UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 6 March 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to conservation methods, consider the following pairs: Conservation Method Example / Site 1. In-Situ Conservation National Seed Gene Bank 2. Ex-Situ Conservation Biosphere Reserves 3. In-Situ Conservation Sacred Groves 4. Ex-Situ Conservation Cryopreservation How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched. In-situ conservation involves the protection of species within their natural habitats. Sacred Groves are a classic example of this, where community-protected forest fragments are preserved due to religious and cultural beliefs, acting as micro-refuges for biodiversity. Similarly, Cryopreservation is a sophisticated ex-situ (off-site) method where biological materials like seeds, pollen, or embryos are stored at ultra-low temperatures to maintain viability for long periods outside their natural environment. Pairs 1 and 2 are incorrectly matched. The National Seed Gene Bank is an ex-situ facility because it preserves genetic material in a controlled, artificial environment (NBPGR) rather than in the wild. Conversely, Biosphere Reserves (like the Nilgiris) are large-scale in-situ conservation areas designed for ecosystem protection and sustainable development within the natural landscape. Understanding the distinction between “on-site” and “off-site” protection is fundamental to wildlife management. While in-situ methods preserve the evolutionary process and ecological interactions, ex-situ methods provide a vital safety net for species that are critically endangered or extinct in the wild. India utilizes a multidisciplinary approach combining both to ensure the restoration of healthy native ecosystems. Incorrect Solution: B Pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched. In-situ conservation involves the protection of species within their natural habitats. Sacred Groves are a classic example of this, where community-protected forest fragments are preserved due to religious and cultural beliefs, acting as micro-refuges for biodiversity. Similarly, Cryopreservation is a sophisticated ex-situ (off-site) method where biological materials like seeds, pollen, or embryos are stored at ultra-low temperatures to maintain viability for long periods outside their natural environment. Pairs 1 and 2 are incorrectly matched. The National Seed Gene Bank is an ex-situ facility because it preserves genetic material in a controlled, artificial environment (NBPGR) rather than in the wild. Conversely, Biosphere Reserves (like the Nilgiris) are large-scale in-situ conservation areas designed for ecosystem protection and sustainable development within the natural landscape. Understanding the distinction between “on-site” and “off-site” protection is fundamental to wildlife management. While in-situ methods preserve the evolutionary process and ecological interactions, ex-situ methods provide a vital safety net for species that are critically endangered or extinct in the wild. India utilizes a multidisciplinary approach combining both to ensure the restoration of healthy native ecosystems.

#### 1. Question

With reference to conservation methods, consider the following pairs:

Conservation Method | Example / Site

1.In-Situ Conservation | National Seed Gene Bank
2.Ex-Situ Conservation | Biosphere Reserves
3.In-Situ Conservation | Sacred Groves
4.Ex-Situ Conservation | Cryopreservation

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched. In-situ conservation involves the protection of species within their natural habitats. Sacred Groves are a classic example of this, where community-protected forest fragments are preserved due to religious and cultural beliefs, acting as micro-refuges for biodiversity. Similarly, Cryopreservation is a sophisticated ex-situ (off-site) method where biological materials like seeds, pollen, or embryos are stored at ultra-low temperatures to maintain viability for long periods outside their natural environment.

• Pairs 1 and 2 are incorrectly matched. The National Seed Gene Bank is an ex-situ facility because it preserves genetic material in a controlled, artificial environment (NBPGR) rather than in the wild. Conversely, Biosphere Reserves (like the Nilgiris) are large-scale in-situ conservation areas designed for ecosystem protection and sustainable development within the natural landscape.

• Understanding the distinction between “on-site” and “off-site” protection is fundamental to wildlife management. While in-situ methods preserve the evolutionary process and ecological interactions, ex-situ methods provide a vital safety net for species that are critically endangered or extinct in the wild. India utilizes a multidisciplinary approach combining both to ensure the restoration of healthy native ecosystems.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points The “e-CHARAK” portal, often mentioned in the context of medicinal plants, primarily serves as: (a) A digital library for ancient Ayurvedic manuscripts. (b) An online platform for the auction of timber from protected forests. (c) A virtual market for information exchange between farmers and herbal traders. (d) A mobile app for identifying endangered wildlife species in the field. Correct Solution: C The e-CHARAK (e-Channel for Heritage, Aromatic, Raw-materials and Knowledge) portal is a digital initiative by the National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB). Its main goal is to create a transparent supply chain for the medicinal plant sector. By providing a platform for farmers, collectors, and herbal traders, it facilitates the trade of raw materials like Nagauri Ashwagandha. This is crucial for India, which is the second-largest exporter of medicinal plants. The portal helps farmers get better prices and ensures that the multi-billion dollar traditional medicine (AYUSH) market has a sustainable supply of authentic ingredients. Incorrect Solution: C The e-CHARAK (e-Channel for Heritage, Aromatic, Raw-materials and Knowledge) portal is a digital initiative by the National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB). Its main goal is to create a transparent supply chain for the medicinal plant sector. By providing a platform for farmers, collectors, and herbal traders, it facilitates the trade of raw materials like Nagauri Ashwagandha. This is crucial for India, which is the second-largest exporter of medicinal plants. The portal helps farmers get better prices and ensures that the multi-billion dollar traditional medicine (AYUSH) market has a sustainable supply of authentic ingredients.

#### 2. Question

The “e-CHARAK” portal, often mentioned in the context of medicinal plants, primarily serves as:

• (a) A digital library for ancient Ayurvedic manuscripts.

• (b) An online platform for the auction of timber from protected forests.

• (c) A virtual market for information exchange between farmers and herbal traders.

• (d) A mobile app for identifying endangered wildlife species in the field.

Solution: C

The e-CHARAK (e-Channel for Heritage, Aromatic, Raw-materials and Knowledge) portal is a digital initiative by the National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB). Its main goal is to create a transparent supply chain for the medicinal plant sector. By providing a platform for farmers, collectors, and herbal traders, it facilitates the trade of raw materials like Nagauri Ashwagandha. This is crucial for India, which is the second-largest exporter of medicinal plants. The portal helps farmers get better prices and ensures that the multi-billion dollar traditional medicine (AYUSH) market has a sustainable supply of authentic ingredients.

Solution: C

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement-I: The Chola period is considered the “classical peak” of bronze casting in South India. Statement-II: The Cire perdue technique allowed Chola artisans to create icons with fluid movement and refined anatomy that could be used for temple processions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct as the Chola dynasty (9th–13th century CE) presided over an era where bronze sculpture reached unparalleled aesthetic and technical heights. These bronzes, particularly the Nataraja, are globally celebrated for their elegance and spiritual depth. Statement II is also correct and directly explains why this period was the “peak.” The lost-wax casting (Cire perdue or Madhuchista Vidhan) was the core technique that enabled such sophistication. By sculpting the original figure in wax, artisans could achieve intricate details and fluid movement that were impossible with stone. Furthermore, the transition from stone to portable bronze icons was driven by the festival theology of the Chola period. Unlike the stationary stone deities in the garbhagriha (sanctum), bronze icons were designed for public darshan and elaborate temple processions. The technical mastery of the sthapathis allowed for the creation of “living ritual icons” that were anatomically refined and balanced. This synergy between the technical affordances of the lost-wax process and the socio-religious demand for processional deities is what defines the Chola culmination. Even today, centers like Swamimalai continue this hereditary tradition, linking medieval craft with contemporary heritage economies through the same ancient casting methods. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct as the Chola dynasty (9th–13th century CE) presided over an era where bronze sculpture reached unparalleled aesthetic and technical heights. These bronzes, particularly the Nataraja, are globally celebrated for their elegance and spiritual depth. Statement II is also correct and directly explains why this period was the “peak.” The lost-wax casting (Cire perdue or Madhuchista Vidhan) was the core technique that enabled such sophistication. By sculpting the original figure in wax, artisans could achieve intricate details and fluid movement that were impossible with stone. Furthermore, the transition from stone to portable bronze icons was driven by the festival theology of the Chola period. Unlike the stationary stone deities in the garbhagriha (sanctum), bronze icons were designed for public darshan and elaborate temple processions. The technical mastery of the sthapathis allowed for the creation of “living ritual icons” that were anatomically refined and balanced. This synergy between the technical affordances of the lost-wax process and the socio-religious demand for processional deities is what defines the Chola culmination. Even today, centers like Swamimalai continue this hereditary tradition, linking medieval craft with contemporary heritage economies through the same ancient casting methods.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: The Chola period is considered the “classical peak” of bronze casting in South India.

Statement-II: The Cire perdue technique allowed Chola artisans to create icons with fluid movement and refined anatomy that could be used for temple processions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct as the Chola dynasty (9th–13th century CE) presided over an era where bronze sculpture reached unparalleled aesthetic and technical heights. These bronzes, particularly the Nataraja, are globally celebrated for their elegance and spiritual depth.

• Statement II is also correct and directly explains why this period was the “peak.” The lost-wax casting (Cire perdue or Madhuchista Vidhan) was the core technique that enabled such sophistication. By sculpting the original figure in wax, artisans could achieve intricate details and fluid movement that were impossible with stone.

• Furthermore, the transition from stone to portable bronze icons was driven by the festival theology of the Chola period. Unlike the stationary stone deities in the garbhagriha (sanctum), bronze icons were designed for public darshan and elaborate temple processions. The technical mastery of the sthapathis allowed for the creation of “living ritual icons” that were anatomically refined and balanced. This synergy between the technical affordances of the lost-wax process and the socio-religious demand for processional deities is what defines the Chola culmination. Even today, centers like Swamimalai continue this hereditary tradition, linking medieval craft with contemporary heritage economies through the same ancient casting methods.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS): It is often referred to as the “Constitution of the Oceans” and established the International Seabed Authority (ISA). The Convention guarantees the “Freedom of Overflight” in the Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZ) of coastal states. Which of the above statements are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. UNCLOS (1982) is the comprehensive legal framework governing all ocean activities, earning it the title “Constitution of the Oceans.” It established critical institutions like the International Seabed Authority (ISA) to regulate mineral resources in the deep seabed beyond national jurisdiction (the “Common Heritage of Mankind”) and the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS) for dispute resolution. Statement 2 is incorrect in the context of general “guaranteed” rights within the EEZ as defined solely by the provided principles of International Waters. While UNCLOS provides for various freedoms, the high seas (beyond 200 nautical miles) are where Freedom of Overflight and Freedom of Navigation are most absolute as part of the “Shared Global Commons.” Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. UNCLOS (1982) is the comprehensive legal framework governing all ocean activities, earning it the title “Constitution of the Oceans.” It established critical institutions like the International Seabed Authority (ISA) to regulate mineral resources in the deep seabed beyond national jurisdiction (the “Common Heritage of Mankind”) and the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS) for dispute resolution. Statement 2 is incorrect in the context of general “guaranteed” rights within the EEZ as defined solely by the provided principles of International Waters. While UNCLOS provides for various freedoms, the high seas (beyond 200 nautical miles) are where Freedom of Overflight and Freedom of Navigation are most absolute as part of the “Shared Global Commons.”

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS):

• It is often referred to as the “Constitution of the Oceans” and established the International Seabed Authority (ISA).

• The Convention guarantees the “Freedom of Overflight” in the Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZ) of coastal states.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. UNCLOS (1982) is the comprehensive legal framework governing all ocean activities, earning it the title “Constitution of the Oceans.” It established critical institutions like the International Seabed Authority (ISA) to regulate mineral resources in the deep seabed beyond national jurisdiction (the “Common Heritage of Mankind”) and the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS) for dispute resolution.

• Statement 2 is incorrect in the context of general “guaranteed” rights within the EEZ as defined solely by the provided principles of International Waters. While UNCLOS provides for various freedoms, the high seas (beyond 200 nautical miles) are where Freedom of Overflight and Freedom of Navigation are most absolute as part of the “Shared Global Commons.”

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: Military action in international waters is generally restricted and must adhere to specific legal justifications. Statement II: Under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), the high seas are reserved for peaceful purposes, though force may be used in self-defense. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Both statements are correct and Statement II provides the legal rationale for Statement I. International waters, or the High Seas, are areas beyond the 200-nautical-mile Exclusive Economic Zone where no state can claim sovereignty. Because these areas are considered a Shared Global Commons, UNCLOS mandates under Article 88 that they must be reserved for peaceful purposes. This creates a general restriction on military aggression or the arbitrary use of force, supporting Statement I. Statement II explains the legal exceptions to this rule. While the principle is “peaceful use,” international law recognizes the inherent right of self-defense and actions authorized by the UN Security Council. Therefore, a state using force in international waters must justify its actions within these narrow legal corridors. The tension between the “peaceful use” mandate and real-world military strikes (such as the 2026 sinking of the IRIS Dena) raises significant questions about maritime security and the enforcement of UNCLOS. By defining these zones and rights, UNCLOS seeks to prevent the oceans from becoming a theater of unregulated conflict, ensuring that the Freedom of Navigation remains a reality for all nations. Incorrect Solution: A Both statements are correct and Statement II provides the legal rationale for Statement I. International waters, or the High Seas, are areas beyond the 200-nautical-mile Exclusive Economic Zone where no state can claim sovereignty. Because these areas are considered a Shared Global Commons, UNCLOS mandates under Article 88 that they must be reserved for peaceful purposes. This creates a general restriction on military aggression or the arbitrary use of force, supporting Statement I. Statement II explains the legal exceptions to this rule. While the principle is “peaceful use,” international law recognizes the inherent right of self-defense and actions authorized by the UN Security Council. Therefore, a state using force in international waters must justify its actions within these narrow legal corridors. The tension between the “peaceful use” mandate and real-world military strikes (such as the 2026 sinking of the IRIS Dena) raises significant questions about maritime security and the enforcement of UNCLOS. By defining these zones and rights, UNCLOS seeks to prevent the oceans from becoming a theater of unregulated conflict, ensuring that the Freedom of Navigation remains a reality for all nations.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Military action in international waters is generally restricted and must adhere to specific legal justifications.

Statement II: Under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), the high seas are reserved for peaceful purposes, though force may be used in self-defense.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Both statements are correct and Statement II provides the legal rationale for Statement I. International waters, or the High Seas, are areas beyond the 200-nautical-mile Exclusive Economic Zone where no state can claim sovereignty. Because these areas are considered a Shared Global Commons, UNCLOS mandates under Article 88 that they must be reserved for peaceful purposes. This creates a general restriction on military aggression or the arbitrary use of force, supporting Statement I.

• Statement II explains the legal exceptions to this rule. While the principle is “peaceful use,” international law recognizes the inherent right of self-defense and actions authorized by the UN Security Council. Therefore, a state using force in international waters must justify its actions within these narrow legal corridors. The tension between the “peaceful use” mandate and real-world military strikes (such as the 2026 sinking of the IRIS Dena) raises significant questions about maritime security and the enforcement of UNCLOS. By defining these zones and rights, UNCLOS seeks to prevent the oceans from becoming a theater of unregulated conflict, ensuring that the Freedom of Navigation remains a reality for all nations.

Solution: A

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The “Dancing Girl” from Mohenjodaro is the earliest evidence of lost-wax casting in India. The Daimabad bronzes belong to the Gupta period and depict refined Buddhist iconography. The Pala-Sena schools in Eastern India were known for their distinct regional bronze traditions. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The “Dancing Girl” found at Mohenjodaro (c. 2500 BCE) is an iconic masterpiece that proves the Indus Valley Civilization had mastered the lost-wax casting technique over four millennia ago. This establishes a long-standing tradition of metalworking in India. Later, during the regional flowering phase, the Pala and Sena dynasties in Bihar and Bengal developed highly influential bronze schools, primarily focusing on Buddhist and Hindu deities, which even influenced Himalayan and Southeast Asian art. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Daimabad bronzes (c. 1500 BCE) are notable large bronzes showing advanced casting, they belong to the Chalcolithic/Late Harappan period, not the Gupta period. The Gupta period is known for its own “classical refinement” in North India, but Daimabad represents a much earlier stage of ritual or ceremonial metal usage. The evolution of bronze art in India moved from the Harappan phase (tools and masterworks) to the Early Historic phase (portable icons aiding worship mobility) and finally reached its Chola culmination in the South. This historical trajectory shows how bronze became the supreme medium for ritual icons that were durable, portable, and capable of extreme detail. Incorrect Solution: D Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The “Dancing Girl” found at Mohenjodaro (c. 2500 BCE) is an iconic masterpiece that proves the Indus Valley Civilization had mastered the lost-wax casting technique over four millennia ago. This establishes a long-standing tradition of metalworking in India. Later, during the regional flowering phase, the Pala and Sena dynasties in Bihar and Bengal developed highly influential bronze schools, primarily focusing on Buddhist and Hindu deities, which even influenced Himalayan and Southeast Asian art. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Daimabad bronzes (c. 1500 BCE) are notable large bronzes showing advanced casting, they belong to the Chalcolithic/Late Harappan period, not the Gupta period. The Gupta period is known for its own “classical refinement” in North India, but Daimabad represents a much earlier stage of ritual or ceremonial metal usage. The evolution of bronze art in India moved from the Harappan phase (tools and masterworks) to the Early Historic phase (portable icons aiding worship mobility) and finally reached its Chola culmination in the South. This historical trajectory shows how bronze became the supreme medium for ritual icons that were durable, portable, and capable of extreme detail.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The “Dancing Girl” from Mohenjodaro is the earliest evidence of lost-wax casting in India.

• The Daimabad bronzes belong to the Gupta period and depict refined Buddhist iconography.

• The Pala-Sena schools in Eastern India were known for their distinct regional bronze traditions.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The “Dancing Girl” found at Mohenjodaro (c. 2500 BCE) is an iconic masterpiece that proves the Indus Valley Civilization had mastered the lost-wax casting technique over four millennia ago. This establishes a long-standing tradition of metalworking in India. Later, during the regional flowering phase, the Pala and Sena dynasties in Bihar and Bengal developed highly influential bronze schools, primarily focusing on Buddhist and Hindu deities, which even influenced Himalayan and Southeast Asian art.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Daimabad bronzes (c. 1500 BCE) are notable large bronzes showing advanced casting, they belong to the Chalcolithic/Late Harappan period, not the Gupta period. The Gupta period is known for its own “classical refinement” in North India, but Daimabad represents a much earlier stage of ritual or ceremonial metal usage. The evolution of bronze art in India moved from the Harappan phase (tools and masterworks) to the Early Historic phase (portable icons aiding worship mobility) and finally reached its Chola culmination in the South. This historical trajectory shows how bronze became the supreme medium for ritual icons that were durable, portable, and capable of extreme detail.

Solution: D

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Which one of the following best describes the “lost-wax casting” (Madhuchista Vidhan) technique used in Indian bronze art? (a) A process where molten metal is poured into a stone-carved cavity to create a relief. (b) A method of layering metal sheets over a wooden core to form a hollow icon. (c) A technique where a wax model is replaced by molten metal inside a clay mould. (d) A cold-forging process where copper and brass are hammered into ritual shapes. Correct Solution: C The lost-wax casting technique, also known as Cire perdue or Madhuchista Vidhan, is the cornerstone of Indian bronze sculpture. The process begins with a detailed wax model of the figure. This model is then coated with layers of fine clay to create a solid mould. When the mould is heated, the wax melts and flows out (hence “lost wax”), leaving a hollow cavity that perfectly preserves the details of the original sculpture. Molten metal (typically a copper-based alloy like bronze or the panchaloha tradition) is then poured into this cavity. Once the metal cools and solidifies, the clay mould is broken away to reveal the metal icon. This technique is revolutionary because it allows for fluidity and anatomical precision that subtractive methods (like stone carving) cannot achieve. It has been used since the Harappan phase (e.g., the Dancing Girl) and reached its height during the Chola period. The finishing involves filing, polishing, and the ritual opening of the eyes. Incorrect Solution: C The lost-wax casting technique, also known as Cire perdue or Madhuchista Vidhan, is the cornerstone of Indian bronze sculpture. The process begins with a detailed wax model of the figure. This model is then coated with layers of fine clay to create a solid mould. When the mould is heated, the wax melts and flows out (hence “lost wax”), leaving a hollow cavity that perfectly preserves the details of the original sculpture. Molten metal (typically a copper-based alloy like bronze or the panchaloha tradition) is then poured into this cavity. Once the metal cools and solidifies, the clay mould is broken away to reveal the metal icon. This technique is revolutionary because it allows for fluidity and anatomical precision that subtractive methods (like stone carving) cannot achieve. It has been used since the Harappan phase (e.g., the Dancing Girl) and reached its height during the Chola period. The finishing involves filing, polishing, and the ritual opening of the eyes.

#### 7. Question

Which one of the following best describes the “lost-wax casting” (Madhuchista Vidhan) technique used in Indian bronze art?

• (a) A process where molten metal is poured into a stone-carved cavity to create a relief.

• (b) A method of layering metal sheets over a wooden core to form a hollow icon.

• (c) A technique where a wax model is replaced by molten metal inside a clay mould.

• (d) A cold-forging process where copper and brass are hammered into ritual shapes.

Solution: C

• The lost-wax casting technique, also known as Cire perdue or Madhuchista Vidhan, is the cornerstone of Indian bronze sculpture. The process begins with a detailed wax model of the figure. This model is then coated with layers of fine clay to create a solid mould. When the mould is heated, the wax melts and flows out (hence “lost wax”), leaving a hollow cavity that perfectly preserves the details of the original sculpture. Molten metal (typically a copper-based alloy like bronze or the panchaloha tradition) is then poured into this cavity. Once the metal cools and solidifies, the clay mould is broken away to reveal the metal icon.

• This technique is revolutionary because it allows for fluidity and anatomical precision that subtractive methods (like stone carving) cannot achieve. It has been used since the Harappan phase (e.g., the Dancing Girl) and reached its height during the Chola period. The finishing involves filing, polishing, and the ritual opening of the eyes.

Solution: C

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement-I: Finland experiences phenomena such as the midnight sun and polar night. Statement-II: Approximately one-third of Finland’s territory lies north of the Arctic Circle. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Both statements are correct and Statement II provides the geographic reason for the phenomenon described in Statement I. Finland is a Nordic country located in Northern Europe, and a significant portion of its land—roughly one-third—is situated north of the Arctic Circle. This high latitude is the reason why the country experiences extreme seasonal variation in daylight. During the summer, the midnight sun occurs, where the sun does not set for several weeks. Conversely, in the winter, the polar night (kaamos) occurs, where the sun remains below the horizon. Beyond its Arctic geography, Finland is known as the “Land of Lakes,” with about 56,000 lakes formed by glacial landforms from the Ice Age. It sits on an ancient Precambrian Shield of granite and is the most densely forested country in Europe. Strategically, Finland acts as a bridge between Western Europe and Russia, a role shaped by its history of gaining independence from Russia in 1917. Incorrect Solution: A Both statements are correct and Statement II provides the geographic reason for the phenomenon described in Statement I. Finland is a Nordic country located in Northern Europe, and a significant portion of its land—roughly one-third—is situated north of the Arctic Circle. This high latitude is the reason why the country experiences extreme seasonal variation in daylight. During the summer, the midnight sun occurs, where the sun does not set for several weeks. Conversely, in the winter, the polar night (kaamos) occurs, where the sun remains below the horizon. Beyond its Arctic geography, Finland is known as the “Land of Lakes,” with about 56,000 lakes formed by glacial landforms from the Ice Age. It sits on an ancient Precambrian Shield of granite and is the most densely forested country in Europe. Strategically, Finland acts as a bridge between Western Europe and Russia, a role shaped by its history of gaining independence from Russia in 1917.

#### 8. Question

• Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: Finland experiences phenomena such as the midnight sun and polar night.

Statement-II: Approximately one-third of Finland’s territory lies north of the Arctic Circle.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Both statements are correct and Statement II provides the geographic reason for the phenomenon described in Statement I.

• Finland is a Nordic country located in Northern Europe, and a significant portion of its land—roughly one-third—is situated north of the Arctic Circle. This high latitude is the reason why the country experiences extreme seasonal variation in daylight. During the summer, the midnight sun occurs, where the sun does not set for several weeks. Conversely, in the winter, the polar night (kaamos) occurs, where the sun remains below the horizon.

• Beyond its Arctic geography, Finland is known as the “Land of Lakes,” with about 56,000 lakes formed by glacial landforms from the Ice Age. It sits on an ancient Precambrian Shield of granite and is the most densely forested country in Europe. Strategically, Finland acts as a bridge between Western Europe and Russia, a role shaped by its history of gaining independence from Russia in 1917.

Solution: A

• Both statements are correct and Statement II provides the geographic reason for the phenomenon described in Statement I.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to the International Energy Agency (IEA), consider the following statements: It was originally established to coordinate a collective response to disruptions in the global oil supply. A country must be a member of the OECD to qualify for full membership in the IEA. India currently holds the status of an “Association Country,” which grants it full voting rights in energy transition policies. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The IEA is a central pillar of global energy governance. Statement 1 is correct; it was founded in 1974 following the 1973 oil crisis (the Arab oil embargo). Its primary mission was to ensure energy security for industrialized nations by creating a mechanism for collective action during supply shocks. Statement 2 is correct based on the 1974 founding charter. Historically, OECD membership has been a mandatory prerequisite for joining the IEA. This is why the organization is headquartered in Paris alongside the OECD. Statement 3 is incorrect. While India is an Associate Member (since 2017), this status does not grant voting rights or a seat in the primary decision-making bodies. India is currently the world’s 3rd largest energy consumer, and its bid for full membership (applied for in 2023) is significant because it requires the IEA to amend its charter to allow a non-OECD nation to join. This change reflects the shifting reality of global energy consumption, where emerging economies like India now play a more dominant role than the traditional industrialized nations of the 1970s. Incorrect Solution: B The IEA is a central pillar of global energy governance. Statement 1 is correct; it was founded in 1974 following the 1973 oil crisis (the Arab oil embargo). Its primary mission was to ensure energy security for industrialized nations by creating a mechanism for collective action during supply shocks. Statement 2 is correct based on the 1974 founding charter. Historically, OECD membership has been a mandatory prerequisite for joining the IEA. This is why the organization is headquartered in Paris alongside the OECD. Statement 3 is incorrect. While India is an Associate Member (since 2017), this status does not grant voting rights or a seat in the primary decision-making bodies. India is currently the world’s 3rd largest energy consumer, and its bid for full membership (applied for in 2023) is significant because it requires the IEA to amend its charter to allow a non-OECD nation to join. This change reflects the shifting reality of global energy consumption, where emerging economies like India now play a more dominant role than the traditional industrialized nations of the 1970s.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the International Energy Agency (IEA), consider the following statements:

• It was originally established to coordinate a collective response to disruptions in the global oil supply.

• A country must be a member of the OECD to qualify for full membership in the IEA.

• India currently holds the status of an “Association Country,” which grants it full voting rights in energy transition policies.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The IEA is a central pillar of global energy governance.

• Statement 1 is correct; it was founded in 1974 following the 1973 oil crisis (the Arab oil embargo). Its primary mission was to ensure energy security for industrialized nations by creating a mechanism for collective action during supply shocks.

• Statement 2 is correct based on the 1974 founding charter. Historically, OECD membership has been a mandatory prerequisite for joining the IEA. This is why the organization is headquartered in Paris alongside the OECD.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While India is an Associate Member (since 2017), this status does not grant voting rights or a seat in the primary decision-making bodies. India is currently the world’s 3rd largest energy consumer, and its bid for full membership (applied for in 2023) is significant because it requires the IEA to amend its charter to allow a non-OECD nation to join. This change reflects the shifting reality of global energy consumption, where emerging economies like India now play a more dominant role than the traditional industrialized nations of the 1970s.

Solution: B

• The IEA is a central pillar of global energy governance.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the collaborative platforms launched under the New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact 2026: The ‘Trusted AI Commons’ serves as a voluntary repository for benchmarks and best practices to build secure AI systems. The ‘International Network of AI for Science Institutions’ aims to pool research infrastructure to accelerate scientific discovery. The ‘Global AI Impact Commons’ is primarily a commercial marketplace for the private sale of AI algorithms. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution: D The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact (2026), adopted during the India AI Impact Summit 2026, introduced several collaborative global platforms and mechanisms to promote international cooperation in artificial intelligence governance and development. Statement 1 is correct as the Trusted AI Commons is focused on safety, security, and the sharing of non-binding technical standards to help nations deploy AI responsibly. Statement 2 is correct as the International Network of AI for Science Institutions connects global scientific bodies to share the immense computing power needed for complex simulations in fields like genomics or climate modeling. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Global AI Impact Commons is a voluntary global platform for sharing and replicating successful AI solutions for social good, not a commercial marketplace. It is designed to maximize development impact through scaling proven use-cases. Incorrect Solution: D The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact (2026), adopted during the India AI Impact Summit 2026, introduced several collaborative global platforms and mechanisms to promote international cooperation in artificial intelligence governance and development. Statement 1 is correct as the Trusted AI Commons is focused on safety, security, and the sharing of non-binding technical standards to help nations deploy AI responsibly. Statement 2 is correct as the International Network of AI for Science Institutions connects global scientific bodies to share the immense computing power needed for complex simulations in fields like genomics or climate modeling. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Global AI Impact Commons is a voluntary global platform for sharing and replicating successful AI solutions for social good, not a commercial marketplace. It is designed to maximize development impact through scaling proven use-cases.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the collaborative platforms launched under the New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact 2026:

• The ‘Trusted AI Commons’ serves as a voluntary repository for benchmarks and best practices to build secure AI systems.

• The ‘International Network of AI for Science Institutions’ aims to pool research infrastructure to accelerate scientific discovery.

• The ‘Global AI Impact Commons’ is primarily a commercial marketplace for the private sale of AI algorithms.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1, 2 and 3

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: D

The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact (2026), adopted during the India AI Impact Summit 2026, introduced several collaborative global platforms and mechanisms to promote international cooperation in artificial intelligence governance and development.

• Statement 1 is correct as the Trusted AI Commons is focused on safety, security, and the sharing of non-binding technical standards to help nations deploy AI responsibly.

• Statement 2 is correct as the International Network of AI for Science Institutions connects global scientific bodies to share the immense computing power needed for complex simulations in fields like genomics or climate modeling.

• Statement 3 is incorrect because the Global AI Impact Commons is a voluntary global platform for sharing and replicating successful AI solutions for social good, not a commercial marketplace. It is designed to maximize development impact through scaling proven use-cases.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct as the Trusted AI Commons is focused on safety, security, and the sharing of non-binding technical standards to help nations deploy AI responsibly.

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