UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 7 August 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Regarding the BrahMos missile, which one of the following statements is correct? (a) It is a subsonic cruise missile developed jointly by India and Israel. (b) The missile has a uniform flight trajectory, making it predictable for enemy air defence systems. (c) It can only be launched from land-based mobile launchers and naval warships. (d) The missile’s high kinetic energy upon impact is a result of its supersonic speed throughout its flight. Correct Solution: D The BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile, not subsonic, and it was jointly developed by India’s DRDO and Russia’s NPOM. Its high speed (Mach 2.8–3.0) gives it a significant tactical advantage. One of its key features is its multiple flight trajectories, which can be high, low, or mixed, making it less predictable for enemy radar and air defence systems. This flexibility allows it to adapt to different tactical scenarios. The missile is a versatile platform and can be launched from land, air, sea, and sub-sea platforms, making it a truly universal missile. Due to its high mass and supersonic speed, the BrahMos missile possesses immense kinetic energy (nine times more than subsonic missiles), which contributes significantly to its destructive power upon impact, even with a conventional warhead. This high kinetic energy ensures a high kill probability against hardened and high-value targets. Incorrect Solution: D The BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile, not subsonic, and it was jointly developed by India’s DRDO and Russia’s NPOM. Its high speed (Mach 2.8–3.0) gives it a significant tactical advantage. One of its key features is its multiple flight trajectories, which can be high, low, or mixed, making it less predictable for enemy radar and air defence systems. This flexibility allows it to adapt to different tactical scenarios. The missile is a versatile platform and can be launched from land, air, sea, and sub-sea platforms, making it a truly universal missile. Due to its high mass and supersonic speed, the BrahMos missile possesses immense kinetic energy (nine times more than subsonic missiles), which contributes significantly to its destructive power upon impact, even with a conventional warhead. This high kinetic energy ensures a high kill probability against hardened and high-value targets.

#### 1. Question

Regarding the BrahMos missile, which one of the following statements is correct?

• (a) It is a subsonic cruise missile developed jointly by India and Israel.

• (b) The missile has a uniform flight trajectory, making it predictable for enemy air defence systems.

• (c) It can only be launched from land-based mobile launchers and naval warships.

• (d) The missile’s high kinetic energy upon impact is a result of its supersonic speed throughout its flight.

Solution: D

• The BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile, not subsonic, and it was jointly developed by India’s DRDO and Russia’s NPOM. Its high speed (Mach 2.8–3.0) gives it a significant tactical advantage.

• One of its key features is its multiple flight trajectories, which can be high, low, or mixed, making it less predictable for enemy radar and air defence systems. This flexibility allows it to adapt to different tactical scenarios.

• The missile is a versatile platform and can be launched from land, air, sea, and sub-sea platforms, making it a truly universal missile.

• Due to its high mass and supersonic speed, the BrahMos missile possesses immense kinetic energy (nine times more than subsonic missiles), which contributes significantly to its destructive power upon impact, even with a conventional warhead. This high kinetic energy ensures a high kill probability against hardened and high-value targets.

Solution: D

• The missile is a versatile platform and can be launched from land, air, sea, and sub-sea platforms, making it a truly universal missile.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Nilgiri Tahr: It is endemic to the entire stretch of the Western Ghats, from Gujarat to Kerala. The animal is listed as ‘Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List and is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The males are distinguished by a prominent silver saddle patch on their backs. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Nilgiri Tahr is endemic to the Southern Western Ghats, specifically a 400 km stretch from the Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu to the Kanyakumari hills, and parts of Kerala. Its habitat does not extend to the northern parts of the Western Ghats in states like Gujarat or Maharashtra. It is a specialist species adapted to the montane grasslands and shola forest edges at high altitudes (1,200 to 2,600 m). Statement 2 is correct. The Nilgiri Tahr faces significant threats from habitat loss and poaching, which has led to its classification as ‘Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List. To provide it with the highest level of legal protection in India, it is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which prohibits its hunting and trade. Statement 3 is correct. A key distinguishing feature of the adult male Nilgiri Tahr is the development of a light grey area on its back, which is known as a ‘saddle patch’. This patch becomes more prominent as the male matures and is a clear indicator of its age and dominance, making it visually distinct from females and younger males. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Nilgiri Tahr is endemic to the Southern Western Ghats, specifically a 400 km stretch from the Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu to the Kanyakumari hills, and parts of Kerala. Its habitat does not extend to the northern parts of the Western Ghats in states like Gujarat or Maharashtra. It is a specialist species adapted to the montane grasslands and shola forest edges at high altitudes (1,200 to 2,600 m). Statement 2 is correct. The Nilgiri Tahr faces significant threats from habitat loss and poaching, which has led to its classification as ‘Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List. To provide it with the highest level of legal protection in India, it is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which prohibits its hunting and trade. Statement 3 is correct. A key distinguishing feature of the adult male Nilgiri Tahr is the development of a light grey area on its back, which is known as a ‘saddle patch’. This patch becomes more prominent as the male matures and is a clear indicator of its age and dominance, making it visually distinct from females and younger males.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Nilgiri Tahr:

• It is endemic to the entire stretch of the Western Ghats, from Gujarat to Kerala.

• The animal is listed as ‘Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List and is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

• The males are distinguished by a prominent silver saddle patch on their backs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Nilgiri Tahr is endemic to the Southern Western Ghats, specifically a 400 km stretch from the Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu to the Kanyakumari hills, and parts of Kerala. Its habitat does not extend to the northern parts of the Western Ghats in states like Gujarat or Maharashtra. It is a specialist species adapted to the montane grasslands and shola forest edges at high altitudes (1,200 to 2,600 m).

• Statement 2 is correct. The Nilgiri Tahr faces significant threats from habitat loss and poaching, which has led to its classification as ‘Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List. To provide it with the highest level of legal protection in India, it is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which prohibits its hunting and trade.

• Statement 3 is correct. A key distinguishing feature of the adult male Nilgiri Tahr is the development of a light grey area on its back, which is known as a ‘saddle patch’. This patch becomes more prominent as the male matures and is a clear indicator of its age and dominance, making it visually distinct from females and younger males.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to President’s Rule in India, consider the following statements: A proclamation of President’s Rule must be approved by both Houses of Parliament by a special majority. Once approved, the rule can be extended for a maximum period of one year with parliamentary approval. The S.R. Bommai case judgement by the Supreme Court has limited the scope of judicial review over the imposition of Article 356. The State Assembly is either dissolved or kept in suspended animation upon the imposition of President’s Rule. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. A proclamation of President’s Rule requires approval by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha within two months by a simple majority, not a special majority. A simple majority means a majority of the members of that House present and voting. Statement 2 is incorrect. President’s Rule can be extended for a maximum period of three years, subject to parliamentary approval every six months. However, for any extension beyond one year, two specific conditions must be met: a National Emergency must be in operation in India or the Election Commission must certify that holding elections to the state assembly is difficult. Statement 3 is incorrect. The landmark R. Bommai vs. Union of India (1994) case significantly expanded the scope of judicial review over the imposition of President’s Rule. The Supreme Court ruled that the President’s satisfaction is subject to judicial scrutiny and can be struck down if it is found to be mala fide or based on irrelevant or extraneous grounds. Statement 4 is correct. When President’s Rule is imposed, the Council of Ministers in the state is dismissed. The State Legislative Assembly is either dissolved, which means fresh elections must be held, or it is kept in suspended animation, which allows for the possibility of its revival later. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. A proclamation of President’s Rule requires approval by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha within two months by a simple majority, not a special majority. A simple majority means a majority of the members of that House present and voting. Statement 2 is incorrect. President’s Rule can be extended for a maximum period of three years, subject to parliamentary approval every six months. However, for any extension beyond one year, two specific conditions must be met: a National Emergency must be in operation in India or the Election Commission must certify that holding elections to the state assembly is difficult. Statement 3 is incorrect. The landmark R. Bommai vs. Union of India (1994) case significantly expanded the scope of judicial review over the imposition of President’s Rule. The Supreme Court ruled that the President’s satisfaction is subject to judicial scrutiny and can be struck down if it is found to be mala fide or based on irrelevant or extraneous grounds. Statement 4 is correct. When President’s Rule is imposed, the Council of Ministers in the state is dismissed. The State Legislative Assembly is either dissolved, which means fresh elections must be held, or it is kept in suspended animation, which allows for the possibility of its revival later.

#### 3. Question

With reference to President’s Rule in India, consider the following statements:

• A proclamation of President’s Rule must be approved by both Houses of Parliament by a special majority.

• Once approved, the rule can be extended for a maximum period of one year with parliamentary approval.

• The S.R. Bommai case judgement by the Supreme Court has limited the scope of judicial review over the imposition of Article 356.

• The State Assembly is either dissolved or kept in suspended animation upon the imposition of President’s Rule.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. A proclamation of President’s Rule requires approval by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha within two months by a simple majority, not a special majority. A simple majority means a majority of the members of that House present and voting.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. President’s Rule can be extended for a maximum period of three years, subject to parliamentary approval every six months. However, for any extension beyond one year, two specific conditions must be met: a National Emergency must be in operation in India or the Election Commission must certify that holding elections to the state assembly is difficult.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The landmark R. Bommai vs. Union of India (1994) case significantly expanded the scope of judicial review over the imposition of President’s Rule. The Supreme Court ruled that the President’s satisfaction is subject to judicial scrutiny and can be struck down if it is found to be mala fide or based on irrelevant or extraneous grounds.

Statement 4 is correct. When President’s Rule is imposed, the Council of Ministers in the state is dismissed. The State Legislative Assembly is either dissolved, which means fresh elections must be held, or it is kept in suspended animation, which allows for the possibility of its revival later.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to the Sunflower Sea Star, consider the following statements: It is a slow-moving, herbivorous creature that primarily feeds on kelp and algae. The mass die-off of this species was caused by a viral pathogen that thrived in colder ocean temperatures. The decline of the Sunflower Sea Star has led to a trophic cascade, resulting in the collapse of kelp forests. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sunflower Sea Star (Pycnopodia helianthoides) is a large and fast-moving predator, not a slow herbivore. It plays the role of a top predator in its ecosystem, feeding on a variety of invertebrates, most notably sea urchins. Its ability to move quickly (up to 1 meter per minute) makes it an effective hunter. Statement 2 is incorrect. The cause of the Sea Star Wasting Disease (SSWD) was identified as a bacterium, specifically Vibrio pectenicida, not a virus. This pathogen thrives in warmer ocean conditions, which raises concerns about the impact of climate change on marine diseases. The warming waters exacerbate the spread and lethality of the disease. Statement 3 is correct. The Sunflower Sea Star is a keystone species because its predation on sea urchins kept their populations in check. With the massive decline of the sea stars, the sea urchin population exploded. These urchins graze heavily on kelp, leading to the devastation of vast kelp forests, particularly in areas like Northern California. This is a classic example of a trophic cascade, where the removal of a top predator leads to drastic changes in the ecosystem structure. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sunflower Sea Star (Pycnopodia helianthoides) is a large and fast-moving predator, not a slow herbivore. It plays the role of a top predator in its ecosystem, feeding on a variety of invertebrates, most notably sea urchins. Its ability to move quickly (up to 1 meter per minute) makes it an effective hunter. Statement 2 is incorrect. The cause of the Sea Star Wasting Disease (SSWD) was identified as a bacterium, specifically Vibrio pectenicida, not a virus. This pathogen thrives in warmer ocean conditions, which raises concerns about the impact of climate change on marine diseases. The warming waters exacerbate the spread and lethality of the disease. Statement 3 is correct. The Sunflower Sea Star is a keystone species because its predation on sea urchins kept their populations in check. With the massive decline of the sea stars, the sea urchin population exploded. These urchins graze heavily on kelp, leading to the devastation of vast kelp forests, particularly in areas like Northern California. This is a classic example of a trophic cascade, where the removal of a top predator leads to drastic changes in the ecosystem structure.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the Sunflower Sea Star, consider the following statements:

• It is a slow-moving, herbivorous creature that primarily feeds on kelp and algae.

• The mass die-off of this species was caused by a viral pathogen that thrived in colder ocean temperatures.

• The decline of the Sunflower Sea Star has led to a trophic cascade, resulting in the collapse of kelp forests.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sunflower Sea Star (Pycnopodia helianthoides) is a large and fast-moving predator, not a slow herbivore. It plays the role of a top predator in its ecosystem, feeding on a variety of invertebrates, most notably sea urchins. Its ability to move quickly (up to 1 meter per minute) makes it an effective hunter.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The cause of the Sea Star Wasting Disease (SSWD) was identified as a bacterium, specifically Vibrio pectenicida, not a virus. This pathogen thrives in warmer ocean conditions, which raises concerns about the impact of climate change on marine diseases. The warming waters exacerbate the spread and lethality of the disease.

Statement 3 is correct. The Sunflower Sea Star is a keystone species because its predation on sea urchins kept their populations in check. With the massive decline of the sea stars, the sea urchin population exploded. These urchins graze heavily on kelp, leading to the devastation of vast kelp forests, particularly in areas like Northern California. This is a classic example of a trophic cascade, where the removal of a top predator leads to drastic changes in the ecosystem structure.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points The “Haat on Wheels” initiative is significant primarily because it: (a) Provides subsidies to weavers for purchasing raw materials. (b) Focuses on exporting handloom products to international markets. (c) Aims to connect weavers directly with urban consumers, enhancing their livelihood. (d) Promotes the use of power looms over traditional handlooms for greater efficiency. Correct Solution: C The primary significance of the “Haat on Wheels” initiative lies in its innovative direct-to-consumer model. By using mobile vans to take authentic handloom products to markets, residential areas, and cultural spaces in urban centers like Delhi NCR, the initiative addresses a key challenge for weavers: market access. It effectively cuts out middlemen, allowing weavers to get a better price for their products and thus enhancing their livelihood security. While it promotes the “vocal for local” theme and boosts awareness of cultural heritage, its core function and impact are centered on creating a direct and profitable linkage between the producers (weavers) and the buyers (urban consumers). It does not focus on subsidies for raw materials, exports, or promoting power looms; in fact, its purpose is to preserve and promote the traditional handloom sector. Incorrect Solution: C The primary significance of the “Haat on Wheels” initiative lies in its innovative direct-to-consumer model. By using mobile vans to take authentic handloom products to markets, residential areas, and cultural spaces in urban centers like Delhi NCR, the initiative addresses a key challenge for weavers: market access. It effectively cuts out middlemen, allowing weavers to get a better price for their products and thus enhancing their livelihood security. While it promotes the “vocal for local” theme and boosts awareness of cultural heritage, its core function and impact are centered on creating a direct and profitable linkage between the producers (weavers) and the buyers (urban consumers). It does not focus on subsidies for raw materials, exports, or promoting power looms; in fact, its purpose is to preserve and promote the traditional handloom sector.

#### 5. Question

The “Haat on Wheels” initiative is significant primarily because it:

• (a) Provides subsidies to weavers for purchasing raw materials.

• (b) Focuses on exporting handloom products to international markets.

• (c) Aims to connect weavers directly with urban consumers, enhancing their livelihood.

• (d) Promotes the use of power looms over traditional handlooms for greater efficiency.

Solution: C

• The primary significance of the “Haat on Wheels” initiative lies in its innovative direct-to-consumer model. By using mobile vans to take authentic handloom products to markets, residential areas, and cultural spaces in urban centers like Delhi NCR, the initiative addresses a key challenge for weavers: market access.

• It effectively cuts out middlemen, allowing weavers to get a better price for their products and thus enhancing their livelihood security. While it promotes the “vocal for local” theme and boosts awareness of cultural heritage, its core function and impact are centered on creating a direct and profitable linkage between the producers (weavers) and the buyers (urban consumers).

It does not focus on subsidies for raw materials, exports, or promoting power looms; in fact, its purpose is to preserve and promote the traditional handloom sector.

Solution: C

It does not focus on subsidies for raw materials, exports, or promoting power looms; in fact, its purpose is to preserve and promote the traditional handloom sector.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Regarding the BrahMos missile system, consider the following statements: It is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster and a liquid-fueled ramjet engine. The name BrahMos is a portmanteau derived from the names of the Brahmaputra river of India and the Moskva river of Russia. Its “fire-and-forget” capability means it can be remotely guided to a new target after launch. The Indian Air Force has integrated the BrahMos missile exclusively with its Mirage 2000 fighter jets. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The BrahMos missile has a two-stage propulsion system. The first stage is a solid propellant booster engine that accelerates it to supersonic speed. After the booster separates, the second stage, a liquid-fueled ramjet engine, ignites and sustains the missile at supersonic speeds (Mach 2.8 to 3.0) throughout its flight path to the target. Statement 2 is correct. The name BrahMos is a symbolic fusion of the two countries involved in its joint development. It is derived from the names of two major rivers: the Brahmaputra of India and the Moskva of Russia, representing the partnership between India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya (NPOM). Statement 3 is incorrect. The “fire-and-forget” principle means that the missile does not require any further guidance from the launch platform after it has been launched. It relies on its own on-board guidance system (like inertial navigation system and active radar homing for the terminal phase) to navigate to and strike the pre-designated target. It cannot be remotely guided to a new target mid-flight. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Indian Air Force has successfully integrated the air-launched version of the BrahMos missile with its frontline Sukhoi Su-30MKI fighter jets, not the Mirage 2000. This integration gives the IAF a formidable stand-off strike capability, allowing it to hit high-value targets from a safe distance over both land and sea. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The BrahMos missile has a two-stage propulsion system. The first stage is a solid propellant booster engine that accelerates it to supersonic speed. After the booster separates, the second stage, a liquid-fueled ramjet engine, ignites and sustains the missile at supersonic speeds (Mach 2.8 to 3.0) throughout its flight path to the target. Statement 2 is correct. The name BrahMos is a symbolic fusion of the two countries involved in its joint development. It is derived from the names of two major rivers: the Brahmaputra of India and the Moskva of Russia, representing the partnership between India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya (NPOM). Statement 3 is incorrect. The “fire-and-forget” principle means that the missile does not require any further guidance from the launch platform after it has been launched. It relies on its own on-board guidance system (like inertial navigation system and active radar homing for the terminal phase) to navigate to and strike the pre-designated target. It cannot be remotely guided to a new target mid-flight. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Indian Air Force has successfully integrated the air-launched version of the BrahMos missile with its frontline Sukhoi Su-30MKI fighter jets, not the Mirage 2000. This integration gives the IAF a formidable stand-off strike capability, allowing it to hit high-value targets from a safe distance over both land and sea.

#### 6. Question

Regarding the BrahMos missile system, consider the following statements:

• It is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster and a liquid-fueled ramjet engine.

• The name BrahMos is a portmanteau derived from the names of the Brahmaputra river of India and the Moskva river of Russia.

• Its “fire-and-forget” capability means it can be remotely guided to a new target after launch.

• The Indian Air Force has integrated the BrahMos missile exclusively with its Mirage 2000 fighter jets.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The BrahMos missile has a two-stage propulsion system. The first stage is a solid propellant booster engine that accelerates it to supersonic speed. After the booster separates, the second stage, a liquid-fueled ramjet engine, ignites and sustains the missile at supersonic speeds (Mach 2.8 to 3.0) throughout its flight path to the target.

• Statement 2 is correct. The name BrahMos is a symbolic fusion of the two countries involved in its joint development. It is derived from the names of two major rivers: the Brahmaputra of India and the Moskva of Russia, representing the partnership between India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya (NPOM).

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The “fire-and-forget” principle means that the missile does not require any further guidance from the launch platform after it has been launched. It relies on its own on-board guidance system (like inertial navigation system and active radar homing for the terminal phase) to navigate to and strike the pre-designated target. It cannot be remotely guided to a new target mid-flight.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The Indian Air Force has successfully integrated the air-launched version of the BrahMos missile with its frontline Sukhoi Su-30MKI fighter jets, not the Mirage 2000. This integration gives the IAF a formidable stand-off strike capability, allowing it to hit high-value targets from a safe distance over both land and sea.

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the legal and constitutional framework of President’s Rule: Article 365 of the Constitution authorizes the President to impose direct rule if a state’s elected government loses its majority in the assembly. A proclamation of President’s Rule ceases to operate after two months if not approved by the Rajya Sabha, even if the Lok Sabha has approved it. The President can revoke the proclamation of President’s Rule at any time without the need for parliamentary approval. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 356 is the primary article that authorizes the President to assume control of a state’s administration when there is a failure of constitutional machinery (which can include the loss of a majority). Article 365 is a supporting provision; it states that if a state fails to comply with any directions given by the Union government, it shall be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. It is about non-compliance with central directives, not directly about losing a majority. Statement 2 is incorrect. For a proclamation of President’s Rule to continue, it must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months. If either House (be it the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha) fails to approve it, the proclamation ceases to operate. The approval of one House is not sufficient. Statement 3 is correct. A proclamation of President’s Rule can be revoked by the President at any time through a subsequent proclamation. Such a revocation does not require the approval of Parliament. This allows for flexibility, for instance, if a stable government can be formed in the state before the end of the six-month period. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 356 is the primary article that authorizes the President to assume control of a state’s administration when there is a failure of constitutional machinery (which can include the loss of a majority). Article 365 is a supporting provision; it states that if a state fails to comply with any directions given by the Union government, it shall be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. It is about non-compliance with central directives, not directly about losing a majority. Statement 2 is incorrect. For a proclamation of President’s Rule to continue, it must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months. If either House (be it the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha) fails to approve it, the proclamation ceases to operate. The approval of one House is not sufficient. Statement 3 is correct. A proclamation of President’s Rule can be revoked by the President at any time through a subsequent proclamation. Such a revocation does not require the approval of Parliament. This allows for flexibility, for instance, if a stable government can be formed in the state before the end of the six-month period.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the legal and constitutional framework of President’s Rule:

• Article 365 of the Constitution authorizes the President to impose direct rule if a state’s elected government loses its majority in the assembly.

• A proclamation of President’s Rule ceases to operate after two months if not approved by the Rajya Sabha, even if the Lok Sabha has approved it.

• The President can revoke the proclamation of President’s Rule at any time without the need for parliamentary approval.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 356 is the primary article that authorizes the President to assume control of a state’s administration when there is a failure of constitutional machinery (which can include the loss of a majority). Article 365 is a supporting provision; it states that if a state fails to comply with any directions given by the Union government, it shall be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. It is about non-compliance with central directives, not directly about losing a majority.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. For a proclamation of President’s Rule to continue, it must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months. If either House (be it the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha) fails to approve it, the proclamation ceases to operate. The approval of one House is not sufficient.

• Statement 3 is correct. A proclamation of President’s Rule can be revoked by the President at any time through a subsequent proclamation. Such a revocation does not require the approval of Parliament. This allows for flexibility, for instance, if a stable government can be formed in the state before the end of the six-month period.

Solution: A

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points With reference to the resignation of the Vice President of India, consider the following statements: The Vice President must address the resignation letter in writing to the Chief Justice of India. The resignation becomes effective once submitted, and no formal acceptance process is needed. V. Giri is a historical example of a Vice President who resigned mid-term to contest the Presidential election. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. As per Article 67(a) of the Constitution, the Vice President must address the resignation letter in writing to the President of India, not the Chief Justice of India. Statement 2 is correct. The constitutional provision states the Vice President may “resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to the President.” The resignation takes effect once it is submitted and does not require a formal acceptance to be valid, unlike in some other constitutional positions. Statement 3 is correct. V. Giri resigned from the office of Vice President in 1969 to stand as a candidate in the Presidential election that year, which he subsequently won. This is a prominent historical precedent for a mid-term resignation of a Vice President. Bhairon Singh Shekhawat (2007) is another example. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. As per Article 67(a) of the Constitution, the Vice President must address the resignation letter in writing to the President of India, not the Chief Justice of India. Statement 2 is correct. The constitutional provision states the Vice President may “resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to the President.” The resignation takes effect once it is submitted and does not require a formal acceptance to be valid, unlike in some other constitutional positions. Statement 3 is correct. V. Giri resigned from the office of Vice President in 1969 to stand as a candidate in the Presidential election that year, which he subsequently won. This is a prominent historical precedent for a mid-term resignation of a Vice President. Bhairon Singh Shekhawat (2007) is another example.

#### 8. Question

With reference to the resignation of the Vice President of India, consider the following statements:

• The Vice President must address the resignation letter in writing to the Chief Justice of India.

• The resignation becomes effective once submitted, and no formal acceptance process is needed.

• V. Giri is a historical example of a Vice President who resigned mid-term to contest the Presidential election.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. As per Article 67(a) of the Constitution, the Vice President must address the resignation letter in writing to the President of India, not the Chief Justice of India.

• Statement 2 is correct. The constitutional provision states the Vice President may “resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to the President.” The resignation takes effect once it is submitted and does not require a formal acceptance to be valid, unlike in some other constitutional positions.

• Statement 3 is correct. V. Giri resigned from the office of Vice President in 1969 to stand as a candidate in the Presidential election that year, which he subsequently won. This is a prominent historical precedent for a mid-term resignation of a Vice President. Bhairon Singh Shekhawat (2007) is another example.

Solution: D

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the practice of polyandry among the Hatti tribe and its legal standing in India: Polyandry is a customary practice aimed at preventing the division of agricultural land holdings. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, explicitly validates customary practices like polyandry for all Hindu communities. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) provides a specific exemption for Scheduled Tribes to practice bigamy or polyandry. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. One of the primary socio-economic reasons for the practice of fraternal polyandry among the Hattis and other similar communities is the preservation of ancestral agricultural land. By having brothers share a single wife, the family’s land holdings remain consolidated and are not fragmented through inheritance with each generation. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, establishes monogamy as the legal norm for Hindus and does not validate polyandry. It makes bigamy a punishable offense. While it contains a provision excluding Scheduled Tribes from its ambit (unless notified otherwise), this is an exclusion, not an explicit validation of their customs. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), like its predecessor the Indian Penal Code, criminalizes bigamy (Section 82 of BNS). There is no specific provision in the BNS that grants a blanket exemption to Scheduled Tribes from the laws on bigamy or polyandry. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. One of the primary socio-economic reasons for the practice of fraternal polyandry among the Hattis and other similar communities is the preservation of ancestral agricultural land. By having brothers share a single wife, the family’s land holdings remain consolidated and are not fragmented through inheritance with each generation. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, establishes monogamy as the legal norm for Hindus and does not validate polyandry. It makes bigamy a punishable offense. While it contains a provision excluding Scheduled Tribes from its ambit (unless notified otherwise), this is an exclusion, not an explicit validation of their customs. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), like its predecessor the Indian Penal Code, criminalizes bigamy (Section 82 of BNS). There is no specific provision in the BNS that grants a blanket exemption to Scheduled Tribes from the laws on bigamy or polyandry.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the practice of polyandry among the Hatti tribe and its legal standing in India:

• Polyandry is a customary practice aimed at preventing the division of agricultural land holdings.

• The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, explicitly validates customary practices like polyandry for all Hindu communities.

• The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) provides a specific exemption for Scheduled Tribes to practice bigamy or polyandry.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. One of the primary socio-economic reasons for the practice of fraternal polyandry among the Hattis and other similar communities is the preservation of ancestral agricultural land. By having brothers share a single wife, the family’s land holdings remain consolidated and are not fragmented through inheritance with each generation.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, establishes monogamy as the legal norm for Hindus and does not validate polyandry. It makes bigamy a punishable offense. While it contains a provision excluding Scheduled Tribes from its ambit (unless notified otherwise), this is an exclusion, not an explicit validation of their customs.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), like its predecessor the Indian Penal Code, criminalizes bigamy (Section 82 of BNS). There is no specific provision in the BNS that grants a blanket exemption to Scheduled Tribes from the laws on bigamy or polyandry.

Solution: A

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points The ‘Meri Panchayat’ mobile application, which recently won the WSIS Champion Award 2025, primarily aims to: (a) Provide a platform for e-commerce for rural artisans. (b) Facilitate direct cash transfers from the central government to Panchayat accounts. (c) Enhance transparency and citizen participation in the governance of Panchayati Raj Institutions. (d) Replace the functions of the National Informatics Centre (NIC) at the district level. Correct Solution: C The core objective of the ‘Meri Panchayat’ application is to strengthen grassroots democracy through digital means. It is an m-Governance platform designed to make the functioning of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) more transparent and accountable. It achieves this by providing citizens with real-time access to information about Panchayat budgets, expenditures, and development plans (GPDPs). Furthermore, it actively promotes citizen participation by allowing users to propose projects, give feedback, and view Gram Sabha decisions. Incorrect Solution: C The core objective of the ‘Meri Panchayat’ application is to strengthen grassroots democracy through digital means. It is an m-Governance platform designed to make the functioning of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) more transparent and accountable. It achieves this by providing citizens with real-time access to information about Panchayat budgets, expenditures, and development plans (GPDPs). Furthermore, it actively promotes citizen participation by allowing users to propose projects, give feedback, and view Gram Sabha decisions.

#### 10. Question

The ‘Meri Panchayat’ mobile application, which recently won the WSIS Champion Award 2025, primarily aims to:

• (a) Provide a platform for e-commerce for rural artisans.

• (b) Facilitate direct cash transfers from the central government to Panchayat accounts.

• (c) Enhance transparency and citizen participation in the governance of Panchayati Raj Institutions.

• (d) Replace the functions of the National Informatics Centre (NIC) at the district level.

Solution: C

• The core objective of the ‘Meri Panchayat’ application is to strengthen grassroots democracy through digital means. It is an m-Governance platform designed to make the functioning of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) more transparent and accountable. It achieves this by providing citizens with real-time access to information about Panchayat budgets, expenditures, and development plans (GPDPs).

• Furthermore, it actively promotes citizen participation by allowing users to propose projects, give feedback, and view Gram Sabha decisions.

Solution: C

• Furthermore, it actively promotes citizen participation by allowing users to propose projects, give feedback, and view Gram Sabha decisions.

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