UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 6 September 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 10 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 10 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the India Rankings 2025 released under the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF): The rankings aim to promote accountability and transparency among Higher Education Institutions (HEIs). The weightage for ‘Teaching, Learning & Resources’ is higher than that for ‘Research & Professional Practice’. The rankings have introduced a new category based on Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 2 is incorrect. The India Rankings, initiated in 2015, serve as a crucial tool for benchmarking the quality of Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) in the country. A primary objective of these rankings is to foster a culture of accountability and transparency by providing a standardized framework for assessing performance. This aligns with the broader goal of enhancing the quality of higher education and guiding stakeholders such as students and policymakers. The rankings are based on five key parameters, each with a specific weightage. ‘Teaching, Learning & Resources’ and ‘Research & Professional Practice’ are the two most significant parameters, and both are assigned an equal weightage of 30%. Therefore, the statement that one has a higher weightage than the other is incorrect. In a significant development, the 2025 rankings have introduced a new category based on Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), reflecting a growing emphasis on the social and environmental responsibilities of educational institutions. This new addition, topped by IIT Madras, underscores the evolving nature of the ranking framework and its alignment with global priorities. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 2 is incorrect. The India Rankings, initiated in 2015, serve as a crucial tool for benchmarking the quality of Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) in the country. A primary objective of these rankings is to foster a culture of accountability and transparency by providing a standardized framework for assessing performance. This aligns with the broader goal of enhancing the quality of higher education and guiding stakeholders such as students and policymakers. The rankings are based on five key parameters, each with a specific weightage. ‘Teaching, Learning & Resources’ and ‘Research & Professional Practice’ are the two most significant parameters, and both are assigned an equal weightage of 30%. Therefore, the statement that one has a higher weightage than the other is incorrect. In a significant development, the 2025 rankings have introduced a new category based on Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), reflecting a growing emphasis on the social and environmental responsibilities of educational institutions. This new addition, topped by IIT Madras, underscores the evolving nature of the ranking framework and its alignment with global priorities.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the India Rankings 2025 released under the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF):

• The rankings aim to promote accountability and transparency among Higher Education Institutions (HEIs).

• The weightage for ‘Teaching, Learning & Resources’ is higher than that for ‘Research & Professional Practice’.

• The rankings have introduced a new category based on Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• The India Rankings, initiated in 2015, serve as a crucial tool for benchmarking the quality of Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) in the country. A primary objective of these rankings is to foster a culture of accountability and transparency by providing a standardized framework for assessing performance. This aligns with the broader goal of enhancing the quality of higher education and guiding stakeholders such as students and policymakers.

• The rankings are based on five key parameters, each with a specific weightage. ‘Teaching, Learning & Resources’ and ‘Research & Professional Practice’ are the two most significant parameters, and both are assigned an equal weightage of 30%. Therefore, the statement that one has a higher weightage than the other is incorrect.

In a significant development, the 2025 rankings have introduced a new category based on Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), reflecting a growing emphasis on the social and environmental responsibilities of educational institutions. This new addition, topped by IIT Madras, underscores the evolving nature of the ranking framework and its alignment with global priorities.

Solution: B

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With reference to 2D materials, consider the following statements: Statement I: 2D materials, such as graphene, are considered ideal for developing next-generation flexible and transparent electronics. Statement II: The atomic thinness of 2D materials allows them to be bent and stretched without breaking, and their unique electronic structure permits the passage of light. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The unique properties of 2D materials, particularly graphene, make them highly suitable for applications in flexible and transparent electronics, such as foldable phones and wearable gadgets. Statement-II is also correct and provides the precise scientific reasons for the assertion in Statement-I. The atomic thinness of these materials, being just one atom thick, imparts remarkable mechanical flexibility, allowing them to be bent and stretched by up to 20% of their original size without sustaining damage. This is a significant advantage over conventional materials. Furthermore, their structure, being a single layer of atoms, allows most light to pass through them, rendering them transparent. These two properties—mechanical flexibility and optical transparency—are the key enablers for their use in see-through and foldable electronic devices. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The unique properties of 2D materials, particularly graphene, make them highly suitable for applications in flexible and transparent electronics, such as foldable phones and wearable gadgets. Statement-II is also correct and provides the precise scientific reasons for the assertion in Statement-I. The atomic thinness of these materials, being just one atom thick, imparts remarkable mechanical flexibility, allowing them to be bent and stretched by up to 20% of their original size without sustaining damage. This is a significant advantage over conventional materials. Furthermore, their structure, being a single layer of atoms, allows most light to pass through them, rendering them transparent. These two properties—mechanical flexibility and optical transparency—are the key enablers for their use in see-through and foldable electronic devices.

#### 2. Question

With reference to 2D materials, consider the following statements:

Statement I: 2D materials, such as graphene, are considered ideal for developing next-generation flexible and transparent electronics.

Statement II: The atomic thinness of 2D materials allows them to be bent and stretched without breaking, and their unique electronic structure permits the passage of light.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. The unique properties of 2D materials, particularly graphene, make them highly suitable for applications in flexible and transparent electronics, such as foldable phones and wearable gadgets.

• Statement-II is also correct and provides the precise scientific reasons for the assertion in Statement-I. The atomic thinness of these materials, being just one atom thick, imparts remarkable mechanical flexibility, allowing them to be bent and stretched by up to 20% of their original size without sustaining damage. This is a significant advantage over conventional materials.

• Furthermore, their structure, being a single layer of atoms, allows most light to pass through them, rendering them transparent. These two properties—mechanical flexibility and optical transparency—are the key enablers for their use in see-through and foldable electronic devices.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) State/UT of Habitat 1. Shompens Andaman & Nicobar Islands 2. Baigas Madhya Pradesh 3. Abujh Marias Jharkhand How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Shompens are a PVTG residing in the dense tropical rainforests of the Great Nicobar Island, part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are a semi-nomadic community, and their population is extremely small. The Baigas are another PVTG primarily found in the states of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. They have a rich cultural heritage and traditionally practice shifting cultivation. The Abujh Marias, known for their isolation, inhabit the Abujhmar hills of Chhattisgarh, not Jharkhand. They are one of the most secluded tribal groups in India. Incorrect Solution: B The Shompens are a PVTG residing in the dense tropical rainforests of the Great Nicobar Island, part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are a semi-nomadic community, and their population is extremely small. The Baigas are another PVTG primarily found in the states of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. They have a rich cultural heritage and traditionally practice shifting cultivation. The Abujh Marias, known for their isolation, inhabit the Abujhmar hills of Chhattisgarh, not Jharkhand. They are one of the most secluded tribal groups in India.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following pairs:

| Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) | State/UT of Habitat

1.| Shompens | Andaman & Nicobar Islands
2.| Baigas | Madhya Pradesh
3.| Abujh Marias | Jharkhand

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Shompens are a PVTG residing in the dense tropical rainforests of the Great Nicobar Island, part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are a semi-nomadic community, and their population is extremely small.

• The Baigas are another PVTG primarily found in the states of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. They have a rich cultural heritage and traditionally practice shifting cultivation.

The Abujh Marias, known for their isolation, inhabit the Abujhmar hills of Chhattisgarh, not Jharkhand. They are one of the most secluded tribal groups in India.

Solution: B

• The Baigas are another PVTG primarily found in the states of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. They have a rich cultural heritage and traditionally practice shifting cultivation.

The Abujh Marias, known for their isolation, inhabit the Abujhmar hills of Chhattisgarh, not Jharkhand. They are one of the most secluded tribal groups in India.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Regarding the aluminium industry in India, consider the following statements: India’s per capita aluminium consumption is higher than the world average. Odisha is the largest producer of bauxite, the primary ore for aluminium. The industry is facing challenges from the increasing use of UPVC plastic in construction. India has entered into Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) with ASEAN countries, which has led to a surge in cheap aluminium imports. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. India’s per capita aluminium consumption is approximately 4 kg, which is significantly lower than the world average of 11 kg, and much lower than countries like China (25 kg) and the US (18 kg). This indicates a substantial potential for growth in domestic demand. Odisha is the largest producer of bauxite in India, with major reserves in the districts of Koraput, Kalahandi, and Rayagada. The state plays a pivotal role in the country’s aluminium production chain. The domestic aluminium industry is currently facing significant stress due to a market shift towards UPVC (Unplasticized Polyvinyl Chloride) plastic in the construction sector for applications like window frames and doors. This substitution, coupled with a surge in cheap imports, particularly from ASEAN countries due to FTA concessions and duty-free access, has put pressure on domestic producers. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. India’s per capita aluminium consumption is approximately 4 kg, which is significantly lower than the world average of 11 kg, and much lower than countries like China (25 kg) and the US (18 kg). This indicates a substantial potential for growth in domestic demand. Odisha is the largest producer of bauxite in India, with major reserves in the districts of Koraput, Kalahandi, and Rayagada. The state plays a pivotal role in the country’s aluminium production chain. The domestic aluminium industry is currently facing significant stress due to a market shift towards UPVC (Unplasticized Polyvinyl Chloride) plastic in the construction sector for applications like window frames and doors. This substitution, coupled with a surge in cheap imports, particularly from ASEAN countries due to FTA concessions and duty-free access, has put pressure on domestic producers.

#### 4. Question

Regarding the aluminium industry in India, consider the following statements:

• India’s per capita aluminium consumption is higher than the world average.

• Odisha is the largest producer of bauxite, the primary ore for aluminium.

• The industry is facing challenges from the increasing use of UPVC plastic in construction.

• India has entered into Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) with ASEAN countries, which has led to a surge in cheap aluminium imports.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. India’s per capita aluminium consumption is approximately 4 kg, which is significantly lower than the world average of 11 kg, and much lower than countries like China (25 kg) and the US (18 kg). This indicates a substantial potential for growth in domestic demand.

• Odisha is the largest producer of bauxite in India, with major reserves in the districts of Koraput, Kalahandi, and Rayagada. The state plays a pivotal role in the country’s aluminium production chain.

• The domestic aluminium industry is currently facing significant stress due to a market shift towards UPVC (Unplasticized Polyvinyl Chloride) plastic in the construction sector for applications like window frames and doors.

This substitution, coupled with a surge in cheap imports, particularly from ASEAN countries due to FTA concessions and duty-free access, has put pressure on domestic producers.

Solution: C

This substitution, coupled with a surge in cheap imports, particularly from ASEAN countries due to FTA concessions and duty-free access, has put pressure on domestic producers.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Beas and Sutlej rivers? Both rivers originate in the Himalayas within Indian territory. The Beas river is a tributary of the Sutlej river. The Bhakra Dam is constructed on the Beas river. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Beas river originates near the Rohtang Pass in the Pir Panjal range in Himachal Pradesh and its entire course lies within India. However, the Sutlej river originates from the Mansarovar-Rakastal lakes in western Tibet, where it is known as Langqen Zagbo. It enters India through the Shipki La pass. Therefore, the statement that both rivers originate within Indian territory is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct. The Beas flows through Himachal Pradesh and Punjab and merges with the Sutlej at Harike in Punjab, making it a major tributary of the Sutlej. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Bhakra Dam, one of India’s largest, is constructed on the Sutlej river in Himachal Pradesh, not the Beas. It is a crucial project for irrigation and power generation in the region. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Beas river originates near the Rohtang Pass in the Pir Panjal range in Himachal Pradesh and its entire course lies within India. However, the Sutlej river originates from the Mansarovar-Rakastal lakes in western Tibet, where it is known as Langqen Zagbo. It enters India through the Shipki La pass. Therefore, the statement that both rivers originate within Indian territory is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct. The Beas flows through Himachal Pradesh and Punjab and merges with the Sutlej at Harike in Punjab, making it a major tributary of the Sutlej. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Bhakra Dam, one of India’s largest, is constructed on the Sutlej river in Himachal Pradesh, not the Beas. It is a crucial project for irrigation and power generation in the region.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Beas and Sutlej rivers?

• Both rivers originate in the Himalayas within Indian territory.

• The Beas river is a tributary of the Sutlej river.

• The Bhakra Dam is constructed on the Beas river.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Beas river originates near the Rohtang Pass in the Pir Panjal range in Himachal Pradesh and its entire course lies within India. However, the Sutlej river originates from the Mansarovar-Rakastal lakes in western Tibet, where it is known as Langqen Zagbo. It enters India through the Shipki La pass. Therefore, the statement that both rivers originate within Indian territory is incorrect.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Beas flows through Himachal Pradesh and Punjab and merges with the Sutlej at Harike in Punjab, making it a major tributary of the Sutlej.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Bhakra Dam, one of India’s largest, is constructed on the Sutlej river in Himachal Pradesh, not the Beas. It is a crucial project for irrigation and power generation in the region.

Solution: A

• Statement 2 is correct. The Beas flows through Himachal Pradesh and Punjab and merges with the Sutlej at Harike in Punjab, making it a major tributary of the Sutlej.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points The creation of a new class of “environment auditors” in India is primarily aimed at: (a) Replacing the State Pollution Control Boards. (b) Promoting self-compliance and accountability among project developers. (c) Focusing exclusively on climate action and ESG ratings. (d) Nationalizing all environmental monitoring agencies. Correct Solution: B The newly introduced “environment auditors” are not intended to replace the State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) but to supplement their efforts. The primary objective behind this initiative is to promote self-compliance and accountability among industrial and infrastructure projects. By creating a system of certified professionals who can conduct independent audits, the government aims to shift some of the monitoring burden from the SPCBs to the project proponents themselves. This is expected to lead to a more proactive approach to environmental management. While these auditors will contribute to climate action and ESG ratings, their role is not exclusively limited to these areas. Their functions are broader and encompass verification under various environmental rules. The initiative represents a move towards a more decentralized and participatory model of environmental governance, rather than nationalization. Incorrect Solution: B The newly introduced “environment auditors” are not intended to replace the State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) but to supplement their efforts. The primary objective behind this initiative is to promote self-compliance and accountability among industrial and infrastructure projects. By creating a system of certified professionals who can conduct independent audits, the government aims to shift some of the monitoring burden from the SPCBs to the project proponents themselves. This is expected to lead to a more proactive approach to environmental management. While these auditors will contribute to climate action and ESG ratings, their role is not exclusively limited to these areas. Their functions are broader and encompass verification under various environmental rules. The initiative represents a move towards a more decentralized and participatory model of environmental governance, rather than nationalization.

#### 6. Question

The creation of a new class of “environment auditors” in India is primarily aimed at:

• (a) Replacing the State Pollution Control Boards.

• (b) Promoting self-compliance and accountability among project developers.

• (c) Focusing exclusively on climate action and ESG ratings.

• (d) Nationalizing all environmental monitoring agencies.

Solution: B

• The newly introduced “environment auditors” are not intended to replace the State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) but to supplement their efforts. The primary objective behind this initiative is to promote self-compliance and accountability among industrial and infrastructure projects. By creating a system of certified professionals who can conduct independent audits, the government aims to shift some of the monitoring burden from the SPCBs to the project proponents themselves.

• This is expected to lead to a more proactive approach to environmental management. While these auditors will contribute to climate action and ESG ratings, their role is not exclusively limited to these areas.

• Their functions are broader and encompass verification under various environmental rules. The initiative represents a move towards a more decentralized and participatory model of environmental governance, rather than nationalization.

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points With reference to the Lipulekh Pass, consider the following statements: It is a trijunction point between India, Nepal, and Bhutan. It serves as a gateway for the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra pilgrimage. It was the first border trade post opened between India and China. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Lipulekh Pass is located near the trijunction of India, Nepal, and China, not Bhutan. This strategic location is a key reason for its geopolitical significance and the ongoing border dispute between India and Nepal. The pass has been a traditional route for pilgrims and traders for centuries and is an important gateway for the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra. The Indian government has developed infrastructure to facilitate this pilgrimage. In 1992, Lipulekh was opened as India’s first border trade post with China, highlighting its economic importance in the region. It was followed by the opening of Shipki La in 1994 and Nathu La in 2006. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Lipulekh Pass is located near the trijunction of India, Nepal, and China, not Bhutan. This strategic location is a key reason for its geopolitical significance and the ongoing border dispute between India and Nepal. The pass has been a traditional route for pilgrims and traders for centuries and is an important gateway for the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra. The Indian government has developed infrastructure to facilitate this pilgrimage. In 1992, Lipulekh was opened as India’s first border trade post with China, highlighting its economic importance in the region. It was followed by the opening of Shipki La in 1994 and Nathu La in 2006.

#### 7. Question

With reference to the Lipulekh Pass, consider the following statements:

• It is a trijunction point between India, Nepal, and Bhutan.

• It serves as a gateway for the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra pilgrimage.

• It was the first border trade post opened between India and China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Lipulekh Pass is located near the trijunction of India, Nepal, and China, not Bhutan. This strategic location is a key reason for its geopolitical significance and the ongoing border dispute between India and Nepal.

• The pass has been a traditional route for pilgrims and traders for centuries and is an important gateway for the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra. The Indian government has developed infrastructure to facilitate this pilgrimage.

• In 1992, Lipulekh was opened as India’s first border trade post with China, highlighting its economic importance in the region. It was followed by the opening of Shipki La in 1994 and Nathu La in 2006.

Solution: B

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about 2D materials: Statement I: The energy properties (band gap) of 2D materials can be adjusted. Statement II: The discovery of graphene was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics. Statement III: 2D materials like graphene are weaker than steel. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A One of the most significant properties of 2D materials is the tunability of their band gap. This allows them to be engineered for specific electronic applications, making them highly promising for the development of next-generation semiconductors that can overcome the limitations of silicon. The pioneering work on graphene, which involved its isolation from graphite using a simple method of mechanical exfoliation (the “Scotch tape” method), was recognized with the 2010 Nobel Prize in Physics awarded to Andre Geim and Konstantin Novoselov. This discovery opened up a new field of materials science. The graphene is known for its exceptional strength, being about 200 times stronger than steel on a weight-for-weight basis. This combination of strength, thinness, and conductivity is what makes it a ‘wonder material’. Incorrect Solution: A One of the most significant properties of 2D materials is the tunability of their band gap. This allows them to be engineered for specific electronic applications, making them highly promising for the development of next-generation semiconductors that can overcome the limitations of silicon. The pioneering work on graphene, which involved its isolation from graphite using a simple method of mechanical exfoliation (the “Scotch tape” method), was recognized with the 2010 Nobel Prize in Physics awarded to Andre Geim and Konstantin Novoselov. This discovery opened up a new field of materials science. The graphene is known for its exceptional strength, being about 200 times stronger than steel on a weight-for-weight basis. This combination of strength, thinness, and conductivity is what makes it a ‘wonder material’.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about 2D materials:

Statement I: The energy properties (band gap) of 2D materials can be adjusted.

Statement II: The discovery of graphene was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics.

Statement III: 2D materials like graphene are weaker than steel.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• One of the most significant properties of 2D materials is the tunability of their band gap. This allows them to be engineered for specific electronic applications, making them highly promising for the development of next-generation semiconductors that can overcome the limitations of silicon.

• The pioneering work on graphene, which involved its isolation from graphite using a simple method of mechanical exfoliation (the “Scotch tape” method), was recognized with the 2010 Nobel Prize in Physics awarded to Andre Geim and Konstantin Novoselov. This discovery opened up a new field of materials science.

• The graphene is known for its exceptional strength, being about 200 times stronger than steel on a weight-for-weight basis. This combination of strength, thinness, and conductivity is what makes it a ‘wonder material’.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points The Dhebar Commission is associated with the: (a) Identification of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). (b) Establishment of the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF). (c) Promotion of 2D materials research in India. (d) Resolution of the India-Nepal border dispute. Correct Solution: A The concept of a sub-category within Scheduled Tribes that are more disadvantaged than others emerged from the recommendations of the Dhebar Commission (1960–61). The commission highlighted that some tribal communities faced greater backwardness and required special, targeted attention. Based on these recommendations, the Government of India created the category of “Primitive Tribal Groups” during the Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79), which was later renamed Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in 2006. This commission’s work was foundational in recognizing the varying levels of development among tribal communities and in creating a policy framework for the most vulnerable among them. Incorrect Solution: A The concept of a sub-category within Scheduled Tribes that are more disadvantaged than others emerged from the recommendations of the Dhebar Commission (1960–61). The commission highlighted that some tribal communities faced greater backwardness and required special, targeted attention. Based on these recommendations, the Government of India created the category of “Primitive Tribal Groups” during the Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79), which was later renamed Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in 2006. This commission’s work was foundational in recognizing the varying levels of development among tribal communities and in creating a policy framework for the most vulnerable among them.

#### 9. Question

The Dhebar Commission is associated with the:

• (a) Identification of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).

• (b) Establishment of the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF).

• (c) Promotion of 2D materials research in India.

• (d) Resolution of the India-Nepal border dispute.

Solution: A

• The concept of a sub-category within Scheduled Tribes that are more disadvantaged than others emerged from the recommendations of the Dhebar Commission (1960–61). The commission highlighted that some tribal communities faced greater backwardness and required special, targeted attention.

• Based on these recommendations, the Government of India created the category of “Primitive Tribal Groups” during the Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79), which was later renamed Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in 2006.

This commission’s work was foundational in recognizing the varying levels of development among tribal communities and in creating a policy framework for the most vulnerable among them.

Solution: A

This commission’s work was foundational in recognizing the varying levels of development among tribal communities and in creating a policy framework for the most vulnerable among them.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs): PVTGs are a sub-category of Scheduled Castes (SCs). The population of all PVTGs is officially stagnant or declining. The upcoming Census will be the first to enumerate PVTGs as a separate category. if approved by the Census Commissioner. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Only statement 3 is correct. PVTGs are a sub-category of Scheduled Tribes (STs), not Scheduled Castes. They are identified as the most disadvantaged among the tribal communities. While a declining or stagnant population is one of the criteria for identifying a PVTG, it is not a universally true statement for all 75 PVTGs at all times. The situation can vary, with some groups potentially showing signs of demographic recovery. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs has requested the Census Commissioner to enumerate PVTGs separately in the upcoming Census. This is a significant move because no previous Census has collected data on PVTGs as a distinct category; they have always been included under the general ST category. A separate enumeration will provide crucial data for targeted welfare schemes like PM-JANMAN. Incorrect Solution: A Only statement 3 is correct. PVTGs are a sub-category of Scheduled Tribes (STs), not Scheduled Castes. They are identified as the most disadvantaged among the tribal communities. While a declining or stagnant population is one of the criteria for identifying a PVTG, it is not a universally true statement for all 75 PVTGs at all times. The situation can vary, with some groups potentially showing signs of demographic recovery. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs has requested the Census Commissioner to enumerate PVTGs separately in the upcoming Census. This is a significant move because no previous Census has collected data on PVTGs as a distinct category; they have always been included under the general ST category. A separate enumeration will provide crucial data for targeted welfare schemes like PM-JANMAN.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs):

• PVTGs are a sub-category of Scheduled Castes (SCs).

• The population of all PVTGs is officially stagnant or declining.

• The upcoming Census will be the first to enumerate PVTGs as a separate category. if approved by the Census Commissioner.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Only statement 3 is correct.

• PVTGs are a sub-category of Scheduled Tribes (STs), not Scheduled Castes. They are identified as the most disadvantaged among the tribal communities. While a declining or stagnant population is one of the criteria for identifying a PVTG, it is not a universally true statement for all 75 PVTGs at all times. The situation can vary, with some groups potentially showing signs of demographic recovery.

• The Ministry of Tribal Affairs has requested the Census Commissioner to enumerate PVTGs separately in the upcoming Census. This is a significant move because no previous Census has collected data on PVTGs as a distinct category; they have always been included under the general ST category. A separate enumeration will provide crucial data for targeted welfare schemes like PM-JANMAN.

Solution: A

Only statement 3 is correct.

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates for

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE