UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 7 March 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Raisina Dialogue 2026, consider the following statements: It is a multilateral conference hosted annually by the Ministry of External Affairs in partnership with the Observer Research Foundation. The 11th edition of the dialogue was held under the theme ‘Saṁskāra – Assertion, Accommodation, Advancement’. One of its thematic pillars, ‘Trade in the Time of Tariffs’, focuses specifically on the recovery and reinvention of global supply chains. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D The Raisina Dialogue has emerged as India’s premier conference on geopolitics and geo-economics since its inception in 2016. Statement 1 is correct as it is organized by the Observer Research Foundation (ORF) in collaboration with the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA). It serves as a flagship platform for discussing global strategic issues, similar to the Shangri-La Dialogue. Statement 2 is correct; the 2026 theme, “Saṁskāra – Assertion, Accommodation, Advancement”, reflects India’s vision of balancing national interests with global cooperation. Statement 3 is also correct as the 11th edition identified six thematic pillars, including “Trade in the Time of Tariffs”, which addresses the challenges of protectionism and the need for resilient economic recovery. The dialogue emphasizes India’s role as a “convening power”, bringing together diverse stakeholders like heads of state, military commanders, and tech leaders. The 2026 event saw participation from 110 countries, highlighting its growing global footprint. The conference is named after Raisina Hill, the seat of the Indian government, symbolizing its status as a core diplomatic exercise. Incorrect Solution: D The Raisina Dialogue has emerged as India’s premier conference on geopolitics and geo-economics since its inception in 2016. Statement 1 is correct as it is organized by the Observer Research Foundation (ORF) in collaboration with the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA). It serves as a flagship platform for discussing global strategic issues, similar to the Shangri-La Dialogue. Statement 2 is correct; the 2026 theme, “Saṁskāra – Assertion, Accommodation, Advancement”, reflects India’s vision of balancing national interests with global cooperation. Statement 3 is also correct as the 11th edition identified six thematic pillars, including “Trade in the Time of Tariffs”, which addresses the challenges of protectionism and the need for resilient economic recovery. The dialogue emphasizes India’s role as a “convening power”, bringing together diverse stakeholders like heads of state, military commanders, and tech leaders. The 2026 event saw participation from 110 countries, highlighting its growing global footprint. The conference is named after Raisina Hill, the seat of the Indian government, symbolizing its status as a core diplomatic exercise.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Raisina Dialogue 2026, consider the following statements:

• It is a multilateral conference hosted annually by the Ministry of External Affairs in partnership with the Observer Research Foundation.

• The 11th edition of the dialogue was held under the theme ‘Saṁskāra – Assertion, Accommodation, Advancement’.

• One of its thematic pillars, ‘Trade in the Time of Tariffs’, focuses specifically on the recovery and reinvention of global supply chains.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• The Raisina Dialogue has emerged as India’s premier conference on geopolitics and geo-economics since its inception in 2016.

• Statement 1 is correct as it is organized by the Observer Research Foundation (ORF) in collaboration with the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA). It serves as a flagship platform for discussing global strategic issues, similar to the Shangri-La Dialogue.

• Statement 2 is correct; the 2026 theme, “Saṁskāra – Assertion, Accommodation, Advancement”, reflects India’s vision of balancing national interests with global cooperation.

• Statement 3 is also correct as the 11th edition identified six thematic pillars, including “Trade in the Time of Tariffs”, which addresses the challenges of protectionism and the need for resilient economic recovery. The dialogue emphasizes India’s role as a “convening power”, bringing together diverse stakeholders like heads of state, military commanders, and tech leaders.

• The 2026 event saw participation from 110 countries, highlighting its growing global footprint. The conference is named after Raisina Hill, the seat of the Indian government, symbolizing its status as a core diplomatic exercise.

Solution: D

• The Raisina Dialogue has emerged as India’s premier conference on geopolitics and geo-economics since its inception in 2016.

• Statement 2 is correct; the 2026 theme, “Saṁskāra – Assertion, Accommodation, Advancement”, reflects India’s vision of balancing national interests with global cooperation.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points In the context of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Governor of a State can be appointed as the Governor of an adjacent Union Territory or another State simultaneously. Statement-II: The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 facilitates the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct as it describes a common constitutional practice where a single individual holds the gubernatorial office for multiple jurisdictions. Statement-II is also correct and provides the legal basis for this arrangement. Originally, Article 153 of the Constitution provided for a Governor for each state. However, the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956, inserted a provision that allows the President to appoint one person as the Governor of two or more states. This is often done for administrative convenience or during transitional periods. The Governor acts as the Constitutional Head of the state and a vital link between the Center and the States. While the Governor is appointed by the President under Article 155, they hold office during the pleasure of the President (Article 156). Although the Governor is the executive head, they generally act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. However, in the capacity of an Administrator of a Union Territory, they may act independently of the state council. This dual role ensures federal stability and coordination between different administrative units. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct as it describes a common constitutional practice where a single individual holds the gubernatorial office for multiple jurisdictions. Statement-II is also correct and provides the legal basis for this arrangement. Originally, Article 153 of the Constitution provided for a Governor for each state. However, the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956, inserted a provision that allows the President to appoint one person as the Governor of two or more states. This is often done for administrative convenience or during transitional periods. The Governor acts as the Constitutional Head of the state and a vital link between the Center and the States. While the Governor is appointed by the President under Article 155, they hold office during the pleasure of the President (Article 156). Although the Governor is the executive head, they generally act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. However, in the capacity of an Administrator of a Union Territory, they may act independently of the state council. This dual role ensures federal stability and coordination between different administrative units.

#### 2. Question

In the context of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Governor of a State can be appointed as the Governor of an adjacent Union Territory or another State simultaneously.

Statement-II: The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 facilitates the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct as it describes a common constitutional practice where a single individual holds the gubernatorial office for multiple jurisdictions.

• Statement-II is also correct and provides the legal basis for this arrangement. Originally, Article 153 of the Constitution provided for a Governor for each state. However, the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956, inserted a provision that allows the President to appoint one person as the Governor of two or more states. This is often done for administrative convenience or during transitional periods.

• The Governor acts as the Constitutional Head of the state and a vital link between the Center and the States. While the Governor is appointed by the President under Article 155, they hold office during the pleasure of the President (Article 156). Although the Governor is the executive head, they generally act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.

• However, in the capacity of an Administrator of a Union Territory, they may act independently of the state council. This dual role ensures federal stability and coordination between different administrative units.

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct as it describes a common constitutional practice where a single individual holds the gubernatorial office for multiple jurisdictions.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which of the following describes the ‘Gravity Bomb’, recently mentioned in the news? (a) A self-propelled precision missile that uses internal engines to reach targets. (b) An unpowered munition that relies on the aircraft's speed and gravity for its trajectory. (c) A specialized underwater explosive used for degrading naval air defenses. (d) A high-altitude interceptor designed to neutralize satellite-based communication. Correct Solution: B A gravity bomb, often termed a “dumb bomb” or free-fall bomb, is a munition that lacks an internal propulsion system. Statement (b) is the correct description. Unlike missiles (like the Tomahawk), which have engines to sustain flight, a gravity bomb follows a ballistic trajectory determined by the release altitude, speed of the carrier aircraft, and the force of gravity. In modern warfare, these are often converted into “smart” weapons using a Joint Direct Attack Munition (JDAM) The JDAM adds a GPS-guided tail section with steerable fins, allowing the bomb to glide toward precise coordinates. The U.S. recently shifted toward using these (Mark 80 series) against targets where air defenses are degraded, as they are significantly more cost-effective than missiles. For instance, a JDAM-equipped bomb costs approximately $25,000, whereas a cruise missile can cost millions. These bombs come in various weights, such as the 500-lb Mk 82 for soft targets and the 2,000-lb Mk 84 for “bunker-busting” operations. Their versatility and low cost allow for high-volume bombardment once air supremacy is established by the attacking force. Incorrect Solution: B A gravity bomb, often termed a “dumb bomb” or free-fall bomb, is a munition that lacks an internal propulsion system. Statement (b) is the correct description. Unlike missiles (like the Tomahawk), which have engines to sustain flight, a gravity bomb follows a ballistic trajectory determined by the release altitude, speed of the carrier aircraft, and the force of gravity. In modern warfare, these are often converted into “smart” weapons using a Joint Direct Attack Munition (JDAM) The JDAM adds a GPS-guided tail section with steerable fins, allowing the bomb to glide toward precise coordinates. The U.S. recently shifted toward using these (Mark 80 series) against targets where air defenses are degraded, as they are significantly more cost-effective than missiles. For instance, a JDAM-equipped bomb costs approximately $25,000, whereas a cruise missile can cost millions. These bombs come in various weights, such as the 500-lb Mk 82 for soft targets and the 2,000-lb Mk 84 for “bunker-busting” operations. Their versatility and low cost allow for high-volume bombardment once air supremacy is established by the attacking force.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following describes the ‘Gravity Bomb’, recently mentioned in the news?

• (a) A self-propelled precision missile that uses internal engines to reach targets.

• (b) An unpowered munition that relies on the aircraft's speed and gravity for its trajectory.

• (c) A specialized underwater explosive used for degrading naval air defenses.

• (d) A high-altitude interceptor designed to neutralize satellite-based communication.

Solution: B

• A gravity bomb, often termed a “dumb bomb” or free-fall bomb, is a munition that lacks an internal propulsion system.

• Statement (b) is the correct description. Unlike missiles (like the Tomahawk), which have engines to sustain flight, a gravity bomb follows a ballistic trajectory determined by the release altitude, speed of the carrier aircraft, and the force of gravity. In modern warfare, these are often converted into “smart” weapons using a Joint Direct Attack Munition (JDAM)

• The JDAM adds a GPS-guided tail section with steerable fins, allowing the bomb to glide toward precise coordinates. The U.S. recently shifted toward using these (Mark 80 series) against targets where air defenses are degraded, as they are significantly more cost-effective than missiles. For instance, a JDAM-equipped bomb costs approximately $25,000, whereas a cruise missile can cost millions.

• These bombs come in various weights, such as the 500-lb Mk 82 for soft targets and the 2,000-lb Mk 84 for “bunker-busting” operations. Their versatility and low cost allow for high-volume bombardment once air supremacy is established by the attacking force.

Solution: B

• A gravity bomb, often termed a “dumb bomb” or free-fall bomb, is a munition that lacks an internal propulsion system.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Striped Hyena (Hyaena hyaena): It is the only species of the Hyaenidae family found in the Indian subcontinent and is primarily nocturnal. It is currently listed as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. In India, it is granted the highest level of legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct; the Striped Hyena is the only species of the Hyaenidae family resident in India. It is a nocturnal carnivore, active primarily at night, which makes it an elusive inhabitant of arid and semi-arid landscapes. Statement 2 is incorrect because its global status on the IUCN Red List is ‘Near Threatened’, though it is considered ‘Vulnerable’ in specific regions like the Mediterranean. Statement 3 is correct as the Indian government has placed it under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, ensuring stringent legal safeguards against hunting and habitat destruction. Ecologically, these animals are vital “sanitary workers” or scavengers, consuming carrion and preventing the spread of diseases. Unlike the Spotted Hyena of Africa, the Striped Hyena is generally solitary or lives in very small family groups and does not possess the characteristic “laughing” vocalization. They are known for their powerful jaws capable of crushing bone. Recently, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan proposed its inclusion in Appendix I and II of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) to enhance international conservation efforts for their transboundary movements. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct; the Striped Hyena is the only species of the Hyaenidae family resident in India. It is a nocturnal carnivore, active primarily at night, which makes it an elusive inhabitant of arid and semi-arid landscapes. Statement 2 is incorrect because its global status on the IUCN Red List is ‘Near Threatened’, though it is considered ‘Vulnerable’ in specific regions like the Mediterranean. Statement 3 is correct as the Indian government has placed it under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, ensuring stringent legal safeguards against hunting and habitat destruction. Ecologically, these animals are vital “sanitary workers” or scavengers, consuming carrion and preventing the spread of diseases. Unlike the Spotted Hyena of Africa, the Striped Hyena is generally solitary or lives in very small family groups and does not possess the characteristic “laughing” vocalization. They are known for their powerful jaws capable of crushing bone. Recently, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan proposed its inclusion in Appendix I and II of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) to enhance international conservation efforts for their transboundary movements.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Striped Hyena (Hyaena hyaena):

• It is the only species of the Hyaenidae family found in the Indian subcontinent and is primarily nocturnal.

• It is currently listed as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.

• In India, it is granted the highest level of legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct; the Striped Hyena is the only species of the Hyaenidae family resident in India. It is a nocturnal carnivore, active primarily at night, which makes it an elusive inhabitant of arid and semi-arid landscapes.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because its global status on the IUCN Red List is ‘Near Threatened’, though it is considered ‘Vulnerable’ in specific regions like the Mediterranean.

• Statement 3 is correct as the Indian government has placed it under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, ensuring stringent legal safeguards against hunting and habitat destruction. Ecologically, these animals are vital “sanitary workers” or scavengers, consuming carrion and preventing the spread of diseases.

• Unlike the Spotted Hyena of Africa, the Striped Hyena is generally solitary or lives in very small family groups and does not possess the characteristic “laughing” vocalization. They are known for their powerful jaws capable of crushing bone.

• Recently, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan proposed its inclusion in Appendix I and II of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) to enhance international conservation efforts for their transboundary movements.

Solution: D

• Statement 2 is incorrect because its global status on the IUCN Red List is ‘Near Threatened’, though it is considered ‘Vulnerable’ in specific regions like the Mediterranean.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Governor of a state has the power to reserve certain bills passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President. Statement II: The Governor must reserve any bill that endangers the position of the State High Court. Statement III: The Governor’s power to reserve bills is purely discretionary and cannot be questioned in a court of law. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I Correct Solution: C Statement I is a correct factual statement regarding the veto powers of the Governor. Statement II is also correct; under the Constitution, the Governor is obligated (mandatory reservation) to reserve a bill for the President’s consideration if it threatens the independence or constitutional position of the State High Court. This serves as an explanation for Statement I by providing a specific, mandatory instance of that power. However, Statement III is incorrect. While the Governor has discretionary powers under Article 200, these powers are not absolute or beyond judicial review if exercised mala fide or on irrelevant grounds. The Supreme Court has clarified in various judgments that the Governor should act as a constitutional guide and not use the power of reservation to unnecessarily obstruct state legislation. Other grounds for reservation include bills that are ultra vires to the Constitution, opposed to Directive Principles of State Policy, or against the larger national interest. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is a correct factual statement regarding the veto powers of the Governor. Statement II is also correct; under the Constitution, the Governor is obligated (mandatory reservation) to reserve a bill for the President’s consideration if it threatens the independence or constitutional position of the State High Court. This serves as an explanation for Statement I by providing a specific, mandatory instance of that power. However, Statement III is incorrect. While the Governor has discretionary powers under Article 200, these powers are not absolute or beyond judicial review if exercised mala fide or on irrelevant grounds. The Supreme Court has clarified in various judgments that the Governor should act as a constitutional guide and not use the power of reservation to unnecessarily obstruct state legislation. Other grounds for reservation include bills that are ultra vires to the Constitution, opposed to Directive Principles of State Policy, or against the larger national interest.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Governor of a state has the power to reserve certain bills passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President.

Statement II: The Governor must reserve any bill that endangers the position of the State High Court.

Statement III: The Governor’s power to reserve bills is purely discretionary and cannot be questioned in a court of law.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Solution: C

• Statement I is a correct factual statement regarding the veto powers of the Governor.

• Statement II is also correct; under the Constitution, the Governor is obligated (mandatory reservation) to reserve a bill for the President’s consideration if it threatens the independence or constitutional position of the State High Court. This serves as an explanation for Statement I by providing a specific, mandatory instance of that power.

• However, Statement III is incorrect. While the Governor has discretionary powers under Article 200, these powers are not absolute or beyond judicial review if exercised mala fide or on irrelevant grounds.

• The Supreme Court has clarified in various judgments that the Governor should act as a constitutional guide and not use the power of reservation to unnecessarily obstruct state legislation. Other grounds for reservation include bills that are ultra vires to the Constitution, opposed to Directive Principles of State Policy, or against the larger national interest.

Solution: C

• Statement I is a correct factual statement regarding the veto powers of the Governor.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Census 2027: It marks the first instance where the Indian census will be conducted through a entirely digital process using mobile applications. The ‘Self-Enumeration’ facility allows citizens to fill out their details in any of the 22 languages listed in the Eighth Schedule. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct because Census 2027 is officially designated as India’s first fully digital census, moving away from traditional paper-based methods to secure mobile apps and web portals. This transition aims to ensure real-time data processing and higher accuracy. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while self-enumeration is a major feature, the portal currently supports 16 languages, not all 22 scheduled languages. This facility allows residents to provide information before the enumerator’s visit, enhancing privacy and convenience. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct because Census 2027 is officially designated as India’s first fully digital census, moving away from traditional paper-based methods to secure mobile apps and web portals. This transition aims to ensure real-time data processing and higher accuracy. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while self-enumeration is a major feature, the portal currently supports 16 languages, not all 22 scheduled languages. This facility allows residents to provide information before the enumerator’s visit, enhancing privacy and convenience.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Census 2027:

• It marks the first instance where the Indian census will be conducted through a entirely digital process using mobile applications.

• The ‘Self-Enumeration’ facility allows citizens to fill out their details in any of the 22 languages listed in the Eighth Schedule.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct because Census 2027 is officially designated as India’s first fully digital census, moving away from traditional paper-based methods to secure mobile apps and web portals. This transition aims to ensure real-time data processing and higher accuracy.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because, while self-enumeration is a major feature, the portal currently supports 16 languages, not all 22 scheduled languages. This facility allows residents to provide information before the enumerator’s visit, enhancing privacy and convenience.

Solution: A

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points The Kurds are widely described as: (a) The smallest ethnic group in Europe. (b) The world's largest stateless ethnic group. (c) A nomadic tribe found only in the Sahara Desert. (d) The primary ruling class of modern-day Turkey. Correct Solution: B With a population of 30 to 40 million, the Kurds are considered the largest ethnic group in the world that does not have its own independent sovereign state. Their traditional homeland, Kurdistan, is split across four countries: Turkey, Syria, Iraq, and Iran. While they have achieved some autonomy in Iraq (Kurdistan Regional Government), they remain a minority in the other nations, often leading to complex geopolitical struggles and demands for self-determination. Incorrect Solution: B With a population of 30 to 40 million, the Kurds are considered the largest ethnic group in the world that does not have its own independent sovereign state. Their traditional homeland, Kurdistan, is split across four countries: Turkey, Syria, Iraq, and Iran. While they have achieved some autonomy in Iraq (Kurdistan Regional Government), they remain a minority in the other nations, often leading to complex geopolitical struggles and demands for self-determination.

#### 7. Question

The Kurds are widely described as:

• (a) The smallest ethnic group in Europe.

• (b) The world's largest stateless ethnic group.

• (c) A nomadic tribe found only in the Sahara Desert.

• (d) The primary ruling class of modern-day Turkey.

Solution: B

• With a population of 30 to 40 million, the Kurds are considered the largest ethnic group in the world that does not have its own independent sovereign state. Their traditional homeland, Kurdistan, is split across four countries: Turkey, Syria, Iraq, and Iran. While they have achieved some autonomy in Iraq (Kurdistan Regional Government), they remain a minority in the other nations, often leading to complex geopolitical struggles and demands for self-determination.

Solution: B

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following initiatives under the New Delhi Declaration 2026 with their nature and objectives: Column 1 (Initiative) Column 2 (Objective) Column 3 (Nature) A. Global AI Impact Commons 1. Share/replicate successful AI solutions X. Voluntary Collaborative Platform B. Trusted AI Commons 2. Repository of benchmarks/best practices Y. Non-binding Collaborative Repository C. Democratic Diffusion Charter 3. Access to foundational AI resources Z. Sovereign-based Policy Framework How many of the above are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C A is correctly matched. The Global AI Impact Commons (A) is a voluntary platform (X) whose main goal is the replication of proven AI use-cases (1) to maximize social impact across different regions. B is correctly matched. The Trusted AI Commons (B) acts as a repository (Y) for benchmarks and technical resources (2). It focuses on the “how-to” of building secure AI systems that can be adapted to specific national contexts. C is correctly matched. The Democratic Diffusion of AI Charter (C) is a policy framework (Z) that emphasizes affordable access to foundational resources (3) like compute and data. It addresses the “AI Divide” by ensuring that the underlying infrastructure of the AI revolution is not monopolized. The declaration balances these global collaborations with a sovereignty-based approach, meaning that while countries share tools and resources, they maintain the right to regulate AI according to their own national laws. This multi-layered governance model is designed to be inclusive and equitable, reflecting India’s leadership in AI diplomacy under the “AI for All” banner. Incorrect Solution: C A is correctly matched. The Global AI Impact Commons (A) is a voluntary platform (X) whose main goal is the replication of proven AI use-cases (1) to maximize social impact across different regions. B is correctly matched. The Trusted AI Commons (B) acts as a repository (Y) for benchmarks and technical resources (2). It focuses on the “how-to” of building secure AI systems that can be adapted to specific national contexts. C is correctly matched. The Democratic Diffusion of AI Charter (C) is a policy framework (Z) that emphasizes affordable access to foundational resources (3) like compute and data. It addresses the “AI Divide” by ensuring that the underlying infrastructure of the AI revolution is not monopolized. The declaration balances these global collaborations with a sovereignty-based approach, meaning that while countries share tools and resources, they maintain the right to regulate AI according to their own national laws. This multi-layered governance model is designed to be inclusive and equitable, reflecting India’s leadership in AI diplomacy under the “AI for All” banner.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following initiatives under the New Delhi Declaration 2026 with their nature and objectives:

Column 1 (Initiative) | Column 2 (Objective) | Column 3 (Nature)

A. Global AI Impact Commons | 1. Share/replicate successful AI solutions | X. Voluntary Collaborative Platform

B. Trusted AI Commons | 2. Repository of benchmarks/best practices | Y. Non-binding Collaborative Repository

C. Democratic Diffusion Charter | 3. Access to foundational AI resources | Z. Sovereign-based Policy Framework

How many of the above are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• A is correctly matched. The Global AI Impact Commons (A) is a voluntary platform (X) whose main goal is the replication of proven AI use-cases (1) to maximize social impact across different regions.

• B is correctly matched. The Trusted AI Commons (B) acts as a repository (Y) for benchmarks and technical resources (2). It focuses on the “how-to” of building secure AI systems that can be adapted to specific national contexts.

• C is correctly matched. The Democratic Diffusion of AI Charter (C) is a policy framework (Z) that emphasizes affordable access to foundational resources (3) like compute and data. It addresses the “AI Divide” by ensuring that the underlying infrastructure of the AI revolution is not monopolized.

• The declaration balances these global collaborations with a sovereignty-based approach, meaning that while countries share tools and resources, they maintain the right to regulate AI according to their own national laws. This multi-layered governance model is designed to be inclusive and equitable, reflecting India’s leadership in AI diplomacy under the “AI for All” banner.

Solution: C

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points In the context of Carbon Capture and Utilisation (CCU), the process of “Biological Conversion” most commonly involves the use of which of the following? (a) High-pressure injection into saline aquifers. (b) Chemical synthesis of methanol from flue gases. (c) Cultivation of algae or bacteria to produce biomass. (d) Reaction of CO2 with calcium to form solid bricks. Correct Solution: C Biological conversion in CCU specifically refers to using biological agents—most notably algae or certain bacteria—to “consume” CO2 through photosynthesis or other metabolic pathways. This process produces biomass, which can then be processed into biofuels, animal feed, or fertilizers. Incorrect Solution: C Biological conversion in CCU specifically refers to using biological agents—most notably algae or certain bacteria—to “consume” CO2 through photosynthesis or other metabolic pathways. This process produces biomass, which can then be processed into biofuels, animal feed, or fertilizers.

#### 9. Question

In the context of Carbon Capture and Utilisation (CCU), the process of “Biological Conversion” most commonly involves the use of which of the following?

• (a) High-pressure injection into saline aquifers.

• (b) Chemical synthesis of methanol from flue gases.

• (c) Cultivation of algae or bacteria to produce biomass.

• (d) Reaction of CO2 with calcium to form solid bricks.

Solution: C

Biological conversion in CCU specifically refers to using biological agents—most notably algae or certain bacteria—to “consume” CO2 through photosynthesis or other metabolic pathways. This process produces biomass, which can then be processed into biofuels, animal feed, or fertilizers.

Solution: C

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Villages of Excellence’ initiative: It is a grassroots-level extension of the Indo-Israel Agriculture Project (IIAP). The initiative aims to transform entire farming clusters into technology-driven zones rather than focusing only on centralized hubs. The project is primarily funded and managed by the World Food Programme (WFP). How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 3 is incorrect. The Villages of Excellence initiative represents a strategic shift in agricultural cooperation between India and Israel. Historically, cooperation focused on Centres of Excellence (CoEs) which acted as centralized high-tech research hubs. This new initiative seeks to bridge the gap between these research centers and the common farmer by integrating Israeli expertise directly into local village ecosystems. It aims to transform entire farming clusters into modern agricultural zones using a “hub and spoke” model, where villages surrounding existing CoEs serve as models. The initiative utilizes a sophisticated technological suite, including precision farming, satellite-based irrigation, and advanced nursery management. It is supported by the India-Israel Innovation Centre for Agriculture (IINCA), which provides the research foundation. Crucially, this is a bilateral government-to-government initiative under the Special Strategic Partnership; it is not managed or funded by the World Food Programme (WFP). The goal is to double farmers’ income by increasing productivity and reducing waste. By launching joint fellowships and on-site training, the program ensures long-term capacity building for Indian researchers and farmers, making sustainable, future-ready farming a reality at the grassroots level across the planned 100 Centres of Excellence. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 3 is incorrect. The Villages of Excellence initiative represents a strategic shift in agricultural cooperation between India and Israel. Historically, cooperation focused on Centres of Excellence (CoEs) which acted as centralized high-tech research hubs. This new initiative seeks to bridge the gap between these research centers and the common farmer by integrating Israeli expertise directly into local village ecosystems. It aims to transform entire farming clusters into modern agricultural zones using a “hub and spoke” model, where villages surrounding existing CoEs serve as models. The initiative utilizes a sophisticated technological suite, including precision farming, satellite-based irrigation, and advanced nursery management. It is supported by the India-Israel Innovation Centre for Agriculture (IINCA), which provides the research foundation. Crucially, this is a bilateral government-to-government initiative under the Special Strategic Partnership; it is not managed or funded by the World Food Programme (WFP). The goal is to double farmers’ income by increasing productivity and reducing waste. By launching joint fellowships and on-site training, the program ensures long-term capacity building for Indian researchers and farmers, making sustainable, future-ready farming a reality at the grassroots level across the planned 100 Centres of Excellence.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Villages of Excellence’ initiative:

• It is a grassroots-level extension of the Indo-Israel Agriculture Project (IIAP).

• The initiative aims to transform entire farming clusters into technology-driven zones rather than focusing only on centralized hubs.

• The project is primarily funded and managed by the World Food Programme (WFP).

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 3 is incorrect.

• The Villages of Excellence initiative represents a strategic shift in agricultural cooperation between India and Israel. Historically, cooperation focused on Centres of Excellence (CoEs) which acted as centralized high-tech research hubs. This new initiative seeks to bridge the gap between these research centers and the common farmer by integrating Israeli expertise directly into local village ecosystems. It aims to transform entire farming clusters into modern agricultural zones using a “hub and spoke” model, where villages surrounding existing CoEs serve as models.

• The initiative utilizes a sophisticated technological suite, including precision farming, satellite-based irrigation, and advanced nursery management. It is supported by the India-Israel Innovation Centre for Agriculture (IINCA), which provides the research foundation. Crucially, this is a bilateral government-to-government initiative under the Special Strategic Partnership; it is not managed or funded by the World Food Programme (WFP).

• The goal is to double farmers’ income by increasing productivity and reducing waste. By launching joint fellowships and on-site training, the program ensures long-term capacity building for Indian researchers and farmers, making sustainable, future-ready farming a reality at the grassroots level across the planned 100 Centres of Excellence.

Solution: B

Statement 3 is incorrect.

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