UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 7 March 2025
Kartavya Desk Staff
The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Statutory Bail in India: Statutory bail is a right that becomes available to an accused when the police fail to complete their investigation within a specified period. The time limit for statutory bail is uniformly 60 days across all types of cases. Statutory bail is enshrined in the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC). How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct because statutory bail becomes a right when the police fail to complete the investigation within the stipulated time. Statement 2 is incorrect. While 60 days is the standard time limit for statutory bail in most cases, this period can extend to 90 or 180 days depending on the severity of the crime. Statement 3 is correct as statutory bail is provided for under the CrPC. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct because statutory bail becomes a right when the police fail to complete the investigation within the stipulated time. Statement 2 is incorrect. While 60 days is the standard time limit for statutory bail in most cases, this period can extend to 90 or 180 days depending on the severity of the crime. Statement 3 is correct as statutory bail is provided for under the CrPC.
#### 1. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Statutory Bail in India:
• Statutory bail is a right that becomes available to an accused when the police fail to complete their investigation within a specified period.
• The time limit for statutory bail is uniformly 60 days across all types of cases.
• Statutory bail is enshrined in the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: A
Statement 1 is correct because statutory bail becomes a right when the police fail to complete the investigation within the stipulated time.
Statement 2 is incorrect. While 60 days is the standard time limit for statutory bail in most cases, this period can extend to 90 or 180 days depending on the severity of the crime.
Statement 3 is correct as statutory bail is provided for under the CrPC.
Solution: A
Statement 1 is correct because statutory bail becomes a right when the police fail to complete the investigation within the stipulated time.
Statement 2 is incorrect. While 60 days is the standard time limit for statutory bail in most cases, this period can extend to 90 or 180 days depending on the severity of the crime.
Statement 3 is correct as statutory bail is provided for under the CrPC.
• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the United Nations (UN) and its structure: The UN was established after World War I, with collective security and peacekeeping as some of its founding principles. The General Assembly is the primary policymaking body of the UN, while the UNSC is responsible for peace and security. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Statement 1: The United Nations was established in 1945 after World War II, with the primary goals of maintaining international peace and security, promoting disarmament, and engaging in peacekeeping activities. Statement 2 is correct. The General Assembly serves as the UN’s main policymaking body, while the UNSC is specifically responsible for issues related to international peace and security. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1: The United Nations was established in 1945 after World War II, with the primary goals of maintaining international peace and security, promoting disarmament, and engaging in peacekeeping activities. Statement 2 is correct. The General Assembly serves as the UN’s main policymaking body, while the UNSC is specifically responsible for issues related to international peace and security.
#### 2. Question
Consider the following statements about the United Nations (UN) and its structure:
• The UN was established after World War I, with collective security and peacekeeping as some of its founding principles.
• The General Assembly is the primary policymaking body of the UN, while the UNSC is responsible for peace and security.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
• Statement 1: The United Nations was established in 1945 after World War II, with the primary goals of maintaining international peace and security, promoting disarmament, and engaging in peacekeeping activities.
• Statement 2 is correct. The General Assembly serves as the UN’s main policymaking body, while the UNSC is specifically responsible for issues related to international peace and security.
Solution: B
• Statement 1: The United Nations was established in 1945 after World War II, with the primary goals of maintaining international peace and security, promoting disarmament, and engaging in peacekeeping activities.
• Statement 2 is correct. The General Assembly serves as the UN’s main policymaking body, while the UNSC is specifically responsible for issues related to international peace and security.
• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which doctrine allows for the invalidation of unconstitutional parts of a law while preserving the rest? (a) Doctrine of Substantive Due Process (b) Doctrine of Severability (c) Doctrine of Colorable Legislation (d) Doctrine of Eclipse Correct Solution: B The Doctrine of Severability is a legal principle that allows courts to invalidate specific portions of a law that are deemed unconstitutional while keeping the remaining constitutional parts intact. This doctrine is based on the presumption that the legislature would have enacted the valid parts of the statute without the invalid ones. It enables courts to strike down only the problematic sections of a law rather than nullifying the entire legislation, thus preserving the intent of the lawmakers to the extent possible while ensuring constitutional compliance. This approach helps in maintaining legislative integrity and prevents the unnecessary invalidation of entire laws due to partial unconstitutionality. Incorrect Solution: B The Doctrine of Severability is a legal principle that allows courts to invalidate specific portions of a law that are deemed unconstitutional while keeping the remaining constitutional parts intact. This doctrine is based on the presumption that the legislature would have enacted the valid parts of the statute without the invalid ones. It enables courts to strike down only the problematic sections of a law rather than nullifying the entire legislation, thus preserving the intent of the lawmakers to the extent possible while ensuring constitutional compliance. This approach helps in maintaining legislative integrity and prevents the unnecessary invalidation of entire laws due to partial unconstitutionality.
#### 3. Question
Which doctrine allows for the invalidation of unconstitutional parts of a law while preserving the rest?
• (a) Doctrine of Substantive Due Process
• (b) Doctrine of Severability
• (c) Doctrine of Colorable Legislation
• (d) Doctrine of Eclipse
Solution: B
• The Doctrine of Severability is a legal principle that allows courts to invalidate specific portions of a law that are deemed unconstitutional while keeping the remaining constitutional parts intact.
• This doctrine is based on the presumption that the legislature would have enacted the valid parts of the statute without the invalid ones.
• It enables courts to strike down only the problematic sections of a law rather than nullifying the entire legislation, thus preserving the intent of the lawmakers to the extent possible while ensuring constitutional compliance.
• This approach helps in maintaining legislative integrity and prevents the unnecessary invalidation of entire laws due to partial unconstitutionality.
Solution: B
• The Doctrine of Severability is a legal principle that allows courts to invalidate specific portions of a law that are deemed unconstitutional while keeping the remaining constitutional parts intact.
• This doctrine is based on the presumption that the legislature would have enacted the valid parts of the statute without the invalid ones.
• It enables courts to strike down only the problematic sections of a law rather than nullifying the entire legislation, thus preserving the intent of the lawmakers to the extent possible while ensuring constitutional compliance.
• This approach helps in maintaining legislative integrity and prevents the unnecessary invalidation of entire laws due to partial unconstitutionality.
• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Supreme Court has the power to invalidate only those laws that are in direct violation of the Fundamental Rights. The Doctrine of Severability allows the unconstitutional parts of a law to be invalidated while preserving the rest. The Doctrine of Eclipse allows a law infringing Fundamental Rights to be suspended until it is brought in line with the Constitution. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C The Supreme Court can invalidate laws that violate Fundamental Rights, the Doctrine of Severability allows unconstitutional parts of a law to be invalidated while preserving the rest, and the Doctrine of Eclipse allows laws infringing on Fundamental Rights to be temporarily suspended. Incorrect Solution: C The Supreme Court can invalidate laws that violate Fundamental Rights, the Doctrine of Severability allows unconstitutional parts of a law to be invalidated while preserving the rest, and the Doctrine of Eclipse allows laws infringing on Fundamental Rights to be temporarily suspended.
#### 4. Question
Consider the following statements:
• The Supreme Court has the power to invalidate only those laws that are in direct violation of the Fundamental Rights.
• The Doctrine of Severability allows the unconstitutional parts of a law to be invalidated while preserving the rest.
• The Doctrine of Eclipse allows a law infringing Fundamental Rights to be suspended until it is brought in line with the Constitution.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: C
The Supreme Court can invalidate laws that violate Fundamental Rights, the Doctrine of Severability allows unconstitutional parts of a law to be invalidated while preserving the rest, and the Doctrine of Eclipse allows laws infringing on Fundamental Rights to be temporarily suspended.
Solution: C
The Supreme Court can invalidate laws that violate Fundamental Rights, the Doctrine of Severability allows unconstitutional parts of a law to be invalidated while preserving the rest, and the Doctrine of Eclipse allows laws infringing on Fundamental Rights to be temporarily suspended.
• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following cases reaffirmed the right to a speedy trial as a fundamental right under Article 21? A) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India (2017) B) Delhi Excise Policy Case (2024) C) Shreya Singhal vs. Union of India (2015) D) Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India (1978) Correct Solution: B The Delhi Excise Policy Case (2024) reaffirmed the right to a speedy trial as a fundamental right under Article 21, continuing the Supreme Court’s role as the guardian of civil liberties. Incorrect Solution: B The Delhi Excise Policy Case (2024) reaffirmed the right to a speedy trial as a fundamental right under Article 21, continuing the Supreme Court’s role as the guardian of civil liberties.
#### 5. Question
Which of the following cases reaffirmed the right to a speedy trial as a fundamental right under Article 21?
• A) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India (2017)
• B) Delhi Excise Policy Case (2024)
• C) Shreya Singhal vs. Union of India (2015)
• D) Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India (1978)
Solution: B
The Delhi Excise Policy Case (2024) reaffirmed the right to a speedy trial as a fundamental right under Article 21, continuing the Supreme Court’s role as the guardian of civil liberties.
Solution: B
The Delhi Excise Policy Case (2024) reaffirmed the right to a speedy trial as a fundamental right under Article 21, continuing the Supreme Court’s role as the guardian of civil liberties.
• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following indicators is NOT included in the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)? a) Access to clean drinking water b) School attendance c) Per capita income d) Child mortality Correct Solution: C The National MPI focuses on multidimensional aspects of poverty, such as health, education, and standard of living, but it does not include per capita income as one of its 12 indicators. Instead, it looks at indicators like child mortality, school attendance, and access to clean drinking water. Incorrect Solution: C The National MPI focuses on multidimensional aspects of poverty, such as health, education, and standard of living, but it does not include per capita income as one of its 12 indicators. Instead, it looks at indicators like child mortality, school attendance, and access to clean drinking water.
#### 6. Question
Which of the following indicators is NOT included in the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)?
• a) Access to clean drinking water
• b) School attendance
• c) Per capita income
• d) Child mortality
Solution: C
The National MPI focuses on multidimensional aspects of poverty, such as health, education, and standard of living, but it does not include per capita income as one of its 12 indicators. Instead, it looks at indicators like child mortality, school attendance, and access to clean drinking water.
Solution: C
The National MPI focuses on multidimensional aspects of poverty, such as health, education, and standard of living, but it does not include per capita income as one of its 12 indicators. Instead, it looks at indicators like child mortality, school attendance, and access to clean drinking water.
• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The Dharma Guardian exercise is a joint military exercise between the armies of India and Japan. The Malabar exercise, which involves the navies of India and Japan, also includes other Quad nations. Veer Guardian is a military exercise conducted between the naval forces of India and Japan. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: Dharma Guardian is a joint military exercise between the armies of India and Japan. Statement 2 is correct: The Malabar exercise is a naval exercise involving India, Japan, and other Quad nations, such as the United States and Australia. Statement 3 is incorrect: Veer Guardian is an air force exercise, not a naval exercise, conducted between India and Japan. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: Dharma Guardian is a joint military exercise between the armies of India and Japan. Statement 2 is correct: The Malabar exercise is a naval exercise involving India, Japan, and other Quad nations, such as the United States and Australia. Statement 3 is incorrect: Veer Guardian is an air force exercise, not a naval exercise, conducted between India and Japan.
#### 7. Question
Consider the following statements.
• The Dharma Guardian exercise is a joint military exercise between the armies of India and Japan.
• The Malabar exercise, which involves the navies of India and Japan, also includes other Quad nations.
• Veer Guardian is a military exercise conducted between the naval forces of India and Japan.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: B
Statement 1 is correct: Dharma Guardian is a joint military exercise between the armies of India and Japan.
Statement 2 is correct: The Malabar exercise is a naval exercise involving India, Japan, and other Quad nations, such as the United States and Australia.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Veer Guardian is an air force exercise, not a naval exercise, conducted between India and Japan.
Solution: B
Statement 1 is correct: Dharma Guardian is a joint military exercise between the armies of India and Japan.
Statement 2 is correct: The Malabar exercise is a naval exercise involving India, Japan, and other Quad nations, such as the United States and Australia.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Veer Guardian is an air force exercise, not a naval exercise, conducted between India and Japan.
• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which committee or report first recommended the concept of lateral entry into the Indian civil services? a) Sarkaria Commission b) First Administrative Reforms Commission c) Punchhi Commission d) Surinder Nath Committee Correct Solution: D Committees’ recommendations on lateral entry: The idea has been advocated by Surinder Nath Committee (2003), Hota Committee (2004) and Second ARC (2008). NITI Aayog, in its three-year Action Agenda (2017—2020), recommended the induction of personnel at middle and senior management levels in the central government. Incorrect Solution: D Committees’ recommendations on lateral entry: The idea has been advocated by Surinder Nath Committee (2003), Hota Committee (2004) and Second ARC (2008). NITI Aayog, in its three-year Action Agenda (2017—2020), recommended the induction of personnel at middle and senior management levels in the central government.
#### 8. Question
Which committee or report first recommended the concept of lateral entry into the Indian civil services?
• a) Sarkaria Commission
• b) First Administrative Reforms Commission
• c) Punchhi Commission
• d) Surinder Nath Committee
Solution: D
Committees’ recommendations on lateral entry:
• The idea has been advocated by Surinder Nath Committee (2003), Hota Committee (2004) and Second ARC (2008).
• NITI Aayog, in its three-year Action Agenda (2017—2020), recommended the induction of personnel at middle and senior management levels in the central government.
Solution: D
Committees’ recommendations on lateral entry:
• The idea has been advocated by Surinder Nath Committee (2003), Hota Committee (2004) and Second ARC (2008).
• NITI Aayog, in its three-year Action Agenda (2017—2020), recommended the induction of personnel at middle and senior management levels in the central government.
• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution allows the Supreme Court to declare any law void if it contravenes Fundamental Rights? a) Article 142 b) Article 136 c) Article 13 d) Article 32 Correct Solution: C Article 13 of the Indian Constitution declares that any law which contravenes the Fundamental Rights shall be void. This empowers the Supreme Court to invalidate such laws. Incorrect Solution: C Article 13 of the Indian Constitution declares that any law which contravenes the Fundamental Rights shall be void. This empowers the Supreme Court to invalidate such laws.
#### 9. Question
Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution allows the Supreme Court to declare any law void if it contravenes Fundamental Rights?
• a) Article 142
• b) Article 136
• c) Article 13
• d) Article 32
Solution: C
Article 13 of the Indian Constitution declares that any law which contravenes the Fundamental Rights shall be void. This empowers the Supreme Court to invalidate such laws.
Solution: C
Article 13 of the Indian Constitution declares that any law which contravenes the Fundamental Rights shall be void. This empowers the Supreme Court to invalidate such laws.
• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Anticipatory Bail: Anticipatory bail is granted before the arrest of an accused person. The concept of anticipatory bail is explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution. Anticipatory bail can be granted by both Sessions Courts and High Courts. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Anticipatory bail is granted in anticipation of an arrest, hence before the arrest takes place. Statement 2 is incorrect. Anticipatory bail is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution; it is provided for under Section 438 of the CrPC. Statement 3 is correct. Anticipatory bail can be granted by both Sessions Courts and High Courts. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Anticipatory bail is granted in anticipation of an arrest, hence before the arrest takes place. Statement 2 is incorrect. Anticipatory bail is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution; it is provided for under Section 438 of the CrPC. Statement 3 is correct. Anticipatory bail can be granted by both Sessions Courts and High Courts.
#### 10. Question
Consider the following statements about Anticipatory Bail:
• Anticipatory bail is granted before the arrest of an accused person.
• The concept of anticipatory bail is explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
• Anticipatory bail can be granted by both Sessions Courts and High Courts.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: A
Statement 1 is correct. Anticipatory bail is granted in anticipation of an arrest, hence before the arrest takes place.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Anticipatory bail is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution; it is provided for under Section 438 of the CrPC.
Statement 3 is correct. Anticipatory bail can be granted by both Sessions Courts and High Courts.
Solution: A
Statement 1 is correct. Anticipatory bail is granted in anticipation of an arrest, hence before the arrest takes place.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Anticipatory bail is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution; it is provided for under Section 438 of the CrPC.
Statement 3 is correct. Anticipatory bail can be granted by both Sessions Courts and High Courts.
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