UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 6 May 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 10 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 10 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) When global interest rates rise significantly, the price of gold usually surges. (b) An increase in gold imports improves India’s current account deficit. (c) High domestic inflation always leads to a proportional drop in gold demand in India. (d) A depreciation of the Indian rupee can make gold more expensive in India even if global gold prices remain unchanged. Correct Solution: d) If the Indian rupee depreciates (loses value against, say, the US dollar), gold becomes costlier in rupee terms even if the international price (in USD) hasn’t changed. This is because India buys gold on international markets in dollars; a weaker rupee means you need more rupees to buy the same dollar-priced gold. For example, if gold is $1900/oz and the rupee goes from ₹70/$ to ₹80/$, the rupee price of gold rises accordingly. So (d) is true and reflects an important macro factor: currency movements directly affect domestic gold prices. Incorrect Solution: d) If the Indian rupee depreciates (loses value against, say, the US dollar), gold becomes costlier in rupee terms even if the international price (in USD) hasn’t changed. This is because India buys gold on international markets in dollars; a weaker rupee means you need more rupees to buy the same dollar-priced gold. For example, if gold is $1900/oz and the rupee goes from ₹70/$ to ₹80/$, the rupee price of gold rises accordingly. So (d) is true and reflects an important macro factor: currency movements directly affect domestic gold prices.

#### 1. Question

Which one of the following statements is correct?

• (a) When global interest rates rise significantly, the price of gold usually surges.

• (b) An increase in gold imports improves India’s current account deficit.

• (c) High domestic inflation always leads to a proportional drop in gold demand in India.

• (d) A depreciation of the Indian rupee can make gold more expensive in India even if global gold prices remain unchanged.

Solution: d)

If the Indian rupee depreciates (loses value against, say, the US dollar), gold becomes costlier in rupee terms even if the international price (in USD) hasn’t changed. This is because India buys gold on international markets in dollars; a weaker rupee means you need more rupees to buy the same dollar-priced gold. For example, if gold is $1900/oz and the rupee goes from ₹70/$ to ₹80/$, the rupee price of gold rises accordingly. So (d) is true and reflects an important macro factor: currency movements directly affect domestic gold prices.

Solution: d)

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which one of the following most accurately represents the primary mandate and significance of CSIR-Institute of Minerals and Materials Technology (IMMT)? (a) To serve as India's nodal agency for the exploration and auctioning of mineral blocks to private corporations. (b) To conduct research and development for optimizing traditional artisanal mining techniques for socio-economic upliftment. (c) To develop innovative and sustainable technologies for mineral processing and material resource engineering, supporting industrial growth and environmental protection. (d) To exclusively focus on the metallurgical extraction of radioactive minerals for India's nuclear energy program. Correct Solution: c) The core identity of CSIR-IMMT is as a premier research institute specializing in mineral and material resource engineering and sustainable resource development. Its objectives include developing innovative, sustainable mineral and material processing technologies, supporting industries in achieving zero-waste mining, promoting resource efficiency, and ensuring socio-economic benefits while protecting the environment. Option (a) is incorrect. While IMMT’s research supports the mineral sector, it is not the nodal agency for exploration and auctioning of mineral blocks; these functions are typically handled by governmental bodies like the Geological Survey of India (GSI) and ministries related to mines. Option (b) is incorrect. While socio-economic benefits are an objective, IMMT’s focus is on advanced and innovative technologies, not primarily on optimizing traditional artisanal techniques, though its research might have applications that could benefit smaller scales of operation. Option (d) is incorrect. While IMMT might conduct research relevant to various minerals, including those that could be radioactive, its mandate is not exclusively focused on radioactive minerals for the nuclear program. Its scope is broader, covering a wide range of minerals and materials for diverse industrial applications, including critical minerals for green technologies. Incorrect Solution: c) The core identity of CSIR-IMMT is as a premier research institute specializing in mineral and material resource engineering and sustainable resource development. Its objectives include developing innovative, sustainable mineral and material processing technologies, supporting industries in achieving zero-waste mining, promoting resource efficiency, and ensuring socio-economic benefits while protecting the environment. Option (a) is incorrect. While IMMT’s research supports the mineral sector, it is not the nodal agency for exploration and auctioning of mineral blocks; these functions are typically handled by governmental bodies like the Geological Survey of India (GSI) and ministries related to mines. Option (b) is incorrect. While socio-economic benefits are an objective, IMMT’s focus is on advanced and innovative technologies, not primarily on optimizing traditional artisanal techniques, though its research might have applications that could benefit smaller scales of operation. Option (d) is incorrect. While IMMT might conduct research relevant to various minerals, including those that could be radioactive, its mandate is not exclusively focused on radioactive minerals for the nuclear program. Its scope is broader, covering a wide range of minerals and materials for diverse industrial applications, including critical minerals for green technologies.

#### 2. Question

Which one of the following most accurately represents the primary mandate and significance of CSIR-Institute of Minerals and Materials Technology (IMMT)?

• (a) To serve as India's nodal agency for the exploration and auctioning of mineral blocks to private corporations.

• (b) To conduct research and development for optimizing traditional artisanal mining techniques for socio-economic upliftment.

• (c) To develop innovative and sustainable technologies for mineral processing and material resource engineering, supporting industrial growth and environmental protection.

• (d) To exclusively focus on the metallurgical extraction of radioactive minerals for India's nuclear energy program.

Solution: c)

The core identity of CSIR-IMMT is as a premier research institute specializing in mineral and material resource engineering and sustainable resource development. Its objectives include developing innovative, sustainable mineral and material processing technologies, supporting industries in achieving zero-waste mining, promoting resource efficiency, and ensuring socio-economic benefits while protecting the environment.

Option (a) is incorrect. While IMMT’s research supports the mineral sector, it is not the nodal agency for exploration and auctioning of mineral blocks; these functions are typically handled by governmental bodies like the Geological Survey of India (GSI) and ministries related to mines.

Option (b) is incorrect. While socio-economic benefits are an objective, IMMT’s focus is on advanced and innovative technologies, not primarily on optimizing traditional artisanal techniques, though its research might have applications that could benefit smaller scales of operation.

Option (d) is incorrect. While IMMT might conduct research relevant to various minerals, including those that could be radioactive, its mandate is not exclusively focused on radioactive minerals for the nuclear program. Its scope is broader, covering a wide range of minerals and materials for diverse industrial applications, including critical minerals for green technologies.

Solution: c)

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following regarding the composition and mandate of the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS): The National Security Advisor (NSA) is a member of the CCS with full voting rights. The CCS’s mandate is strictly limited to external security threats and defence policy formulation. Decisions taken by the CCS are binding and cannot be reviewed by the full Cabinet. The committee’s formation and specific composition are determined solely by the President of India based on recommendations from the Chief Justice of India. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) None Correct Solution: d) Statements 1 is Incorrect. The National Security Advisor (NSA), along with the Cabinet Secretary and key Secretaries (Defence, Home, External Affairs), are typically Permanent Invitees to CCS meetings. While their input is crucial, they are not formal members of the committee in the same way as the designated Ministers (PM, Home, Defence, Finance, External Affairs) and generally do not have voting rights within the committee structure itself. Statements 2 is Incorrect. The CCS mandate is broad and covers the entire spectrum of national security. This includes not only external threats and defence policy but also internal security matters, including significant law and order situations, counter-terrorism policy, intelligence coordination, nuclear policy, and crisis management arising from various security challenges, both internal and external. Statements 3 is Incorrect. Cabinet Committees are formed to deliberate on specific issues and often take decisions to reduce the workload of the full Cabinet. However, their decisions, especially major policy decisions, can be reviewed by the full Cabinet. They function as instruments of the Cabinet, not independent bodies whose decisions supersede it. Statements 4 is Incorrect. Cabinet Committees, including the CCS, are constituted (and reconstituted) by the Prime Minister of India according to the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules. Their formation is based on the PM’s assessment of administrative needs and priorities, not determined by the President or the Chief Justice of India. Incorrect Solution: d) Statements 1 is Incorrect. The National Security Advisor (NSA), along with the Cabinet Secretary and key Secretaries (Defence, Home, External Affairs), are typically Permanent Invitees to CCS meetings. While their input is crucial, they are not formal members of the committee in the same way as the designated Ministers (PM, Home, Defence, Finance, External Affairs) and generally do not have voting rights within the committee structure itself. Statements 2 is Incorrect. The CCS mandate is broad and covers the entire spectrum of national security. This includes not only external threats and defence policy but also internal security matters, including significant law and order situations, counter-terrorism policy, intelligence coordination, nuclear policy, and crisis management arising from various security challenges, both internal and external. Statements 3 is Incorrect. Cabinet Committees are formed to deliberate on specific issues and often take decisions to reduce the workload of the full Cabinet. However, their decisions, especially major policy decisions, can be reviewed by the full Cabinet. They function as instruments of the Cabinet, not independent bodies whose decisions supersede it. Statements 4 is Incorrect. Cabinet Committees, including the CCS, are constituted (and reconstituted) by the Prime Minister of India according to the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules. Their formation is based on the PM’s assessment of administrative needs and priorities, not determined by the President or the Chief Justice of India.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following regarding the composition and mandate of the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS):

• The National Security Advisor (NSA) is a member of the CCS with full voting rights.

• The CCS’s mandate is strictly limited to external security threats and defence policy formulation.

• Decisions taken by the CCS are binding and cannot be reviewed by the full Cabinet.

• The committee’s formation and specific composition are determined solely by the President of India based on recommendations from the Chief Justice of India.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

Solution: d)

• Statements 1 is Incorrect. The National Security Advisor (NSA), along with the Cabinet Secretary and key Secretaries (Defence, Home, External Affairs), are typically Permanent Invitees to CCS meetings. While their input is crucial, they are not formal members of the committee in the same way as the designated Ministers (PM, Home, Defence, Finance, External Affairs) and generally do not have voting rights within the committee structure itself.

• Statements 2 is Incorrect. The CCS mandate is broad and covers the entire spectrum of national security. This includes not only external threats and defence policy but also internal security matters, including significant law and order situations, counter-terrorism policy, intelligence coordination, nuclear policy, and crisis management arising from various security challenges, both internal and external.

• Statements 3 is Incorrect. Cabinet Committees are formed to deliberate on specific issues and often take decisions to reduce the workload of the full Cabinet. However, their decisions, especially major policy decisions, can be reviewed by the full Cabinet. They function as instruments of the Cabinet, not independent bodies whose decisions supersede it.

• Statements 4 is Incorrect. Cabinet Committees, including the CCS, are constituted (and reconstituted) by the Prime Minister of India according to the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules. Their formation is based on the PM’s assessment of administrative needs and priorities, not determined by the President or the Chief Justice of India.

Solution: d)

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement-I: The Krishna River is the second largest east-flowing river in Peninsular India. Statement-II: The Godavari River has a larger catchment area and total length compared to the Krishna River. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: b) Statement-I is correct. Krishna River is the “Second Largest East-Flowing River in Peninsular India (after Godavari)”. This is a standard geographical fact. Statement-II is correct. The Godavari River, often called the ‘Dakshin Ganga’, originates in the Western Ghats near Trimbakeshwar in Maharashtra and flows eastward for about 1,465 km (slightly longer than the Krishna’s ~1,400 km) before draining into the Bay of Bengal. Its catchment area (approximately 312,812 sq km) is significantly larger than that of the Krishna River (approximately 258,948 sq km). Therefore, the Godavari is indeed larger than the Krishna in terms of both length and catchment area. Statement-II provides the factual basis for why Krishna is the second largest, as it confirms Godavari is larger. However, Statement II doesn’t explain why Krishna holds the second position in the way a direct cause-and-effect explanation would. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement-I is correct. Krishna River is the “Second Largest East-Flowing River in Peninsular India (after Godavari)”. This is a standard geographical fact. Statement-II is correct. The Godavari River, often called the ‘Dakshin Ganga’, originates in the Western Ghats near Trimbakeshwar in Maharashtra and flows eastward for about 1,465 km (slightly longer than the Krishna’s ~1,400 km) before draining into the Bay of Bengal. Its catchment area (approximately 312,812 sq km) is significantly larger than that of the Krishna River (approximately 258,948 sq km). Therefore, the Godavari is indeed larger than the Krishna in terms of both length and catchment area. Statement-II provides the factual basis for why Krishna is the second largest, as it confirms Godavari is larger. However, Statement II doesn’t explain why Krishna holds the second position in the way a direct cause-and-effect explanation would.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: The Krishna River is the second largest east-flowing river in Peninsular India.

Statement-II: The Godavari River has a larger catchment area and total length compared to the Krishna River.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: b)

Statement-I is correct. Krishna River is the “Second Largest East-Flowing River in Peninsular India (after Godavari)”. This is a standard geographical fact.

Statement-II is correct. The Godavari River, often called the ‘Dakshin Ganga’, originates in the Western Ghats near Trimbakeshwar in Maharashtra and flows eastward for about 1,465 km (slightly longer than the Krishna’s ~1,400 km) before draining into the Bay of Bengal. Its catchment area (approximately 312,812 sq km) is significantly larger than that of the Krishna River (approximately 258,948 sq km). Therefore, the Godavari is indeed larger than the Krishna in terms of both length and catchment area.

Statement-II provides the factual basis for why Krishna is the second largest, as it confirms Godavari is larger. However, Statement II doesn’t explain why Krishna holds the second position in the way a direct cause-and-effect explanation would.

Solution: b)

Statement-I is correct. Krishna River is the “Second Largest East-Flowing River in Peninsular India (after Godavari)”. This is a standard geographical fact.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) and the River Cities Alliance (RCA): The National Mission for Clean Ganga was launched as a registered society primarily to implement the policies formulated by the National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA). The River Cities Alliance (RCA) is an initiative exclusively managed by the Ministry of Jal Shakti, without the involvement of other Union ministries. Membership to the River Cities Alliance is restricted to cities located directly on the main stem of the River Ganga. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) was registered as a society on 12th August 2011 under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. It acts as the implementation arm of the National Ganga Council (which replaced the NGRBA). Its primary role is the rejuvenation, protection, and management of the River Ganga, which involves implementing programs and projects. Statement 2 is incorrect. The River Cities Alliance (RCA) was launched in 2021 as a collaborative effort by the Ministry of Jal Shakti and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. This joint involvement highlights the inter-ministerial approach required for sustainable urban river management. Statement 3 is incorrect. The River Cities Alliance (RCA) is open to all river cities in India, not just those on the main stem of the Ganga. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) was registered as a society on 12th August 2011 under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. It acts as the implementation arm of the National Ganga Council (which replaced the NGRBA). Its primary role is the rejuvenation, protection, and management of the River Ganga, which involves implementing programs and projects. Statement 2 is incorrect. The River Cities Alliance (RCA) was launched in 2021 as a collaborative effort by the Ministry of Jal Shakti and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. This joint involvement highlights the inter-ministerial approach required for sustainable urban river management. Statement 3 is incorrect. The River Cities Alliance (RCA) is open to all river cities in India, not just those on the main stem of the Ganga.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) and the River Cities Alliance (RCA):

• The National Mission for Clean Ganga was launched as a registered society primarily to implement the policies formulated by the National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA).

• The River Cities Alliance (RCA) is an initiative exclusively managed by the Ministry of Jal Shakti, without the involvement of other Union ministries.

• Membership to the River Cities Alliance is restricted to cities located directly on the main stem of the River Ganga.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct. The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) was registered as a society on 12th August 2011 under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. It acts as the implementation arm of the National Ganga Council (which replaced the NGRBA). Its primary role is the rejuvenation, protection, and management of the River Ganga, which involves implementing programs and projects.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The River Cities Alliance (RCA) was launched in 2021 as a collaborative effort by the Ministry of Jal Shakti and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. This joint involvement highlights the inter-ministerial approach required for sustainable urban river management.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The River Cities Alliance (RCA) is open to all river cities in India, not just those on the main stem of the Ganga.

Solution: a)

Statement 3 is incorrect. The River Cities Alliance (RCA) is open to all river cities in India, not just those on the main stem of the Ganga.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following contributions is most singularly emblematic of Dr. K. Kasturirangan’s leadership tenure at ISRO (1994–2003) in terms of strategic programmatic shift? (a) The initiation of India's first Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan). (b) Spearheading India's transition from primarily experimental satellite missions to a fully operational space agency with diverse thematic missions. (c) The complete indigenization of cryogenic engine technology for the GSLV Mk III. (d) Establishing the Antrix Corporation as ISRO's sole commercial entity for global satellite launch services. Correct Solution: b) Option (a) is incorrect. The Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan) was launched in 2013, well after Dr. Kasturirangan’s tenure as ISRO Chairman ended in 2003. While he conceptualized Chandrayaan-1 (India’s first lunar mission), Mangalyaan came later. Option (b) is correct. He “Spearheaded India’s transition from experimental to operational satellite missions during 1994–2003.” Numerous thematic missions initiated under his leadership, such as EDUSAT, INSAT/GSAT for telemedicine, RESOURCESAT, OCEANSAT, CARTOSAT, Meghatropiques, and ASTROSAT, and the conceptualization of Chandrayaan-1. This diversification and operationalization elevated ISRO to a “fully operational national space agency.” Option (c) is incorrect. While the development of cryogenic technology was ongoing, the complete indigenization and successful operationalization of the indigenous cryogenic upper stage for GSLV Mk III (now LVM3) occurred much later than his tenure. Option (d) is incorrect. Antrix Corporation was established in 1992, before his chairmanship began, although he did champion India’s entry into commercial satellite services, notably by leasing INSAT-2E transponders to INTELSAT in 1999. Incorrect Solution: b) Option (a) is incorrect. The Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan) was launched in 2013, well after Dr. Kasturirangan’s tenure as ISRO Chairman ended in 2003. While he conceptualized Chandrayaan-1 (India’s first lunar mission), Mangalyaan came later. Option (b) is correct. He “Spearheaded India’s transition from experimental to operational satellite missions during 1994–2003.” Numerous thematic missions initiated under his leadership, such as EDUSAT, INSAT/GSAT for telemedicine, RESOURCESAT, OCEANSAT, CARTOSAT, Meghatropiques, and ASTROSAT, and the conceptualization of Chandrayaan-1. This diversification and operationalization elevated ISRO to a “fully operational national space agency.” Option (c) is incorrect. While the development of cryogenic technology was ongoing, the complete indigenization and successful operationalization of the indigenous cryogenic upper stage for GSLV Mk III (now LVM3) occurred much later than his tenure. Option (d) is incorrect. Antrix Corporation was established in 1992, before his chairmanship began, although he did champion India’s entry into commercial satellite services, notably by leasing INSAT-2E transponders to INTELSAT in 1999.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following contributions is most singularly emblematic of Dr. K. Kasturirangan’s leadership tenure at ISRO (1994–2003) in terms of strategic programmatic shift?

• (a) The initiation of India's first Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan).

• (b) Spearheading India's transition from primarily experimental satellite missions to a fully operational space agency with diverse thematic missions.

• (c) The complete indigenization of cryogenic engine technology for the GSLV Mk III.

• (d) Establishing the Antrix Corporation as ISRO's sole commercial entity for global satellite launch services.

Solution: b)

Option (a) is incorrect. The Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan) was launched in 2013, well after Dr. Kasturirangan’s tenure as ISRO Chairman ended in 2003. While he conceptualized Chandrayaan-1 (India’s first lunar mission), Mangalyaan came later.

Option (b) is correct. He “Spearheaded India’s transition from experimental to operational satellite missions during 1994–2003.” Numerous thematic missions initiated under his leadership, such as EDUSAT, INSAT/GSAT for telemedicine, RESOURCESAT, OCEANSAT, CARTOSAT, Meghatropiques, and ASTROSAT, and the conceptualization of Chandrayaan-1. This diversification and operationalization elevated ISRO to a “fully operational national space agency.”

Option (c) is incorrect. While the development of cryogenic technology was ongoing, the complete indigenization and successful operationalization of the indigenous cryogenic upper stage for GSLV Mk III (now LVM3) occurred much later than his tenure.

Option (d) is incorrect. Antrix Corporation was established in 1992, before his chairmanship began, although he did champion India’s entry into commercial satellite services, notably by leasing INSAT-2E transponders to INTELSAT in 1999.

Solution: b)

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points The Line of Control (LoC) was formally established and named as such primarily under the provisions of which one of the following? (a) The Karachi Agreement of 1949 (b) The Tashkent Agreement of 1966 (c) The Simla Agreement of 1972 (d) A United Nations Security Council Resolution post the 1965 war Correct Solution: c) The Line of Control (LoC) as it is known today was formally established and named following the India-Pakistan war of 1971. The subsequent Simla Agreement, signed on July 2, 1972, by India and Pakistan, was the instrument through which the erstwhile Ceasefire Line (CFL) was redefined and designated as the Line of Control. Option (a) The Karachi Agreement of 1949 was significant as it established the original Ceasefire Line (CFL) after the 1947-48 war. However, this was the CFL, not yet the LoC. Option (b) The Tashkent Agreement of 1966 followed the 1965 war and essentially reaffirmed the CFL. It did not rename or redefine it as the LoC. Option (d) While United Nations resolutions played a role in establishing ceasefires, particularly in the context of the CFL, the formal establishment and naming of the “Line of Control” was a bilateral outcome of the Simla Agreement, not directly mandated by a specific UNSC resolution post-1965 war for this naming. Incorrect Solution: c) The Line of Control (LoC) as it is known today was formally established and named following the India-Pakistan war of 1971. The subsequent Simla Agreement, signed on July 2, 1972, by India and Pakistan, was the instrument through which the erstwhile Ceasefire Line (CFL) was redefined and designated as the Line of Control. Option (a) The Karachi Agreement of 1949 was significant as it established the original Ceasefire Line (CFL) after the 1947-48 war. However, this was the CFL, not yet the LoC. Option (b) The Tashkent Agreement of 1966 followed the 1965 war and essentially reaffirmed the CFL. It did not rename or redefine it as the LoC. Option (d) While United Nations resolutions played a role in establishing ceasefires, particularly in the context of the CFL, the formal establishment and naming of the “Line of Control” was a bilateral outcome of the Simla Agreement, not directly mandated by a specific UNSC resolution post-1965 war for this naming.

#### 7. Question

The Line of Control (LoC) was formally established and named as such primarily under the provisions of which one of the following?

• (a) The Karachi Agreement of 1949

• (b) The Tashkent Agreement of 1966

• (c) The Simla Agreement of 1972

• (d) A United Nations Security Council Resolution post the 1965 war

Solution: c)

The Line of Control (LoC) as it is known today was formally established and named following the India-Pakistan war of 1971. The subsequent Simla Agreement, signed on July 2, 1972, by India and Pakistan, was the instrument through which the erstwhile Ceasefire Line (CFL) was redefined and designated as the Line of Control.

Option (a) The Karachi Agreement of 1949 was significant as it established the original Ceasefire Line (CFL) after the 1947-48 war. However, this was the CFL, not yet the LoC.

Option (b) The Tashkent Agreement of 1966 followed the 1965 war and essentially reaffirmed the CFL. It did not rename or redefine it as the LoC.

Option (d) While United Nations resolutions played a role in establishing ceasefires, particularly in the context of the CFL, the formal establishment and naming of the “Line of Control” was a bilateral outcome of the Simla Agreement, not directly mandated by a specific UNSC resolution post-1965 war for this naming.

Solution: c)

Option (a) The Karachi Agreement of 1949 was significant as it established the original Ceasefire Line (CFL) after the 1947-48 war. However, this was the CFL, not yet the LoC.

Option (b) The Tashkent Agreement of 1966 followed the 1965 war and essentially reaffirmed the CFL. It did not rename or redefine it as the LoC.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement-I: The recent collaboration agreements signed by CSIR- Institute of Minerals and Materials Technology (IMMT) with Russian premier institutes are strategically significant for India’s ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ and ‘Viksit Bharat’ visions. Statement-II: Enhanced domestic capabilities in critical mineral processing and sustainable resource management reduce reliance on imports and bolster indigenous industrial development, which are core tenets of self-reliant and developed India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: a) Statement-I is correct. The provided text explicitly states that the recent pact by CSIR-IMMT “Strengthens India’s Critical Mineral Ecosystem: Critical for India’s Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat visions.” This directly links the collaboration to these national goals. Statement-II is correct. The ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ (Self-reliant India) initiative aims to make the country self-sufficient by strengthening domestic industries and reducing import dependencies. ‘Viksit Bharat’ (Developed India) envisions India as a developed nation by 2047, which requires robust industrial capabilities and resource security. Critical minerals are essential raw materials for many advanced and green technologies. Therefore, enhancing domestic capabilities in processing these minerals and managing resources sustainably directly contributes to reducing import reliance and fostering indigenous industrial growth, aligning perfectly with the objectives of Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement-I is correct. The provided text explicitly states that the recent pact by CSIR-IMMT “Strengthens India’s Critical Mineral Ecosystem: Critical for India’s Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat visions.” This directly links the collaboration to these national goals. Statement-II is correct. The ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ (Self-reliant India) initiative aims to make the country self-sufficient by strengthening domestic industries and reducing import dependencies. ‘Viksit Bharat’ (Developed India) envisions India as a developed nation by 2047, which requires robust industrial capabilities and resource security. Critical minerals are essential raw materials for many advanced and green technologies. Therefore, enhancing domestic capabilities in processing these minerals and managing resources sustainably directly contributes to reducing import reliance and fostering indigenous industrial growth, aligning perfectly with the objectives of Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: The recent collaboration agreements signed by CSIR- Institute of Minerals and Materials Technology (IMMT) with Russian premier institutes are strategically significant for India’s ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ and ‘Viksit Bharat’ visions.

Statement-II: Enhanced domestic capabilities in critical mineral processing and sustainable resource management reduce reliance on imports and bolster indigenous industrial development, which are core tenets of self-reliant and developed India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: a)

Statement-I is correct. The provided text explicitly states that the recent pact by CSIR-IMMT “Strengthens India’s Critical Mineral Ecosystem: Critical for India’s Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat visions.” This directly links the collaboration to these national goals.

Statement-II is correct. The ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ (Self-reliant India) initiative aims to make the country self-sufficient by strengthening domestic industries and reducing import dependencies. ‘Viksit Bharat’ (Developed India) envisions India as a developed nation by 2047, which requires robust industrial capabilities and resource security. Critical minerals are essential raw materials for many advanced and green technologies.

Therefore, enhancing domestic capabilities in processing these minerals and managing resources sustainably directly contributes to reducing import reliance and fostering indigenous industrial growth, aligning perfectly with the objectives of Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat.

Solution: a)

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following is NOT a primary objective of the National Industrial Corridor Development Corporation (NICDC)? (a) To develop futuristic industrial cities integrated with smart technologies. (b) To directly regulate and set tariff policies for all manufacturing units within industrial corridors. (c) To foster industrial investments, innovation, and regional economic growth. (d) To support India’s vision of becoming a global manufacturing powerhouse. Correct Solution: b) Option (a) is a primary objective. The NICDC aims to develop futuristic industrial cities that are integrated with smart technologies, creating advanced manufacturing ecosystems. This is central to its mission. Option (b) is NOT a primary objective. While NICDC plays a crucial role in planning, developing, and managing industrial corridors, it does not directly regulate and set tariff policies for individual manufacturing units. Tariff policies and direct regulation of industrial units typically fall under the purview of other specific regulatory bodies or government departments (e.g., related to taxation, environment, labor). NICDC’s role is more facilitative and developmental, focusing on infrastructure and enabling frameworks. Option (c) is a primary objective. Fostering industrial investments, promoting innovation, and stimulating regional economic growth are key goals of the NICDC. Industrial corridors are designed to act as catalysts for these outcomes. Option (d) is a primary objective. Supporting India’s vision of becoming a global manufacturing powerhouse is an overarching aim of NICDC. Its efforts in developing industrial infrastructure and competitive hubs are directly aligned with this national ambition. Incorrect Solution: b) Option (a) is a primary objective. The NICDC aims to develop futuristic industrial cities that are integrated with smart technologies, creating advanced manufacturing ecosystems. This is central to its mission. Option (b) is NOT a primary objective. While NICDC plays a crucial role in planning, developing, and managing industrial corridors, it does not directly regulate and set tariff policies for individual manufacturing units. Tariff policies and direct regulation of industrial units typically fall under the purview of other specific regulatory bodies or government departments (e.g., related to taxation, environment, labor). NICDC’s role is more facilitative and developmental, focusing on infrastructure and enabling frameworks. Option (c) is a primary objective. Fostering industrial investments, promoting innovation, and stimulating regional economic growth are key goals of the NICDC. Industrial corridors are designed to act as catalysts for these outcomes. Option (d) is a primary objective. Supporting India’s vision of becoming a global manufacturing powerhouse is an overarching aim of NICDC. Its efforts in developing industrial infrastructure and competitive hubs are directly aligned with this national ambition.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following is NOT a primary objective of the National Industrial Corridor Development Corporation (NICDC)?

• (a) To develop futuristic industrial cities integrated with smart technologies.

• (b) To directly regulate and set tariff policies for all manufacturing units within industrial corridors.

• (c) To foster industrial investments, innovation, and regional economic growth.

• (d) To support India’s vision of becoming a global manufacturing powerhouse.

Solution: b)

Option (a) is a primary objective. The NICDC aims to develop futuristic industrial cities that are integrated with smart technologies, creating advanced manufacturing ecosystems. This is central to its mission.

Option (b) is NOT a primary objective. While NICDC plays a crucial role in planning, developing, and managing industrial corridors, it does not directly regulate and set tariff policies for individual manufacturing units. Tariff policies and direct regulation of industrial units typically fall under the purview of other specific regulatory bodies or government departments (e.g., related to taxation, environment, labor). NICDC’s role is more facilitative and developmental, focusing on infrastructure and enabling frameworks.

Option (c) is a primary objective. Fostering industrial investments, promoting innovation, and stimulating regional economic growth are key goals of the NICDC. Industrial corridors are designed to act as catalysts for these outcomes.

Option (d) is a primary objective. Supporting India’s vision of becoming a global manufacturing powerhouse is an overarching aim of NICDC. Its efforts in developing industrial infrastructure and competitive hubs are directly aligned with this national ambition.

Solution: b)

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Similipal: Similipal was declared a Tiger Reserve under Project Tiger before it was recognized as a Wildlife Sanctuary. The entire area of Similipal Tiger Reserve has now been notified as Similipal National Park. Similipal is part of the Deccan Peninsula biogeographic zone and is drained by rivers that are exclusively east-flowing, directly into the Bay of Bengal. The park is known for its endemic population of albino tigers, contributing significantly to its unique wildlife. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. Similipal was declared a Tiger Reserve under Project Tiger in 1973. It was subsequently recognized as a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1979. This timeline indicates its status as a Tiger Reserve predates its Wildlife Sanctuary designation. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Similipal National Park, notified recently, spans an area of 845.70 sq. km. This area is carved out of the Similipal Tiger Reserve. The Similipal Tiger Reserve itself is much larger (typically encompassing a core area, which is often the National Park, and a buffer zone). The notification does not state the entire Tiger Reserve is now a National Park, but rather that the park is a newly notified protected area within the larger reserve landscape. Statement 3 is incorrect. Similipal is famous for its unique population of melanistic tigers (often referred to as black tigers due to their broad, merged stripes), not albino tigers. This genetic trait leading to melanism is a key feature of Similipal’s tiger population and is vital for preserving this unique genetic lineage. Albino tigers (white tigers with pink eyes) are a different genetic variation and are not specifically associated with Similipal’s endemic wild population. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. Similipal was declared a Tiger Reserve under Project Tiger in 1973. It was subsequently recognized as a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1979. This timeline indicates its status as a Tiger Reserve predates its Wildlife Sanctuary designation. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Similipal National Park, notified recently, spans an area of 845.70 sq. km. This area is carved out of the Similipal Tiger Reserve. The Similipal Tiger Reserve itself is much larger (typically encompassing a core area, which is often the National Park, and a buffer zone). The notification does not state the entire Tiger Reserve is now a National Park, but rather that the park is a newly notified protected area within the larger reserve landscape. Statement 3 is incorrect. Similipal is famous for its unique population of melanistic tigers (often referred to as black tigers due to their broad, merged stripes), not albino tigers. This genetic trait leading to melanism is a key feature of Similipal’s tiger population and is vital for preserving this unique genetic lineage. Albino tigers (white tigers with pink eyes) are a different genetic variation and are not specifically associated with Similipal’s endemic wild population.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Similipal:

• Similipal was declared a Tiger Reserve under Project Tiger before it was recognized as a Wildlife Sanctuary.

• The entire area of Similipal Tiger Reserve has now been notified as Similipal National Park.

• Similipal is part of the Deccan Peninsula biogeographic zone and is drained by rivers that are exclusively east-flowing, directly into the Bay of Bengal.

• The park is known for its endemic population of albino tigers, contributing significantly to its unique wildlife.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct. Similipal was declared a Tiger Reserve under Project Tiger in 1973. It was subsequently recognized as a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1979. This timeline indicates its status as a Tiger Reserve predates its Wildlife Sanctuary designation.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Similipal National Park, notified recently, spans an area of 845.70 sq. km. This area is carved out of the Similipal Tiger Reserve. The Similipal Tiger Reserve itself is much larger (typically encompassing a core area, which is often the National Park, and a buffer zone). The notification does not state the entire Tiger Reserve is now a National Park, but rather that the park is a newly notified protected area within the larger reserve landscape.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Similipal is famous for its unique population of melanistic tigers (often referred to as black tigers due to their broad, merged stripes), not albino tigers. This genetic trait leading to melanism is a key feature of Similipal’s tiger population and is vital for preserving this unique genetic lineage. Albino tigers (white tigers with pink eyes) are a different genetic variation and are not specifically associated with Similipal’s endemic wild population.

Solution: a)

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates for

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE