UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 6 November 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA): Statement I: APEDA’s recent facilitation of Fortified Rice Kernel (FRK) export to Costa Rica showcases India’s capability in advanced food fortification. Statement II: APEDA, as a statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is mandated to promote and develop the export of processed food products. Statement III: FRK is produced using extrusion technology to blend rice flour with micronutrients like iron and folic acid, which is then mixed with regular rice in a 1:100 ratio. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: B Statement I is a correct assertion. The event (export of FRK) highlights India’s technical ability in the food processing sector. Statement II is a correct statement of fact. APEDA’s legal mandate and administrative ministry are accurately described. This statement directly explains Statement I because it clarifies why APEDA was the agency involved in this “facilitation” – it is its specific job to promote such exports. Statement III is also a correct statement of fact. It accurately describes the technical composition and manufacturing process of FRK. However, the nature of the product (Statement III) is distinct from the reason for its facilitated export (Statement II). Therefore, both Statements II and III are correct, but only Statement II provides a direct explanation for Statement I. The fortification of rice to create FRK is a specific technological process designed to combat anaemia and malnutrition, which are often linked to deficiencies in iron, folic acid, and vitamin B12. These three are the key micronutrients. The technology used is extrusion, where rice flour is mixed with a premix of these nutrients, water, and then passed through an extruder to create a kernel-like shape that resembles natural rice. This “reconstituted” grain is stable and blends easily with regular rice, typically in a 1:100 ratio (1 part FRK to 100 parts regular rice). Incorrect Solution: B Statement I is a correct assertion. The event (export of FRK) highlights India’s technical ability in the food processing sector. Statement II is a correct statement of fact. APEDA’s legal mandate and administrative ministry are accurately described. This statement directly explains Statement I because it clarifies why APEDA was the agency involved in this “facilitation” – it is its specific job to promote such exports. Statement III is also a correct statement of fact. It accurately describes the technical composition and manufacturing process of FRK. However, the nature of the product (Statement III) is distinct from the reason for its facilitated export (Statement II). Therefore, both Statements II and III are correct, but only Statement II provides a direct explanation for Statement I. The fortification of rice to create FRK is a specific technological process designed to combat anaemia and malnutrition, which are often linked to deficiencies in iron, folic acid, and vitamin B12. These three are the key micronutrients. The technology used is extrusion, where rice flour is mixed with a premix of these nutrients, water, and then passed through an extruder to create a kernel-like shape that resembles natural rice. This “reconstituted” grain is stable and blends easily with regular rice, typically in a 1:100 ratio (1 part FRK to 100 parts regular rice).

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA):

Statement I: APEDA’s recent facilitation of Fortified Rice Kernel (FRK) export to Costa Rica showcases India’s capability in advanced food fortification.

Statement II: APEDA, as a statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is mandated to promote and develop the export of processed food products.

Statement III: FRK is produced using extrusion technology to blend rice flour with micronutrients like iron and folic acid, which is then mixed with regular rice in a 1:100 ratio.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: B

• Statement I is a correct assertion. The event (export of FRK) highlights India’s technical ability in the food processing sector.

• Statement II is a correct statement of fact. APEDA’s legal mandate and administrative ministry are accurately described. This statement directly explains Statement I because it clarifies why APEDA was the agency involved in this “facilitation” – it is its specific job to promote such exports.

• Statement III is also a correct statement of fact. It accurately describes the technical composition and manufacturing process of FRK. However, the nature of the product (Statement III) is distinct from the reason for its facilitated export (Statement II).

• Therefore, both Statements II and III are correct, but only Statement II provides a direct explanation for Statement I.

The fortification of rice to create FRK is a specific technological process designed to combat anaemia and malnutrition, which are often linked to deficiencies in iron, folic acid, and vitamin B12. These three are the key micronutrients. The technology used is extrusion, where rice flour is mixed with a premix of these nutrients, water, and then passed through an extruder to create a kernel-like shape that resembles natural rice. This “reconstituted” grain is stable and blends easily with regular rice, typically in a 1:100 ratio (1 part FRK to 100 parts regular rice).

Solution: B

• Statement I is a correct assertion. The event (export of FRK) highlights India’s technical ability in the food processing sector.

• Therefore, both Statements II and III are correct, but only Statement II provides a direct explanation for Statement I.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points According to the ICA World Cooperative Monitor 2025, Amul (GCMMF) was ranked as the No. 1 cooperative in the world based on which specific metric? (a) Total annual turnover (b) The volume of milk processed annually (c) Total number of farmers enrolled in the cooperative (d) The ratio of turnover to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) per capita Correct Solution: D While Amul is large by many metrics, the ICA World Cooperative Monitor 2025 ranking mentioned is specifically based on the ratio of turnover over Gross Domestic Product (GDP) per capita. This is a sophisticated metric designed to measure the economic significance and impact of the cooperative relative to the wealth of the country it operates in. Incorrect Solution: D While Amul is large by many metrics, the ICA World Cooperative Monitor 2025 ranking mentioned is specifically based on the ratio of turnover over Gross Domestic Product (GDP) per capita. This is a sophisticated metric designed to measure the economic significance and impact of the cooperative relative to the wealth of the country it operates in.

#### 2. Question

According to the ICA World Cooperative Monitor 2025, Amul (GCMMF) was ranked as the No. 1 cooperative in the world based on which specific metric?

• (a) Total annual turnover

• (b) The volume of milk processed annually

• (c) Total number of farmers enrolled in the cooperative

• (d) The ratio of turnover to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) per capita

Solution: D

While Amul is large by many metrics, the ICA World Cooperative Monitor 2025 ranking mentioned is specifically based on the ratio of turnover over Gross Domestic Product (GDP) per capita. This is a sophisticated metric designed to measure the economic significance and impact of the cooperative relative to the wealth of the country it operates in.

Solution: D

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding QS Asia University Rankings. Statement-I: In the QS Asia University Rankings, indicators related to Academic and Employer Reputation collectively form the largest component of an institution’s final score. Statement-II: The QS methodology places a greater emphasis on research productivity, measured by Papers per Faculty, than on global research impact, measured by Citations per Paper. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct. The Academic Reputation indicator carries a 30% weightage, and the Employer Reputation indicator carries a 20% weightage. Together, these two subjective, survey-based indicators account for 50% of the total score, making them the largest and most influential component of the ranking. Statement-II is incorrect. The methodology assigns different weights to research productivity and research impact. Citations per Paper (measuring impact) has a weightage of 10%. In contrast, Papers per Faculty (measuring productivity) has a weightage of only 5%. Therefore, the QS methodology places greater emphasis on research impact (citations) than on raw productivity (papers). Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct. The Academic Reputation indicator carries a 30% weightage, and the Employer Reputation indicator carries a 20% weightage. Together, these two subjective, survey-based indicators account for 50% of the total score, making them the largest and most influential component of the ranking. Statement-II is incorrect. The methodology assigns different weights to research productivity and research impact. Citations per Paper (measuring impact) has a weightage of 10%. In contrast, Papers per Faculty (measuring productivity) has a weightage of only 5%. Therefore, the QS methodology places greater emphasis on research impact (citations) than on raw productivity (papers).

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding QS Asia University Rankings.

Statement-I: In the QS Asia University Rankings, indicators related to Academic and Employer Reputation collectively form the largest component of an institution’s final score.

Statement-II: The QS methodology places a greater emphasis on research productivity, measured by Papers per Faculty, than on global research impact, measured by Citations per Paper.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement-I is correct. The Academic Reputation indicator carries a 30% weightage, and the Employer Reputation indicator carries a 20% weightage. Together, these two subjective, survey-based indicators account for 50% of the total score, making them the largest and most influential component of the ranking.

• Statement-II is incorrect. The methodology assigns different weights to research productivity and research impact. Citations per Paper (measuring impact) has a weightage of 10%. In contrast, Papers per Faculty (measuring productivity) has a weightage of only 5%. Therefore, the QS methodology places greater emphasis on research impact (citations) than on raw productivity (papers).

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following features associated with the numismatics of the Vijayanagara Empire: The state’s royal emblem, the ‘Gandaberunda’ (a double-headed eagle), was prominently featured on most gold coins. The rulers issued coins predominantly in gold (pagodas), silver (taras), and copper (jitals). The coins often bore images of Hindu deities, such as Siva-Parvati and Balakrishna. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The primary state symbol or emblem (royal authority) of the Vijayanagara Empire used on coins and seals was the boar (Varaha), an avatar of Vishnu. While the Gandaberunda was also used, the boar was the most common and defining state symbol, as seen on the coins recently discovered. Statement 2 is correct. The Vijayanagara monetary system was sophisticated and multi-metallic. The primary gold coin was the ‘pagoda’ (also called gadyana). They also issued smaller denomination silver ‘taras’ and copper ‘jitals’ for everyday transactions. Statement 3 is correct. The coinage was deeply religious, reflecting the rulers’ devotion. Images of Hindu deities were common, including Siva-Parvati (Uma-Maheshwara), Vishnu-Lakshmi, and Balakrishna (notably on Krishnadevaraya’s coins). Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The primary state symbol or emblem (royal authority) of the Vijayanagara Empire used on coins and seals was the boar (Varaha), an avatar of Vishnu. While the Gandaberunda was also used, the boar was the most common and defining state symbol, as seen on the coins recently discovered. Statement 2 is correct. The Vijayanagara monetary system was sophisticated and multi-metallic. The primary gold coin was the ‘pagoda’ (also called gadyana). They also issued smaller denomination silver ‘taras’ and copper ‘jitals’ for everyday transactions. Statement 3 is correct. The coinage was deeply religious, reflecting the rulers’ devotion. Images of Hindu deities were common, including Siva-Parvati (Uma-Maheshwara), Vishnu-Lakshmi, and Balakrishna (notably on Krishnadevaraya’s coins).

#### 4. Question

Consider the following features associated with the numismatics of the Vijayanagara Empire:

• The state’s royal emblem, the ‘Gandaberunda’ (a double-headed eagle), was prominently featured on most gold coins.

• The rulers issued coins predominantly in gold (pagodas), silver (taras), and copper (jitals).

• The coins often bore images of Hindu deities, such as Siva-Parvati and Balakrishna.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The primary state symbol or emblem (royal authority) of the Vijayanagara Empire used on coins and seals was the boar (Varaha), an avatar of Vishnu. While the Gandaberunda was also used, the boar was the most common and defining state symbol, as seen on the coins recently discovered.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Vijayanagara monetary system was sophisticated and multi-metallic. The primary gold coin was the ‘pagoda’ (also called gadyana). They also issued smaller denomination silver ‘taras’ and copper ‘jitals’ for everyday transactions.

• Statement 3 is correct. The coinage was deeply religious, reflecting the rulers’ devotion. Images of Hindu deities were common, including Siva-Parvati (Uma-Maheshwara), Vishnu-Lakshmi, and Balakrishna (notably on Krishnadevaraya’s coins).

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points The Umngot River, recently in the news for pollution concerns, follows which of the following geographical paths? (a) It originates in the Garo Hills, flows through Assam, and enters Bangladesh as the Surma River. (b) It originates in the Jaintia Hills, flows exclusively within Meghalaya, and drains into the Umiam Lake. (c) It originates in Manipur, forms a boundary between Meghalaya and Assam, and merges with the Brahmaputra in India. (d) It originates from Shillong Peak in the Khasi Hills, flows past Dawki, and enters Bangladesh as the Shari Goyain River. Correct Solution: D The Umngot River (also known as the Dawki River) originates from the Eastern Shillong Peak, which is part of the Khasi Hills in Meghalaya. It flows south through the West Jaintia Hills district, passing through the famous tourist spots of Mawlynnong, Dawki, and Shnongpdeng. At Dawki, it forms the natural boundary between India and Bangladesh before crossing the border, where it is known as the Shari Goyain River in Bangladesh. Incorrect Solution: D The Umngot River (also known as the Dawki River) originates from the Eastern Shillong Peak, which is part of the Khasi Hills in Meghalaya. It flows south through the West Jaintia Hills district, passing through the famous tourist spots of Mawlynnong, Dawki, and Shnongpdeng. At Dawki, it forms the natural boundary between India and Bangladesh before crossing the border, where it is known as the Shari Goyain River in Bangladesh.

#### 5. Question

The Umngot River, recently in the news for pollution concerns, follows which of the following geographical paths?

• (a) It originates in the Garo Hills, flows through Assam, and enters Bangladesh as the Surma River.

• (b) It originates in the Jaintia Hills, flows exclusively within Meghalaya, and drains into the Umiam Lake.

• (c) It originates in Manipur, forms a boundary between Meghalaya and Assam, and merges with the Brahmaputra in India.

• (d) It originates from Shillong Peak in the Khasi Hills, flows past Dawki, and enters Bangladesh as the Shari Goyain River.

Solution: D

The Umngot River (also known as the Dawki River) originates from the Eastern Shillong Peak, which is part of the Khasi Hills in Meghalaya. It flows south through the West Jaintia Hills district, passing through the famous tourist spots of Mawlynnong, Dawki, and Shnongpdeng. At Dawki, it forms the natural boundary between India and Bangladesh before crossing the border, where it is known as the Shari Goyain River in Bangladesh.

Solution: D

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Cauvery River: It is a perennial river originating from the Brahmagiri Hills in the Western Ghats, Karnataka. It drains into the Bay of Bengal, forming a vast delta known as the “Garden of Southern India.” Its major tributaries include the Kabini, Hemavati, and Godavari. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The origin is the “Brahmagiri Hills in the Western Ghats, Karnataka.” Statement 2 is correct. It “drains into the Bay of Bengal” and forms a “vast delta known as the ‘Garden of Southern India.'” Statement 3 is incorrect. The tributaries are “Kabini, Hemavati, Noyil, Amaravati, and Bhavani.” The Godavari is a completely separate, major river system in South-Central India and is not a tributary of the Cauvery. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The origin is the “Brahmagiri Hills in the Western Ghats, Karnataka.” Statement 2 is correct. It “drains into the Bay of Bengal” and forms a “vast delta known as the ‘Garden of Southern India.'” Statement 3 is incorrect. The tributaries are “Kabini, Hemavati, Noyil, Amaravati, and Bhavani.” The Godavari is a completely separate, major river system in South-Central India and is not a tributary of the Cauvery.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about the Cauvery River:

• It is a perennial river originating from the Brahmagiri Hills in the Western Ghats, Karnataka.

• It drains into the Bay of Bengal, forming a vast delta known as the “Garden of Southern India.”

• Its major tributaries include the Kabini, Hemavati, and Godavari.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The origin is the “Brahmagiri Hills in the Western Ghats, Karnataka.”

• Statement 2 is correct. It “drains into the Bay of Bengal” and forms a “vast delta known as the ‘Garden of Southern India.'”

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The tributaries are “Kabini, Hemavati, Noyil, Amaravati, and Bhavani.” The Godavari is a completely separate, major river system in South-Central India and is not a tributary of the Cauvery.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The origin is the “Brahmagiri Hills in the Western Ghats, Karnataka.”

• Statement 2 is correct. It “drains into the Bay of Bengal” and forms a “vast delta known as the ‘Garden of Southern India.'”

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the seismic waves generated during an earthquake: The hypocenter is the point on the Earth’s surface directly above the point where the earthquake begins. Aftershocks are smaller tremors that occur before the mainshock, caused by the gradual buildup of stress. P-waves are compressional waves, and S-waves are shear waves; this difference in wave type is used to locate the epicenter. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The hypocenter is the point inside the Earth where the quake begins. The point on the surface directly above it is the epicenter. Statement 2 is incorrect. Aftershocks are smaller quakes that follow the mainshock. The smaller tremors that precede the mainshock are called foreshocks. Statement 3 is correct. P-waves are “(fast, compressional)” and S-waves are “(slower, shear).” “Triangulation method” is “used to locate the epicenter using P (primary) and S (secondary) wave data.” The difference in their arrival times (because P-waves are faster) at different seismograph stations allows for this triangulation. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The hypocenter is the point inside the Earth where the quake begins. The point on the surface directly above it is the epicenter. Statement 2 is incorrect. Aftershocks are smaller quakes that follow the mainshock. The smaller tremors that precede the mainshock are called foreshocks. Statement 3 is correct. P-waves are “(fast, compressional)” and S-waves are “(slower, shear).” “Triangulation method” is “used to locate the epicenter using P (primary) and S (secondary) wave data.” The difference in their arrival times (because P-waves are faster) at different seismograph stations allows for this triangulation.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the seismic waves generated during an earthquake:

• The hypocenter is the point on the Earth’s surface directly above the point where the earthquake begins.

• Aftershocks are smaller tremors that occur before the mainshock, caused by the gradual buildup of stress.

• P-waves are compressional waves, and S-waves are shear waves; this difference in wave type is used to locate the epicenter.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The hypocenter is the point inside the Earth where the quake begins. The point on the surface directly above it is the epicenter.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Aftershocks are smaller quakes that follow the mainshock. The smaller tremors that precede the mainshock are called foreshocks.

• Statement 3 is correct. P-waves are “(fast, compressional)” and S-waves are “(slower, shear).” “Triangulation method” is “used to locate the epicenter using P (primary) and S (secondary) wave data.” The difference in their arrival times (because P-waves are faster) at different seismograph stations allows for this triangulation.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The hypocenter is the point inside the Earth where the quake begins. The point on the surface directly above it is the epicenter.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Aftershocks are smaller quakes that follow the mainshock. The smaller tremors that precede the mainshock are called foreshocks.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the 8th Central Pay Commission (CPC), recently seen in news: One of its key terms of reference is to evaluate the impact of its recommendations on State Government finances. The Commission is mandated to address the sustainability of non-contributory pension liabilities. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. A key part of the commission’s mandate (Terms of Reference) is to consider the fiscal impact on State Governments and ensure coordinated implementation, as state pay scales often follow central recommendations. Statement 2 is correct. Beyond just pay and allowances, the 8th CPC is specifically tasked with addressing the long-term fiscal implications and sustainability of non-contributory pension liabilities, which are a significant concern for the budget. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. A key part of the commission’s mandate (Terms of Reference) is to consider the fiscal impact on State Governments and ensure coordinated implementation, as state pay scales often follow central recommendations. Statement 2 is correct. Beyond just pay and allowances, the 8th CPC is specifically tasked with addressing the long-term fiscal implications and sustainability of non-contributory pension liabilities, which are a significant concern for the budget.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the 8th Central Pay Commission (CPC), recently seen in news:

• One of its key terms of reference is to evaluate the impact of its recommendations on State Government finances.

• The Commission is mandated to address the sustainability of non-contributory pension liabilities.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. A key part of the commission’s mandate (Terms of Reference) is to consider the fiscal impact on State Governments and ensure coordinated implementation, as state pay scales often follow central recommendations.

• Statement 2 is correct. Beyond just pay and allowances, the 8th CPC is specifically tasked with addressing the long-term fiscal implications and sustainability of non-contributory pension liabilities, which are a significant concern for the budget.

Solution: C

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to the “Jeevan Pramaan” initiative, recently in news, consider the following statements: It is a digital life certificate for pensioners. The initiative is optional for central government pensioners but mandatory for state government pensioners. It utilizes biometric authentication, such as fingerprint or iris scan, to validate the pensioner’s identity. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. “Jeevan Pramaan” is the official name for the government’s Digital Life Certificate (DLC) program, designed to eliminate the need for pensioners to be physically present to prove their existence. Statement 2 is incorrect. The initiative is a citizen-centric welfare scheme designed to minimize bureaucratic hurdles. It is an optional facility, not mandatory, for all pensioners (central, state, or from other government organizations). The traditional system of physical submission still co-exists. Statement 3 is correct. The system works by allowing pensioners to biometrically authenticate themselves (using a fingerprint scanner or iris scanner) at a CSC centre or via a mobile app. This biometric data is then validated against the Aadhaar database to confirm the pensioner is alive. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. “Jeevan Pramaan” is the official name for the government’s Digital Life Certificate (DLC) program, designed to eliminate the need for pensioners to be physically present to prove their existence. Statement 2 is incorrect. The initiative is a citizen-centric welfare scheme designed to minimize bureaucratic hurdles. It is an optional facility, not mandatory, for all pensioners (central, state, or from other government organizations). The traditional system of physical submission still co-exists. Statement 3 is correct. The system works by allowing pensioners to biometrically authenticate themselves (using a fingerprint scanner or iris scanner) at a CSC centre or via a mobile app. This biometric data is then validated against the Aadhaar database to confirm the pensioner is alive.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the “Jeevan Pramaan” initiative, recently in news, consider the following statements:

• It is a digital life certificate for pensioners.

• The initiative is optional for central government pensioners but mandatory for state government pensioners.

• It utilizes biometric authentication, such as fingerprint or iris scan, to validate the pensioner’s identity.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. “Jeevan Pramaan” is the official name for the government’s Digital Life Certificate (DLC) program, designed to eliminate the need for pensioners to be physically present to prove their existence.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The initiative is a citizen-centric welfare scheme designed to minimize bureaucratic hurdles. It is an optional facility, not mandatory, for all pensioners (central, state, or from other government organizations). The traditional system of physical submission still co-exists.

Statement 3 is correct. The system works by allowing pensioners to biometrically authenticate themselves (using a fingerprint scanner or iris scanner) at a CSC centre or via a mobile app. This biometric data is then validated against the Aadhaar database to confirm the pensioner is alive.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY): It aims to double farmer incomes by 2030, aligning with the government’s extended goal. It seeks to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains, pulses, and oilseeds to reduce import dependence. The scheme offers a uniform subsidy of 50% on agricultural inputs for all beneficiaries. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. One of the key benefits and stated goals of the PMDDKY is to “double farmer incomes by 2030.” This aligns with the government’s extended timeline for this goal, which was originally set for 2022 but was disrupted. Statement 2 is correct. A major long-term objective of the scheme, linked to the “Atmanirbhar Bharat” vision, is to achieve self-sufficiency in key agricultural commodities like food grains, pulses, and oilseeds, thereby reducing India’s import bill for these items. Statement 3 is incorrect. The scheme does offer subsidies on inputs, but the subsidy is not uniform. The data specifies a range of subsidies, from 50% to 80%, indicating a differentiated approach rather than a flat 50% for all. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. One of the key benefits and stated goals of the PMDDKY is to “double farmer incomes by 2030.” This aligns with the government’s extended timeline for this goal, which was originally set for 2022 but was disrupted. Statement 2 is correct. A major long-term objective of the scheme, linked to the “Atmanirbhar Bharat” vision, is to achieve self-sufficiency in key agricultural commodities like food grains, pulses, and oilseeds, thereby reducing India’s import bill for these items. Statement 3 is incorrect. The scheme does offer subsidies on inputs, but the subsidy is not uniform. The data specifies a range of subsidies, from 50% to 80%, indicating a differentiated approach rather than a flat 50% for all.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY):

• It aims to double farmer incomes by 2030, aligning with the government’s extended goal.

• It seeks to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains, pulses, and oilseeds to reduce import dependence.

• The scheme offers a uniform subsidy of 50% on agricultural inputs for all beneficiaries.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. One of the key benefits and stated goals of the PMDDKY is to “double farmer incomes by 2030.” This aligns with the government’s extended timeline for this goal, which was originally set for 2022 but was disrupted.

• Statement 2 is correct. A major long-term objective of the scheme, linked to the “Atmanirbhar Bharat” vision, is to achieve self-sufficiency in key agricultural commodities like food grains, pulses, and oilseeds, thereby reducing India’s import bill for these items.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The scheme does offer subsidies on inputs, but the subsidy is not uniform. The data specifies a range of subsidies, from 50% to 80%, indicating a differentiated approach rather than a flat 50% for all.

Solution: A

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