UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 7 June 2024

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Press Council of India (PCI): The Press Council of India is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament. The primary function of the Press Council of India is to regulate and improve the standards of journalism in India. The Press Council of India has the authority to impose penalties and enforce its decisions through legal means. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: About the Press Council of India (PCI): It was established in 1979 under the Press Council Act, 1978, and is a statutory quasi-judicial autonomous authority that preserves press freedom and maintains high standards in newspapers and news agencies in India. The PCI consists of a Chairman, who is typically a retired Supreme Court judge, and 28 members, with the Chairman nominated by a committee including the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, and an elected member from the Council. S3: The Press Council of India does not have the power to impose penalties or enforce its decisions legally. It can only issue warnings, admonitions, and censures. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: About the Press Council of India (PCI): It was established in 1979 under the Press Council Act, 1978, and is a statutory quasi-judicial autonomous authority that preserves press freedom and maintains high standards in newspapers and news agencies in India. The PCI consists of a Chairman, who is typically a retired Supreme Court judge, and 28 members, with the Chairman nominated by a committee including the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, and an elected member from the Council. S3: The Press Council of India does not have the power to impose penalties or enforce its decisions legally. It can only issue warnings, admonitions, and censures. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about the Press Council of India (PCI):

• The Press Council of India is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament. The primary function of the Press Council of India is to regulate and improve the standards of journalism in India. The Press Council of India has the authority to impose penalties and enforce its decisions through legal means.

• The Press Council of India is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament.

• The primary function of the Press Council of India is to regulate and improve the standards of journalism in India.

• The Press Council of India has the authority to impose penalties and enforce its decisions through legal means.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation: About the Press Council of India (PCI):

• It was established in 1979 under the Press Council Act, 1978, and is a statutory quasi-judicial autonomous authority that preserves press freedom and maintains high standards in newspapers and news agencies in India. The PCI consists of a Chairman, who is typically a retired Supreme Court judge, and 28 members, with the Chairman nominated by a committee including the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, and an elected member from the Council.

• S3: The Press Council of India does not have the power to impose penalties or enforce its decisions legally. It can only issue warnings, admonitions, and censures.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

Explanation: About the Press Council of India (PCI):

• S3: The Press Council of India does not have the power to impose penalties or enforce its decisions legally. It can only issue warnings, admonitions, and censures.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about FSSAI is correct? (a) FSSAI operates under the Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India. (b) FSSAI was established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006. (c) FSSAI is responsible for promoting the production of genetically modified crops. (d) FSSAI sets standards for safe water quality only in urban areas. Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act of 2006. It consolidates various food-related laws and aims to ensure food safety and quality in India. FSSAI regulates food businesses, enforces safety laws, monitors quality, conducts research, provides training, and promotes food fortification and organic food. It operates under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, with headquarters in New Delhi and regional offices across the country. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act of 2006. It consolidates various food-related laws and aims to ensure food safety and quality in India. FSSAI regulates food businesses, enforces safety laws, monitors quality, conducts research, provides training, and promotes food fortification and organic food. It operates under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, with headquarters in New Delhi and regional offices across the country. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

#### 2. Question

Which of the following statements about FSSAI is correct?

• (a) FSSAI operates under the Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India.

• (b) FSSAI was established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.

• (c) FSSAI is responsible for promoting the production of genetically modified crops.

• (d) FSSAI sets standards for safe water quality only in urban areas.

Explanation:

• The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act of 2006. It consolidates various food-related laws and aims to ensure food safety and quality in India. FSSAI regulates food businesses, enforces safety laws, monitors quality, conducts research, provides training, and promotes food fortification and organic food. It operates under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, with headquarters in New Delhi and regional offices across the country.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about excise duty is correct? (a) Excise duty is a tax levied on the sale of goods at the point of purchase by consumers. (b) Excise duty is a tax imposed on goods during the production or manufacturing process, typically paid by the manufacturer. (c) Excise duty is a tax levied on income earned by individuals and businesses. (d) Excise duty is a tax imposed only on imported goods at the time they enter the country. Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Excise duty is an indirect tax collected by retailers or intermediaries from customers at the point of sale. It is paid when goods move from manufacturing units to warehouses. Governed by two key acts, the Central Excise Act of 1944 handles levy and collection, while the Central Excise Tariff Act of 1985 classifies goods and sets duty rates. With the implementation of Goods and Services Tax (GST), many excise duties were subsumed, leaving only petroleum and liquor subject to excise duty. Central GST replaces excise duty in most cases, while state governments collect excise duty on alcohol, alcoholic preparations, and narcotic substances, referred to as “State Excise” duty. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Excise duty is an indirect tax collected by retailers or intermediaries from customers at the point of sale. It is paid when goods move from manufacturing units to warehouses. Governed by two key acts, the Central Excise Act of 1944 handles levy and collection, while the Central Excise Tariff Act of 1985 classifies goods and sets duty rates. With the implementation of Goods and Services Tax (GST), many excise duties were subsumed, leaving only petroleum and liquor subject to excise duty. Central GST replaces excise duty in most cases, while state governments collect excise duty on alcohol, alcoholic preparations, and narcotic substances, referred to as “State Excise” duty. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

#### 3. Question

Which of the following statements about excise duty is correct?

• (a) Excise duty is a tax levied on the sale of goods at the point of purchase by consumers.

• (b) Excise duty is a tax imposed on goods during the production or manufacturing process, typically paid by the manufacturer.

• (c) Excise duty is a tax levied on income earned by individuals and businesses.

• (d) Excise duty is a tax imposed only on imported goods at the time they enter the country.

Explanation:

• Excise duty is an indirect tax collected by retailers or intermediaries from customers at the point of sale. It is paid when goods move from manufacturing units to warehouses. Governed by two key acts, the Central Excise Act of 1944 handles levy and collection, while the Central Excise Tariff Act of 1985 classifies goods and sets duty rates. With the implementation of Goods and Services Tax (GST), many excise duties were subsumed, leaving only petroleum and liquor subject to excise duty. Central GST replaces excise duty in most cases, while state governments collect excise duty on alcohol, alcoholic preparations, and narcotic substances, referred to as “State Excise” duty.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about direct taxes in India are correct? Income Tax is levied on the income of individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), and companies. Corporate Tax is a tax levied on the profits of firms and companies. Wealth Tax is currently levied on the net wealth of individuals, HUFs, and companies. Gift Tax is applicable to gifts received by individuals beyond a certain threshold. Select the correct option: (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1, 2, and 3 (b) Only 1, 2, and 3 (d) Only 1, 2, and 4 Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: Income Tax: Correct. This tax is levied on the income of individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), and companies. The rates vary based on the type and amount of income. Corporate Tax: Correct. This tax is levied on the profits earned by companies and firms. Different rates are applicable for domestic and foreign companies. Wealth Tax: Incorrect. Wealth Tax was abolished in India in 2015. It was previously levied on the net wealth of individuals, HUFs, and companies. Gift Tax: Correct. While the Gift Tax Act was abolished in 1998, gifts received by individuals above a certain threshold are now taxed as income under the Income Tax Act, 1961. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: Income Tax: Correct. This tax is levied on the income of individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), and companies. The rates vary based on the type and amount of income. Corporate Tax: Correct. This tax is levied on the profits earned by companies and firms. Different rates are applicable for domestic and foreign companies. Wealth Tax: Incorrect. Wealth Tax was abolished in India in 2015. It was previously levied on the net wealth of individuals, HUFs, and companies. Gift Tax: Correct. While the Gift Tax Act was abolished in 1998, gifts received by individuals above a certain threshold are now taxed as income under the Income Tax Act, 1961. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

#### 4. Question

Which of the following statements about direct taxes in India are correct?

• Income Tax is levied on the income of individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), and companies. Corporate Tax is a tax levied on the profits of firms and companies. Wealth Tax is currently levied on the net wealth of individuals, HUFs, and companies. Gift Tax is applicable to gifts received by individuals beyond a certain threshold.

• Income Tax is levied on the income of individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), and companies.

• Corporate Tax is a tax levied on the profits of firms and companies.

• Wealth Tax is currently levied on the net wealth of individuals, HUFs, and companies.

• Gift Tax is applicable to gifts received by individuals beyond a certain threshold.

Select the correct option:

• (a) Only 1 and 2

• (b) Only 1, 2, and 3

• (d) Only 1, 2, and 4

Explanation:

• Income Tax: Correct. This tax is levied on the income of individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), and companies. The rates vary based on the type and amount of income.

• Corporate Tax: Correct. This tax is levied on the profits earned by companies and firms. Different rates are applicable for domestic and foreign companies.

• Wealth Tax: Incorrect. Wealth Tax was abolished in India in 2015. It was previously levied on the net wealth of individuals, HUFs, and companies.

• Gift Tax: Correct. While the Gift Tax Act was abolished in 1998, gifts received by individuals above a certain threshold are now taxed as income under the Income Tax Act, 1961.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

Explanation:

• Income Tax: Correct. This tax is levied on the income of individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), and companies. The rates vary based on the type and amount of income.

• Corporate Tax: Correct. This tax is levied on the profits earned by companies and firms. Different rates are applicable for domestic and foreign companies.

• Wealth Tax: Incorrect. Wealth Tax was abolished in India in 2015. It was previously levied on the net wealth of individuals, HUFs, and companies.

• Gift Tax: Correct. While the Gift Tax Act was abolished in 1998, gifts received by individuals above a certain threshold are now taxed as income under the Income Tax Act, 1961.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC):: ONDC is an initiative by the Government of India to create an open-source network that allows any retailer to participate in digital commerce. ONDC mandates that all transactions on its platform must be conducted in Indian Rupees only. ONDC’s architecture supports interoperability between different e-commerce platforms and service providers. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation S1 is correct: ONDC is indeed an initiative by the Government of India designed to create an open-source network that any retailer can join, facilitating broader participation in digital commerce across the country. S2 is incorrect. ONDC does not mandate that all transactions must be conducted in Indian Rupees only. The network focuses on interoperability and inclusivity, but it does not impose such a restriction on the currency of transactions. S3 is correct. The architecture of ONDC supports interoperability between different e-commerce platforms and service providers, allowing for a more integrated and seamless digital commerce experience. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation S1 is correct: ONDC is indeed an initiative by the Government of India designed to create an open-source network that any retailer can join, facilitating broader participation in digital commerce across the country. S2 is incorrect. ONDC does not mandate that all transactions must be conducted in Indian Rupees only. The network focuses on interoperability and inclusivity, but it does not impose such a restriction on the currency of transactions. S3 is correct. The architecture of ONDC supports interoperability between different e-commerce platforms and service providers, allowing for a more integrated and seamless digital commerce experience. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)::

• ONDC is an initiative by the Government of India to create an open-source network that allows any retailer to participate in digital commerce. ONDC mandates that all transactions on its platform must be conducted in Indian Rupees only. ONDC’s architecture supports interoperability between different e-commerce platforms and service providers.

• ONDC is an initiative by the Government of India to create an open-source network that allows any retailer to participate in digital commerce.

• ONDC mandates that all transactions on its platform must be conducted in Indian Rupees only.

• ONDC’s architecture supports interoperability between different e-commerce platforms and service providers.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation

• S1 is correct: ONDC is indeed an initiative by the Government of India designed to create an open-source network that any retailer can join, facilitating broader participation in digital commerce across the country.

• S2 is incorrect. ONDC does not mandate that all transactions must be conducted in Indian Rupees only. The network focuses on interoperability and inclusivity, but it does not impose such a restriction on the currency of transactions.

• S3 is correct. The architecture of ONDC supports interoperability between different e-commerce platforms and service providers, allowing for a more integrated and seamless digital commerce experience.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

Explanation

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Preston Curve: The Preston Curve illustrates the relationship between a country’s GDP per capita and its life expectancy. The curve suggests that improvements in income have diminishing returns on life expectancy beyond a certain point. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: S1 is true. The Preston Curve indeed illustrates the relationship between a country’s GDP per capita (a measure of income) and its life expectancy. S2 is true. The curve shows that while increases in income significantly improve life expectancy in poorer countries, these benefits diminish as countries become wealthier. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: S1 is true. The Preston Curve indeed illustrates the relationship between a country’s GDP per capita (a measure of income) and its life expectancy. S2 is true. The curve shows that while increases in income significantly improve life expectancy in poorer countries, these benefits diminish as countries become wealthier. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about Preston Curve:

• The Preston Curve illustrates the relationship between a country’s GDP per capita and its life expectancy. The curve suggests that improvements in income have diminishing returns on life expectancy beyond a certain point.

• The Preston Curve illustrates the relationship between a country’s GDP per capita and its life expectancy.

• The curve suggests that improvements in income have diminishing returns on life expectancy beyond a certain point.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• S1 is true. The Preston Curve indeed illustrates the relationship between a country’s GDP per capita (a measure of income) and its life expectancy.

• S2 is true. The curve shows that while increases in income significantly improve life expectancy in poorer countries, these benefits diminish as countries become wealthier.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

Explanation:

• S1 is true. The Preston Curve indeed illustrates the relationship between a country’s GDP per capita (a measure of income) and its life expectancy.

• S2 is true. The curve shows that while increases in income significantly improve life expectancy in poorer countries, these benefits diminish as countries become wealthier.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Sickle Cell Disease is caused by a mutation in the gene that codes for the hemoglobin protein. People with Sickle Cell Trait have one normal hemoglobin gene and one mutated gene, usually without severe symptoms. Hydroxyurea is a medication that can help reduce the frequency of pain episodes in individuals with SCD. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation S1 is True: Sickle Cell Disease is indeed caused by a mutation in the HBB gene that codes for the hemoglobin protein. This mutation leads to the production of an abnormal form of hemoglobin known as hemoglobin S (HbS). S2 is True: People with Sickle Cell Trait (SCT) have one normal hemoglobin gene (HbA) and one mutated gene (HbS). They usually do not exhibit severe symptoms of the disease but can pass the trait to their offspring. S3 is True: Hydroxyurea is a medication commonly used to reduce the frequency of pain episodes and acute chest syndrome in people with SCD. It works by increasing the production of fetal hemoglobin (HbF), which prevents the sickling of red blood cells. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation S1 is True: Sickle Cell Disease is indeed caused by a mutation in the HBB gene that codes for the hemoglobin protein. This mutation leads to the production of an abnormal form of hemoglobin known as hemoglobin S (HbS). S2 is True: People with Sickle Cell Trait (SCT) have one normal hemoglobin gene (HbA) and one mutated gene (HbS). They usually do not exhibit severe symptoms of the disease but can pass the trait to their offspring. S3 is True: Hydroxyurea is a medication commonly used to reduce the frequency of pain episodes and acute chest syndrome in people with SCD. It works by increasing the production of fetal hemoglobin (HbF), which prevents the sickling of red blood cells. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Sickle Cell Disease is caused by a mutation in the gene that codes for the hemoglobin protein. People with Sickle Cell Trait have one normal hemoglobin gene and one mutated gene, usually without severe symptoms. Hydroxyurea is a medication that can help reduce the frequency of pain episodes in individuals with SCD.

• Sickle Cell Disease is caused by a mutation in the gene that codes for the hemoglobin protein.

• People with Sickle Cell Trait have one normal hemoglobin gene and one mutated gene, usually without severe symptoms.

• Hydroxyurea is a medication that can help reduce the frequency of pain episodes in individuals with SCD.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation

• S1 is True: Sickle Cell Disease is indeed caused by a mutation in the HBB gene that codes for the hemoglobin protein. This mutation leads to the production of an abnormal form of hemoglobin known as hemoglobin S (HbS).

• S2 is True: People with Sickle Cell Trait (SCT) have one normal hemoglobin gene (HbA) and one mutated gene (HbS). They usually do not exhibit severe symptoms of the disease but can pass the trait to their offspring.

• S3 is True: Hydroxyurea is a medication commonly used to reduce the frequency of pain episodes and acute chest syndrome in people with SCD. It works by increasing the production of fetal hemoglobin (HbF), which prevents the sickling of red blood cells.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

Explanation

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about Reverse Transcriptase is NOT correct? (a) Reverse Transcriptase is an enzyme used by retroviruses to synthesize DNA from an RNA template. (b) Reverse Transcriptase is utilized in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) process to amplify DNA sequences. (c) Reverse Transcriptase has been instrumental in the development of antiretroviral drugs for HIV treatment. (d) Reverse Transcriptase can be used in molecular biology to generate complementary DNA (cDNA) from mRNA. Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Reverse Transcriptase is an enzyme that synthesizes DNA from an RNA template, a critical step for retroviruses like HIV. It plays a vital role in creating complementary DNA (cDNA) from mRNA in molecular biology research, which is essential for studying gene expression. However, the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) process typically uses DNA polymerase, not Reverse Transcriptase, to amplify DNA sequences. PCR requires a DNA template to start the amplification process, whereas Reverse Transcriptase is involved in the initial step of converting RNA into DNA, often in a process referred to as reverse transcription PCR (RT-PCR) when starting from an RNA template. Antiretroviral drugs targeting Reverse Transcriptase have been developed to treat HIV, making the enzyme a significant target in antiviral therapy. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Reverse Transcriptase is an enzyme that synthesizes DNA from an RNA template, a critical step for retroviruses like HIV. It plays a vital role in creating complementary DNA (cDNA) from mRNA in molecular biology research, which is essential for studying gene expression. However, the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) process typically uses DNA polymerase, not Reverse Transcriptase, to amplify DNA sequences. PCR requires a DNA template to start the amplification process, whereas Reverse Transcriptase is involved in the initial step of converting RNA into DNA, often in a process referred to as reverse transcription PCR (RT-PCR) when starting from an RNA template. Antiretroviral drugs targeting Reverse Transcriptase have been developed to treat HIV, making the enzyme a significant target in antiviral therapy. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

#### 8. Question

Which of the following statements about Reverse Transcriptase is NOT correct?

• (a) Reverse Transcriptase is an enzyme used by retroviruses to synthesize DNA from an RNA template.

• (b) Reverse Transcriptase is utilized in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) process to amplify DNA sequences.

• (c) Reverse Transcriptase has been instrumental in the development of antiretroviral drugs for HIV treatment.

• (d) Reverse Transcriptase can be used in molecular biology to generate complementary DNA (cDNA) from mRNA.

Explanation:

• Reverse Transcriptase is an enzyme that synthesizes DNA from an RNA template, a critical step for retroviruses like HIV. It plays a vital role in creating complementary DNA (cDNA) from mRNA in molecular biology research, which is essential for studying gene expression.

• However, the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) process typically uses DNA polymerase, not Reverse Transcriptase, to amplify DNA sequences. PCR requires a DNA template to start the amplification process, whereas Reverse Transcriptase is involved in the initial step of converting RNA into DNA, often in a process referred to as reverse transcription PCR (RT-PCR) when starting from an RNA template.

• Antiretroviral drugs targeting Reverse Transcriptase have been developed to treat HIV, making the enzyme a significant target in antiviral therapy.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

Explanation:

• Antiretroviral drugs targeting Reverse Transcriptase have been developed to treat HIV, making the enzyme a significant target in antiviral therapy.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about the Five Eyes Alliance is correct? (a) The Five Eyes Alliance is a political union consisting of the United States, Canada, the United Kingdom, France, and Australia. (b) The primary function of the Five Eyes Alliance is to conduct joint military operations in the Asia-Pacific region. (c) The Five Eyes Alliance is an intelligence-sharing partnership involving the United States, Canada, the United Kingdom, Australia, and New Zealand. (d) The Five Eyes Alliance was established during the Cold War to create a free trade zone among member countries. Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Australia will allow non-Australian citizens from Five Eyes countries to join its armed forces, in order to meet the shortage of personnel. About Five Eyes Alliance: Five Eyes Alliance:The Five Eyes Alliance refers to an intelligence-sharing partnership among five countries: the United States, the United Kingdom, Australia, Canada, and New Zealand. These nations collaborate closely on intelligence matters, sharing information to protect their shared national interests. Origins of the Alliance:The alliance traces its origins back to World War II when the UK and the US decided to share intelligence after successfully breaking German and Japanese codes. It began as the Britain-USA (BRUSA) agreement, later evolving into the UK-USA (UKUSA) agreement, with Canada joining in 1949 and New Zealand and Australia in 1956. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Australia will allow non-Australian citizens from Five Eyes countries to join its armed forces, in order to meet the shortage of personnel. About Five Eyes Alliance: Five Eyes Alliance:The Five Eyes Alliance refers to an intelligence-sharing partnership among five countries: the United States, the United Kingdom, Australia, Canada, and New Zealand. These nations collaborate closely on intelligence matters, sharing information to protect their shared national interests. Origins of the Alliance:The alliance traces its origins back to World War II when the UK and the US decided to share intelligence after successfully breaking German and Japanese codes. It began as the Britain-USA (BRUSA) agreement, later evolving into the UK-USA (UKUSA) agreement, with Canada joining in 1949 and New Zealand and Australia in 1956. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

#### 9. Question

Which of the following statements about the Five Eyes Alliance is correct?

• (a) The Five Eyes Alliance is a political union consisting of the United States, Canada, the United Kingdom, France, and Australia.

• (b) The primary function of the Five Eyes Alliance is to conduct joint military operations in the Asia-Pacific region.

• (c) The Five Eyes Alliance is an intelligence-sharing partnership involving the United States, Canada, the United Kingdom, Australia, and New Zealand.

• (d) The Five Eyes Alliance was established during the Cold War to create a free trade zone among member countries.

Explanation:

• Context: Australia will allow non-Australian citizens from Five Eyes countries to join its armed forces, in order to meet the shortage of personnel.

• About Five Eyes Alliance: Five Eyes Alliance:The Five Eyes Alliance refers to an intelligence-sharing partnership among five countries: the United States, the United Kingdom, Australia, Canada, and New Zealand. These nations collaborate closely on intelligence matters, sharing information to protect their shared national interests. Origins of the Alliance:The alliance traces its origins back to World War II when the UK and the US decided to share intelligence after successfully breaking German and Japanese codes. It began as the Britain-USA (BRUSA) agreement, later evolving into the UK-USA (UKUSA) agreement, with Canada joining in 1949 and New Zealand and Australia in 1956.

• Five Eyes Alliance:The Five Eyes Alliance refers to an intelligence-sharing partnership among five countries: the United States, the United Kingdom, Australia, Canada, and New Zealand.

• These nations collaborate closely on intelligence matters, sharing information to protect their shared national interests.

• Origins of the Alliance:The alliance traces its origins back to World War II when the UK and the US decided to share intelligence after successfully breaking German and Japanese codes.

• It began as the Britain-USA (BRUSA) agreement, later evolving into the UK-USA (UKUSA) agreement, with Canada joining in 1949 and New Zealand and Australia in 1956.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

Explanation:

• Context: Australia will allow non-Australian citizens from Five Eyes countries to join its armed forces, in order to meet the shortage of personnel.

• Five Eyes Alliance:The Five Eyes Alliance refers to an intelligence-sharing partnership among five countries: the United States, the United Kingdom, Australia, Canada, and New Zealand.

• These nations collaborate closely on intelligence matters, sharing information to protect their shared national interests.

• Origins of the Alliance:The alliance traces its origins back to World War II when the UK and the US decided to share intelligence after successfully breaking German and Japanese codes.

• It began as the Britain-USA (BRUSA) agreement, later evolving into the UK-USA (UKUSA) agreement, with Canada joining in 1949 and New Zealand and Australia in 1956.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose, while RNA contains the sugar ribose. DNA is typically double-stranded, whereas RNA is typically single-stranded. DNA uses the base thymine, while RNA uses the base uracil. DNA is found primarily in the nucleus of a cell, whereas RNA can be found in the cytoplasm as well as the nucleus. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (a) Only one (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: Sugar Component: DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose, which lacks one oxygen atom compared to ribose, the sugar found in RNA. This difference in sugar contributes to the structural differences between DNA and RNA. Strandedness: DNA is typically double-stranded, forming a double helix, whereas RNA is usually single-stranded, allowing it to fold into various structures needed for its functions. Nitrogenous Bases: DNA uses the base thymine (T), whereas RNA uses uracil (U) instead of thymine. This is one of the key chemical differences between the two nucleic acids. Location: DNA is primarily located in the cell nucleus where it stores genetic information. RNA, on the other hand, is synthesized in the nucleus but can travel to the cytoplasm, where it plays various roles in protein synthesis and other cellular processes. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: Sugar Component: DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose, which lacks one oxygen atom compared to ribose, the sugar found in RNA. This difference in sugar contributes to the structural differences between DNA and RNA. Strandedness: DNA is typically double-stranded, forming a double helix, whereas RNA is usually single-stranded, allowing it to fold into various structures needed for its functions. Nitrogenous Bases: DNA uses the base thymine (T), whereas RNA uses uracil (U) instead of thymine. This is one of the key chemical differences between the two nucleic acids. Location: DNA is primarily located in the cell nucleus where it stores genetic information. RNA, on the other hand, is synthesized in the nucleus but can travel to the cytoplasm, where it plays various roles in protein synthesis and other cellular processes. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements:

• DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose, while RNA contains the sugar ribose. DNA is typically double-stranded, whereas RNA is typically single-stranded. DNA uses the base thymine, while RNA uses the base uracil. DNA is found primarily in the nucleus of a cell, whereas RNA can be found in the cytoplasm as well as the nucleus.

• DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose, while RNA contains the sugar ribose.

• DNA is typically double-stranded, whereas RNA is typically single-stranded.

• DNA uses the base thymine, while RNA uses the base uracil.

• DNA is found primarily in the nucleus of a cell, whereas RNA can be found in the cytoplasm as well as the nucleus.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Explanation:

• Sugar Component: DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose, which lacks one oxygen atom compared to ribose, the sugar found in RNA. This difference in sugar contributes to the structural differences between DNA and RNA.

• Strandedness: DNA is typically double-stranded, forming a double helix, whereas RNA is usually single-stranded, allowing it to fold into various structures needed for its functions.

• Nitrogenous Bases: DNA uses the base thymine (T), whereas RNA uses uracil (U) instead of thymine. This is one of the key chemical differences between the two nucleic acids.

• Location: DNA is primarily located in the cell nucleus where it stores genetic information. RNA, on the other hand, is synthesized in the nucleus but can travel to the cytoplasm, where it plays various roles in protein synthesis and other cellular processes.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

Explanation:

• Strandedness: DNA is typically double-stranded, forming a double helix, whereas RNA is usually single-stranded, allowing it to fold into various structures needed for its functions.

• Nitrogenous Bases: DNA uses the base thymine (T), whereas RNA uses uracil (U) instead of thymine. This is one of the key chemical differences between the two nucleic acids.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/06/upsc-current-affairs-6-june-2024/

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