UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 7 July 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the C-FLOOD platform, consider the following statements: It is an indigenous, real-time flood forecasting system developed exclusively by the Central Water Commission (CWC). The system provides flood inundation forecasts with a lead time of up to seven days. It leverages advanced 2-D hydrodynamic simulations and is currently operational for all major river basins in India. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. C-FLOOD is not an exclusive development of the CWC. It is a collaborative effort involving multiple agencies. It was developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune, and the Central Water Commission (CWC), in partnership with the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) and supported by various ministries including the Ministry of Jal Shakti, MeitY, and DST. Statement 2 is incorrect. The platform is designed to provide advance inundation forecasts, but the specified lead time is two days (48 hours), not seven. This two-day window is crucial for enabling timely evacuation and local-level planning. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the system uses advanced modelling, its coverage is not yet pan-India for all major river basins. It was initially launched for the Mahanadi, Godavari, and Tapi basins. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. C-FLOOD is not an exclusive development of the CWC. It is a collaborative effort involving multiple agencies. It was developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune, and the Central Water Commission (CWC), in partnership with the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) and supported by various ministries including the Ministry of Jal Shakti, MeitY, and DST. Statement 2 is incorrect. The platform is designed to provide advance inundation forecasts, but the specified lead time is two days (48 hours), not seven. This two-day window is crucial for enabling timely evacuation and local-level planning. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the system uses advanced modelling, its coverage is not yet pan-India for all major river basins. It was initially launched for the Mahanadi, Godavari, and Tapi basins.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the C-FLOOD platform, consider the following statements:

• It is an indigenous, real-time flood forecasting system developed exclusively by the Central Water Commission (CWC).

• The system provides flood inundation forecasts with a lead time of up to seven days.

• It leverages advanced 2-D hydrodynamic simulations and is currently operational for all major river basins in India.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. C-FLOOD is not an exclusive development of the CWC. It is a collaborative effort involving multiple agencies. It was developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune, and the Central Water Commission (CWC), in partnership with the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) and supported by various ministries including the Ministry of Jal Shakti, MeitY, and DST.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The platform is designed to provide advance inundation forecasts, but the specified lead time is two days (48 hours), not seven. This two-day window is crucial for enabling timely evacuation and local-level planning.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While the system uses advanced modelling, its coverage is not yet pan-India for all major river basins. It was initially launched for the Mahanadi, Godavari, and Tapi basins.

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India’s first Equine Disease-Free Compartment (EDFC): The EDFC has been established at the Remount Veterinary Corps (RVC) Centre in Meerut. Its recognition by the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH) is primarily aimed at boosting the export of Indian poultry products. The compartment has been declared free from diseases such as Glanders and African Horse Sickness. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The EDFC is located at the Remount Veterinary Corps (RVC) Centre & College in Meerut Cantonment, Uttar Pradesh. This facility has been specifically developed with high biosecurity standards to maintain a disease-free equine population. Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary purpose of the Equine Disease-Free Compartment is to facilitate the international trade and movement of Indian horses, particularly for equestrian sports and export. India is replicating this compartmentalisation model for the poultry sector to enable the export of poultry products, the EDFC itself is for equines, not poultry. Statement 3 is correct. The compartment has been officially declared free from several key equine diseases, including Equine Influenza, Glanders, Surra, Equine Piroplasmosis, and Equine Infectious Anemia. Furthermore, India has maintained its freedom from African Horse Sickness since 2014, a status that contributes to the high health standing of the animals in the EDFC. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The EDFC is located at the Remount Veterinary Corps (RVC) Centre & College in Meerut Cantonment, Uttar Pradesh. This facility has been specifically developed with high biosecurity standards to maintain a disease-free equine population. Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary purpose of the Equine Disease-Free Compartment is to facilitate the international trade and movement of Indian horses, particularly for equestrian sports and export. India is replicating this compartmentalisation model for the poultry sector to enable the export of poultry products, the EDFC itself is for equines, not poultry. Statement 3 is correct. The compartment has been officially declared free from several key equine diseases, including Equine Influenza, Glanders, Surra, Equine Piroplasmosis, and Equine Infectious Anemia. Furthermore, India has maintained its freedom from African Horse Sickness since 2014, a status that contributes to the high health standing of the animals in the EDFC.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India’s first Equine Disease-Free Compartment (EDFC):

• The EDFC has been established at the Remount Veterinary Corps (RVC) Centre in Meerut.

• Its recognition by the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH) is primarily aimed at boosting the export of Indian poultry products.

• The compartment has been declared free from diseases such as Glanders and African Horse Sickness.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The EDFC is located at the Remount Veterinary Corps (RVC) Centre & College in Meerut Cantonment, Uttar Pradesh. This facility has been specifically developed with high biosecurity standards to maintain a disease-free equine population.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary purpose of the Equine Disease-Free Compartment is to facilitate the international trade and movement of Indian horses, particularly for equestrian sports and export. India is replicating this compartmentalisation model for the poultry sector to enable the export of poultry products, the EDFC itself is for equines, not poultry.

• Statement 3 is correct. The compartment has been officially declared free from several key equine diseases, including Equine Influenza, Glanders, Surra, Equine Piroplasmosis, and Equine Infectious Anemia. Furthermore, India has maintained its freedom from African Horse Sickness since 2014, a status that contributes to the high health standing of the animals in the EDFC.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Aluminium Vision Document 2047: It aims to make India self-reliant in aluminium by primarily focusing on increasing imports of bauxite. The document emphasizes a circular economy by targeting a doubling of India’s aluminium recycling rate. It identifies aluminium as a critical mineral for India’s transition to clean energy. The vision was published by the National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO) in collaboration with the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The document aims for self-reliance by boosting domestic bauxite production capacity to 150 MTPA to ensure raw material security, not by increasing imports. The goal is to leverage India’s own resources. Statement 2 is correct. A key feature of the vision is the push for a circular economy. It explicitly plans to double the aluminium recycling rate, which reduces energy consumption and dependence on primary extraction of bauxite. Statement 3 is correct. The document highlights the strategic importance of aluminium, identifying it as a critical mineral. Its use is vital for clean energy sectors (like solar panels and wind turbines), electric vehicles (EVs), defence applications, and modern infrastructure. Statement 4 is incorrect. The vision document was unveiled by the Union Coal and Mines Minister and published by the Ministry of Coal and Mines, Government of India. It is a governmental policy roadmap, not a publication by a specific Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) like NALCO or the Ministry of Environment. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The document aims for self-reliance by boosting domestic bauxite production capacity to 150 MTPA to ensure raw material security, not by increasing imports. The goal is to leverage India’s own resources. Statement 2 is correct. A key feature of the vision is the push for a circular economy. It explicitly plans to double the aluminium recycling rate, which reduces energy consumption and dependence on primary extraction of bauxite. Statement 3 is correct. The document highlights the strategic importance of aluminium, identifying it as a critical mineral. Its use is vital for clean energy sectors (like solar panels and wind turbines), electric vehicles (EVs), defence applications, and modern infrastructure. Statement 4 is incorrect. The vision document was unveiled by the Union Coal and Mines Minister and published by the Ministry of Coal and Mines, Government of India. It is a governmental policy roadmap, not a publication by a specific Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) like NALCO or the Ministry of Environment.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about the Aluminium Vision Document 2047:

• It aims to make India self-reliant in aluminium by primarily focusing on increasing imports of bauxite.

• The document emphasizes a circular economy by targeting a doubling of India’s aluminium recycling rate.

• It identifies aluminium as a critical mineral for India’s transition to clean energy.

• The vision was published by the National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO) in collaboration with the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The document aims for self-reliance by boosting domestic bauxite production capacity to 150 MTPA to ensure raw material security, not by increasing imports. The goal is to leverage India’s own resources.

• Statement 2 is correct. A key feature of the vision is the push for a circular economy. It explicitly plans to double the aluminium recycling rate, which reduces energy consumption and dependence on primary extraction of bauxite.

• Statement 3 is correct. The document highlights the strategic importance of aluminium, identifying it as a critical mineral. Its use is vital for clean energy sectors (like solar panels and wind turbines), electric vehicles (EVs), defence applications, and modern infrastructure.

Statement 4 is incorrect. The vision document was unveiled by the Union Coal and Mines Minister and published by the Ministry of Coal and Mines, Government of India. It is a governmental policy roadmap, not a publication by a specific Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) like NALCO or the Ministry of Environment.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR). Statement-I: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses the Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR) auction to inject liquidity into the banking system when there is a deficit. Statement-II: The interest rate in a VRRR auction is market-determined through competitive bidding by banks, but it is capped at the prevailing Repo Rate. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. The primary function of a Reverse Repo operation, including the VRRR, is to absorb excess liquidity from the banking system, not to inject it. When banks have surplus funds, they lend them to the RBI through the reverse repo window. To inject liquidity, the RBI uses tools like the Repo auction or Variable Rate Repo (VRR) auction. Statement-II is correct. Unlike the fixed-rate reverse repo, the interest rate for VRRR is not predetermined by the RBI. It is discovered through an auction process where banks submit bids. This rate is market-driven. However, the VRRR rate cannot go above the Repo Rate, as the Repo Rate acts as the effective ceiling for the short-term interest rate corridor in the monetary policy framework. If the VRRR rate were higher than the repo rate, it would create an arbitrage opportunity. Incorrect Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. The primary function of a Reverse Repo operation, including the VRRR, is to absorb excess liquidity from the banking system, not to inject it. When banks have surplus funds, they lend them to the RBI through the reverse repo window. To inject liquidity, the RBI uses tools like the Repo auction or Variable Rate Repo (VRR) auction. Statement-II is correct. Unlike the fixed-rate reverse repo, the interest rate for VRRR is not predetermined by the RBI. It is discovered through an auction process where banks submit bids. This rate is market-driven. However, the VRRR rate cannot go above the Repo Rate, as the Repo Rate acts as the effective ceiling for the short-term interest rate corridor in the monetary policy framework. If the VRRR rate were higher than the repo rate, it would create an arbitrage opportunity.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR).

Statement-I: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses the Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR) auction to inject liquidity into the banking system when there is a deficit.

Statement-II: The interest rate in a VRRR auction is market-determined through competitive bidding by banks, but it is capped at the prevailing Repo Rate.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: D

• Statement-I is incorrect. The primary function of a Reverse Repo operation, including the VRRR, is to absorb excess liquidity from the banking system, not to inject it. When banks have surplus funds, they lend them to the RBI through the reverse repo window. To inject liquidity, the RBI uses tools like the Repo auction or Variable Rate Repo (VRR) auction.

Statement-II is correct. Unlike the fixed-rate reverse repo, the interest rate for VRRR is not predetermined by the RBI. It is discovered through an auction process where banks submit bids. This rate is market-driven. However, the VRRR rate cannot go above the Repo Rate, as the Repo Rate acts as the effective ceiling for the short-term interest rate corridor in the monetary policy framework. If the VRRR rate were higher than the repo rate, it would create an arbitrage opportunity.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points With reference to the WHO 3 by 35 Initiative, consider the following statements: The initiative aims to triple the taxes on tobacco, alcohol, and sugary drinks by the year 2035. It is exclusively focused on improving public health by curbing noncommunicable diseases (NCDs), with no specific revenue generation targets. The initiative promotes a uniform taxation policy to be implemented by all member countries. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The initiative’s goal is not to “triple the taxes” but to increase the real prices of tobacco, alcohol, and sugary drinks by at least 50% through higher taxes by the year 2035. The focus is on the final price impact on consumers, not a specific tax multiplication factor. Statement 2 is incorrect. The initiative has a dual objective. While improving public health by reducing consumption of harmful products and thereby curbing NCDs is a primary goal, it also has a very specific and significant revenue generation target. It aims to mobilize substantial additional public revenue (up to US$ 3.7 trillion within 5 years) to support Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). Statement 3 is incorrect. The initiative does not advocate for a uniform, one-size-fits-all taxation policy. It explicitly adopts a country-specific approach, providing technical, legal, and administrative support to tailor policies to national contexts and priorities. This flexibility is crucial for successful implementation across diverse economic and political landscapes. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The initiative’s goal is not to “triple the taxes” but to increase the real prices of tobacco, alcohol, and sugary drinks by at least 50% through higher taxes by the year 2035. The focus is on the final price impact on consumers, not a specific tax multiplication factor. Statement 2 is incorrect. The initiative has a dual objective. While improving public health by reducing consumption of harmful products and thereby curbing NCDs is a primary goal, it also has a very specific and significant revenue generation target. It aims to mobilize substantial additional public revenue (up to US$ 3.7 trillion within 5 years) to support Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). Statement 3 is incorrect. The initiative does not advocate for a uniform, one-size-fits-all taxation policy. It explicitly adopts a country-specific approach, providing technical, legal, and administrative support to tailor policies to national contexts and priorities. This flexibility is crucial for successful implementation across diverse economic and political landscapes.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the WHO 3 by 35 Initiative, consider the following statements:

• The initiative aims to triple the taxes on tobacco, alcohol, and sugary drinks by the year 2035.

• It is exclusively focused on improving public health by curbing noncommunicable diseases (NCDs), with no specific revenue generation targets.

• The initiative promotes a uniform taxation policy to be implemented by all member countries.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The initiative’s goal is not to “triple the taxes” but to increase the real prices of tobacco, alcohol, and sugary drinks by at least 50% through higher taxes by the year 2035. The focus is on the final price impact on consumers, not a specific tax multiplication factor.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The initiative has a dual objective. While improving public health by reducing consumption of harmful products and thereby curbing NCDs is a primary goal, it also has a very specific and significant revenue generation target. It aims to mobilize substantial additional public revenue (up to US$ 3.7 trillion within 5 years) to support Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

Statement 3 is incorrect. The initiative does not advocate for a uniform, one-size-fits-all taxation policy. It explicitly adopts a country-specific approach, providing technical, legal, and administrative support to tailor policies to national contexts and priorities. This flexibility is crucial for successful implementation across diverse economic and political landscapes.

Solution: D

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the musical form ‘Chautal’: It is a rhythmic cycle (tāl) exclusively used in the Carnatic music tradition. The name ‘Chautal’ refers to its structure of four claps, corresponding to four vibhags or divisions. The primary percussion instrument associated with Chautal is the Tabla. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Chautal is a prominent tāl in the North Indian (Hindustani) classical music tradition, not Carnatic music. It is especially associated with the ancient and austere Dhrupad style of singing and instrumental music. Statement 2 is correct. The name ‘Chautal’ literally translates to “four claps” (chau means four, tal means clap/rhythm). This refers to one school of thought regarding its structure, which has four vibhags (divisions) marked by claps, emphasizing its strong and assertive rhythmic character. Statement 3 is incorrect. The principal percussion instrument that accompanies Chautal is the Pakhawaj, a two-headed barrel-shaped drum. The Pakhawaj’s deep, resonant sound is considered more suitable for the gravitas of the Dhrupad style and Chautal’s powerful rhythm than the Tabla, which is more commonly associated with Khayal and other lighter forms of Hindustani music. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Chautal is a prominent tāl in the North Indian (Hindustani) classical music tradition, not Carnatic music. It is especially associated with the ancient and austere Dhrupad style of singing and instrumental music. Statement 2 is correct. The name ‘Chautal’ literally translates to “four claps” (chau means four, tal means clap/rhythm). This refers to one school of thought regarding its structure, which has four vibhags (divisions) marked by claps, emphasizing its strong and assertive rhythmic character. Statement 3 is incorrect. The principal percussion instrument that accompanies Chautal is the Pakhawaj, a two-headed barrel-shaped drum. The Pakhawaj’s deep, resonant sound is considered more suitable for the gravitas of the Dhrupad style and Chautal’s powerful rhythm than the Tabla, which is more commonly associated with Khayal and other lighter forms of Hindustani music.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the musical form ‘Chautal’:

• It is a rhythmic cycle (tāl) exclusively used in the Carnatic music tradition.

• The name ‘Chautal’ refers to its structure of four claps, corresponding to four vibhags or divisions.

• The primary percussion instrument associated with Chautal is the Tabla.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Chautal is a prominent tāl in the North Indian (Hindustani) classical music tradition, not Carnatic music. It is especially associated with the ancient and austere Dhrupad style of singing and instrumental music.

• Statement 2 is correct. The name ‘Chautal’ literally translates to “four claps” (chau means four, tal means clap/rhythm). This refers to one school of thought regarding its structure, which has four vibhags (divisions) marked by claps, emphasizing its strong and assertive rhythmic character.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The principal percussion instrument that accompanies Chautal is the Pakhawaj, a two-headed barrel-shaped drum. The Pakhawaj’s deep, resonant sound is considered more suitable for the gravitas of the Dhrupad style and Chautal’s powerful rhythm than the Tabla, which is more commonly associated with Khayal and other lighter forms of Hindustani music.

Solution: A

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Alluri Sitarama Raju was inspired by Mahatma Gandhi’s Non-Cooperation Movement, yet he ultimately adopted armed resistance. This shift in strategy was primarily a response to: (a) The failure of the Round Table Conferences to grant dominion status. (b) The immediate impact of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre on the tribal population. (c) The inability of peaceful protests to reverse the exploitative Madras Forest Act, 1882. (d) A direct call for armed struggle by the Indian National Congress. Correct Solution: C While Alluri Sitarama Raju was initially influenced by Gandhian ideals and promoted the boycott of colonial institutions, his primary struggle was rooted in local tribal grievances. The cornerstone of this struggle was the Madras Forest Act, 1882. This act criminalized the traditional Podu (shifting) cultivation, displaced tribals from their ancestral lands, and subjected them to forced labour (vetti). Raju and the tribals initially engaged in peaceful protests and panchayats to seek justice, in line with the non-cooperation spirit. However, when these methods proved futile and the British administration remained unresponsive and oppressive, Raju concluded that armed resistance was the only viable option to protect tribal rights and dignity. The Rampa Rebellion was a direct consequence of this conclusion. Incorrect Solution: C While Alluri Sitarama Raju was initially influenced by Gandhian ideals and promoted the boycott of colonial institutions, his primary struggle was rooted in local tribal grievances. The cornerstone of this struggle was the Madras Forest Act, 1882. This act criminalized the traditional Podu (shifting) cultivation, displaced tribals from their ancestral lands, and subjected them to forced labour (vetti). Raju and the tribals initially engaged in peaceful protests and panchayats to seek justice, in line with the non-cooperation spirit. However, when these methods proved futile and the British administration remained unresponsive and oppressive, Raju concluded that armed resistance was the only viable option to protect tribal rights and dignity. The Rampa Rebellion was a direct consequence of this conclusion.

#### 7. Question

Alluri Sitarama Raju was inspired by Mahatma Gandhi’s Non-Cooperation Movement, yet he ultimately adopted armed resistance. This shift in strategy was primarily a response to:

• (a) The failure of the Round Table Conferences to grant dominion status.

• (b) The immediate impact of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre on the tribal population.

• (c) The inability of peaceful protests to reverse the exploitative Madras Forest Act, 1882.

• (d) A direct call for armed struggle by the Indian National Congress.

Solution: C

• While Alluri Sitarama Raju was initially influenced by Gandhian ideals and promoted the boycott of colonial institutions, his primary struggle was rooted in local tribal grievances. The cornerstone of this struggle was the Madras Forest Act, 1882. This act criminalized the traditional Podu (shifting) cultivation, displaced tribals from their ancestral lands, and subjected them to forced labour (vetti).

• Raju and the tribals initially engaged in peaceful protests and panchayats to seek justice, in line with the non-cooperation spirit. However, when these methods proved futile and the British administration remained unresponsive and oppressive, Raju concluded that armed resistance was the only viable option to protect tribal rights and dignity. The Rampa Rebellion was a direct consequence of this conclusion.

Solution: C

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the geography of Argentina: It is a landlocked country, bordered by the Andes mountains to the east. The Paraná and Uruguay are two of its major rivers. Mount Aconcagua, located in Argentina, is the highest peak outside of Asia. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Argentina is not landlocked. It has an extensive coastline of about 4,700 km along the Atlantic Ocean to the east. The Andes mountains form its western border with Chile, not its eastern one. Statement 2 is correct. The Paraná River and the Uruguay River are two of the most significant rivers in Argentina, forming a major part of the Rio de la Plata basin, which is crucial for the country’s agriculture and economy. Statement 3 is correct. Mount Aconcagua, situated in the Andes mountain range within Argentina, stands at 6,959 meters (22,831 feet). It is the highest peak in the Western and Southern Hemispheres, and consequently, the highest peak in the world outside of Asia. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Argentina is not landlocked. It has an extensive coastline of about 4,700 km along the Atlantic Ocean to the east. The Andes mountains form its western border with Chile, not its eastern one. Statement 2 is correct. The Paraná River and the Uruguay River are two of the most significant rivers in Argentina, forming a major part of the Rio de la Plata basin, which is crucial for the country’s agriculture and economy. Statement 3 is correct. Mount Aconcagua, situated in the Andes mountain range within Argentina, stands at 6,959 meters (22,831 feet). It is the highest peak in the Western and Southern Hemispheres, and consequently, the highest peak in the world outside of Asia.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about the geography of Argentina:

• It is a landlocked country, bordered by the Andes mountains to the east.

• The Paraná and Uruguay are two of its major rivers.

• Mount Aconcagua, located in Argentina, is the highest peak outside of Asia.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Argentina is not landlocked. It has an extensive coastline of about 4,700 km along the Atlantic Ocean to the east. The Andes mountains form its western border with Chile, not its eastern one.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Paraná River and the Uruguay River are two of the most significant rivers in Argentina, forming a major part of the Rio de la Plata basin, which is crucial for the country’s agriculture and economy.

Statement 3 is correct. Mount Aconcagua, situated in the Andes mountain range within Argentina, stands at 6,959 meters (22,831 feet). It is the highest peak in the Western and Southern Hemispheres, and consequently, the highest peak in the world outside of Asia.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India’s coffee exports and production: India’s coffee exports have witnessed a consistent and sharp increase over the last two fiscal years. India is among the top five coffee producers globally. The majority of coffee grown in India is of the Arabica variety, known for its mild acidity. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. There is a significant surge in India’s coffee exports, with over 25% growth in the current fiscal year (FY2025-26), which followed a record-breaking 40% growth in the previous year (FY2024-25). This indicates a strong and consistent upward trend in export performance. Statement 2 is incorrect. India is the 7th largest coffee producer globally, contributing about 3.5% to world production. While it is a significant producer, it is not within the top five. Statement 3 is incorrect. Although India produces high-quality Arabica, the majority of its production is Robusta. Historically and currently, Robusta accounts for a larger share of India’s total coffee output (typically around 70% or more), while Arabica constitutes the smaller, premium share. Both are grown under shade. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. There is a significant surge in India’s coffee exports, with over 25% growth in the current fiscal year (FY2025-26), which followed a record-breaking 40% growth in the previous year (FY2024-25). This indicates a strong and consistent upward trend in export performance. Statement 2 is incorrect. India is the 7th largest coffee producer globally, contributing about 3.5% to world production. While it is a significant producer, it is not within the top five. Statement 3 is incorrect. Although India produces high-quality Arabica, the majority of its production is Robusta. Historically and currently, Robusta accounts for a larger share of India’s total coffee output (typically around 70% or more), while Arabica constitutes the smaller, premium share. Both are grown under shade.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India’s coffee exports and production:

• India’s coffee exports have witnessed a consistent and sharp increase over the last two fiscal years.

• India is among the top five coffee producers globally.

• The majority of coffee grown in India is of the Arabica variety, known for its mild acidity.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. There is a significant surge in India’s coffee exports, with over 25% growth in the current fiscal year (FY2025-26), which followed a record-breaking 40% growth in the previous year (FY2024-25). This indicates a strong and consistent upward trend in export performance.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. India is the 7th largest coffee producer globally, contributing about 3.5% to world production. While it is a significant producer, it is not within the top five.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Although India produces high-quality Arabica, the majority of its production is Robusta. Historically and currently, Robusta accounts for a larger share of India’s total coffee output (typically around 70% or more), while Arabica constitutes the smaller, premium share. Both are grown under shade.

Solution: A

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the geopolitical and military alliance, NATO: It was established in the immediate aftermath of World War I to ensure collective security in Europe. Article 5 of the North Atlantic Treaty states that an attack against one member shall be considered an attack against all. Sweden was the most recent country to join the alliance. The North Atlantic Council is the alliance’s principal military command body, responsible for operational planning. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. NATO was established in 1949, after World War II, not World War I. Its primary purpose during the Cold War was to provide a collective defence mechanism against the perceived threat of Soviet expansionism. Statement 2 is correct. Article 5 is the cornerstone of the NATO alliance. It enshrines the principle of collective defence, meaning an armed attack against one or more of its members in Europe or North America is considered an attack against them all. It was invoked for the first time after the September 11, 2001 attacks on the United States. Statement 3 is correct. With its official accession in March 2024, Sweden became the 32nd member of the alliance, following Finland’s entry in 2023. This expansion was a direct response to the changed security landscape in Europe after Russia’s 2022 invasion of Ukraine. Statement 4 is incorrect. The North Atlantic Council (NAC) is the principal political decision-making body of NATO. Operational planning is directed by the alliance’s strategic military commands, primarily Allied Command Operations (ACO). The NAC sets the strategy, while the military commands execute it. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. NATO was established in 1949, after World War II, not World War I. Its primary purpose during the Cold War was to provide a collective defence mechanism against the perceived threat of Soviet expansionism. Statement 2 is correct. Article 5 is the cornerstone of the NATO alliance. It enshrines the principle of collective defence, meaning an armed attack against one or more of its members in Europe or North America is considered an attack against them all. It was invoked for the first time after the September 11, 2001 attacks on the United States. Statement 3 is correct. With its official accession in March 2024, Sweden became the 32nd member of the alliance, following Finland’s entry in 2023. This expansion was a direct response to the changed security landscape in Europe after Russia’s 2022 invasion of Ukraine. Statement 4 is incorrect. The North Atlantic Council (NAC) is the principal political decision-making body of NATO. Operational planning is directed by the alliance’s strategic military commands, primarily Allied Command Operations (ACO). The NAC sets the strategy, while the military commands execute it.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about the geopolitical and military alliance, NATO:

• It was established in the immediate aftermath of World War I to ensure collective security in Europe.

• Article 5 of the North Atlantic Treaty states that an attack against one member shall be considered an attack against all.

• Sweden was the most recent country to join the alliance.

• The North Atlantic Council is the alliance’s principal military command body, responsible for operational planning.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. NATO was established in 1949, after World War II, not World War I. Its primary purpose during the Cold War was to provide a collective defence mechanism against the perceived threat of Soviet expansionism.

• Statement 2 is correct. Article 5 is the cornerstone of the NATO alliance. It enshrines the principle of collective defence, meaning an armed attack against one or more of its members in Europe or North America is considered an attack against them all. It was invoked for the first time after the September 11, 2001 attacks on the United States.

• Statement 3 is correct. With its official accession in March 2024, Sweden became the 32nd member of the alliance, following Finland’s entry in 2023. This expansion was a direct response to the changed security landscape in Europe after Russia’s 2022 invasion of Ukraine.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The North Atlantic Council (NAC) is the principal political decision-making body of NATO. Operational planning is directed by the alliance’s strategic military commands, primarily Allied Command Operations (ACO). The NAC sets the strategy, while the military commands execute it.

Solution: B

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