ruang is a stratovolcano situated in Indonesia’s Sulawesi Islands. Other notable volcanoes in Indonesia include Krakatau, Merapi, and Semeru. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/mount-ruang-indonesia/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Indonesia’s Mount Ruang volcano recently erupted, triggering the highest level of alert. Mount Ruang is a stratovolcano situated in Indonesia’s Sulawesi Islands. Other notable volcanoes in Indonesia include Krakatau, Merapi, and Semeru. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/mount-ruang-indonesia/

#### 10. Question

Consider the following volcanoes:

• Krakatau Merapi Semeru

How many of the above volcanoes are situated in Indonesia?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Context: Indonesia’s Mount Ruang volcano recently erupted, triggering the highest level of alert.

• Mount Ruang is a stratovolcano situated in Indonesia’s Sulawesi Islands. Other notable volcanoes in Indonesia include Krakatau, Merapi, and Semeru.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/mount-ruang-indonesia/

Explanation:

• Context: Indonesia’s Mount Ruang volcano recently erupted, triggering the highest level of alert.

• Mount Ruang is a stratovolcano situated in Indonesia’s Sulawesi Islands. Other notable volcanoes in Indonesia include Krakatau, Merapi, and Semeru.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/mount-ruang-indonesia/

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Articles in our archive published before our editorial team was expanded. Legacy content is periodically reviewed and updated by our current editors.

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