UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 5 November 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the formation and movement of a Western Disturbance: Statement I: A Western Disturbance is a tropical storm originating in the Mediterranean Sea, driven eastwards by the subtropical westerly jet stream. Statement II: The system gains moisture primarily from the Mediterranean Sea and the Caspian Sea, and its intensity is significantly enhanced by a strong temperature gradient between polar and tropical air masses. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. A Western Disturbance is explicitly an extratropical storm system, not a tropical storm. Tropical storms (like cyclones) form over warm tropical oceans, whereas extratropical storms form in the mid-latitudes due to the clash of different air masses. While it originates in the Mediterranean region and is driven by the subtropical westerly jet stream, the classification as a “tropical storm” is a fundamental error. Statement-II is correct. The system’s formation (cyclogenesis) is triggered by the temperature contrast (gradient) between cold polar air and warm, moist subtropical air. The system moves eastward, gaining moisture from the Mediterranean, Caspian, and Black Seas. Therefore, the factors described in Statement-II accurately represent the mechanism of moisture gain and intensification. Incorrect Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. A Western Disturbance is explicitly an extratropical storm system, not a tropical storm. Tropical storms (like cyclones) form over warm tropical oceans, whereas extratropical storms form in the mid-latitudes due to the clash of different air masses. While it originates in the Mediterranean region and is driven by the subtropical westerly jet stream, the classification as a “tropical storm” is a fundamental error. Statement-II is correct. The system’s formation (cyclogenesis) is triggered by the temperature contrast (gradient) between cold polar air and warm, moist subtropical air. The system moves eastward, gaining moisture from the Mediterranean, Caspian, and Black Seas. Therefore, the factors described in Statement-II accurately represent the mechanism of moisture gain and intensification.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the formation and movement of a Western Disturbance:

Statement I: A Western Disturbance is a tropical storm originating in the Mediterranean Sea, driven eastwards by the subtropical westerly jet stream.

Statement II: The system gains moisture primarily from the Mediterranean Sea and the Caspian Sea, and its intensity is significantly enhanced by a strong temperature gradient between polar and tropical air masses.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: D

• Statement-I is incorrect. A Western Disturbance is explicitly an extratropical storm system, not a tropical storm. Tropical storms (like cyclones) form over warm tropical oceans, whereas extratropical storms form in the mid-latitudes due to the clash of different air masses. While it originates in the Mediterranean region and is driven by the subtropical westerly jet stream, the classification as a “tropical storm” is a fundamental error.

• Statement-II is correct. The system’s formation (cyclogenesis) is triggered by the temperature contrast (gradient) between cold polar air and warm, moist subtropical air. The system moves eastward, gaining moisture from the Mediterranean, Caspian, and Black Seas. Therefore, the factors described in Statement-II accurately represent the mechanism of moisture gain and intensification.

Solution: D

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the biological characteristics of the cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus): Cheetahs possess fully retractable claws, similar to other large cats, which aid them during high-speed chases. The distinctive black “tear marks” running from their eyes to their mouth are an adaptation to reduce glare and help focus during hunts. Male cheetahs are strictly solitary and only interact with females during the mating season. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. A key distinguishing feature of the cheetah is its non-retractable claws (or semi-retractable). Unlike other big cats, their claws function like cleats, providing superior traction and grip on the ground during high-speed pursuits. Statement 2 is correct. The “tear marks” are a well-known adaptation. They function like anti-glare strips for athletes, helping to reduce glare from the sun and allowing the cheetah to maintain focus on its prey, especially during daytime hunts in open grasslands. Statement 3 is incorrect. While cheetahs are generally solitary, the “Males may form coalitions, often made up of siblings, to defend territories and hunt cooperatively.” Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. A key distinguishing feature of the cheetah is its non-retractable claws (or semi-retractable). Unlike other big cats, their claws function like cleats, providing superior traction and grip on the ground during high-speed pursuits. Statement 2 is correct. The “tear marks” are a well-known adaptation. They function like anti-glare strips for athletes, helping to reduce glare from the sun and allowing the cheetah to maintain focus on its prey, especially during daytime hunts in open grasslands. Statement 3 is incorrect. While cheetahs are generally solitary, the “Males may form coalitions, often made up of siblings, to defend territories and hunt cooperatively.”

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the biological characteristics of the cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus):

• Cheetahs possess fully retractable claws, similar to other large cats, which aid them during high-speed chases.

• The distinctive black “tear marks” running from their eyes to their mouth are an adaptation to reduce glare and help focus during hunts.

• Male cheetahs are strictly solitary and only interact with females during the mating season.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. A key distinguishing feature of the cheetah is its non-retractable claws (or semi-retractable). Unlike other big cats, their claws function like cleats, providing superior traction and grip on the ground during high-speed pursuits.

• Statement 2 is correct. The “tear marks” are a well-known adaptation. They function like anti-glare strips for athletes, helping to reduce glare from the sun and allowing the cheetah to maintain focus on its prey, especially during daytime hunts in open grasslands.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While cheetahs are generally solitary, the “Males may form coalitions, often made up of siblings, to defend territories and hunt cooperatively.”

Solution: B

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While cheetahs are generally solitary, the “Males may form coalitions, often made up of siblings, to defend territories and hunt cooperatively.”

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: Afghanistan is highly prone to frequent and destructive earthquakes. Statement II: Afghanistan is located at the confluence of the Indian, Eurasian, and Arabian tectonic plates. Statement III: The country’s topography is dominated by active fault lines such as the Chaman and Hari Rud faults. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. It is a general fact that Afghanistan experiences frequent, deadly quakes. Statement II is correct. The primary cause of this seismicity as its location in a “Tectonic Collision Zone,” specifically where the Indian, Eurasian, and Arabian plates This collision builds immense crustal stress. Statement III is correct. This stress is released along a “Complex Fault Network,” explicitly naming the Chaman and Hari Rud faults as active zones where slips trigger quakes. Both Statement II (the macro-level plate collision) and Statement III (the micro-level fault network where energy is released) are correct and both are fundamental, interconnected reasons that explain Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. It is a general fact that Afghanistan experiences frequent, deadly quakes. Statement II is correct. The primary cause of this seismicity as its location in a “Tectonic Collision Zone,” specifically where the Indian, Eurasian, and Arabian plates This collision builds immense crustal stress. Statement III is correct. This stress is released along a “Complex Fault Network,” explicitly naming the Chaman and Hari Rud faults as active zones where slips trigger quakes. Both Statement II (the macro-level plate collision) and Statement III (the micro-level fault network where energy is released) are correct and both are fundamental, interconnected reasons that explain Statement I.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Afghanistan is highly prone to frequent and destructive earthquakes.

Statement II: Afghanistan is located at the confluence of the Indian, Eurasian, and Arabian tectonic plates.

Statement III: The country’s topography is dominated by active fault lines such as the Chaman and Hari Rud faults.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. It is a general fact that Afghanistan experiences frequent, deadly quakes.

• Statement II is correct. The primary cause of this seismicity as its location in a “Tectonic Collision Zone,” specifically where the Indian, Eurasian, and Arabian plates This collision builds immense crustal stress.

• Statement III is correct. This stress is released along a “Complex Fault Network,” explicitly naming the Chaman and Hari Rud faults as active zones where slips trigger quakes.

• Both Statement II (the macro-level plate collision) and Statement III (the micro-level fault network where energy is released) are correct and both are fundamental, interconnected reasons that explain Statement I.

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. It is a general fact that Afghanistan experiences frequent, deadly quakes.

• Statement III is correct. This stress is released along a “Complex Fault Network,” explicitly naming the Chaman and Hari Rud faults as active zones where slips trigger quakes.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Pampadum Shola National Park: It is the largest national park in Kerala, forming part of the UNESCO World Heritage site of the Western Ghats. It serves as the watershed for the Pambar and Vaigai rivers, which are crucial for the plains of Tamil Nadu. The park’s grasslands are ecologically significant as they function as natural aquifers, storing monsoon rain. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. It is the “smallest national park in Kerala,” not the largest. While it is part of the Western Ghats, which is a UNESCO site, the park itself is “under consideration” for the tag, not definitively part of it. Statement 2 is correct. The hydrological importance: “Serves as the watershed of the Pambar and Vaigai rivers, crucial for Tamil Nadu’s plains.” Statement 3 is correct. The function of the ecosystem: “The grasslands act as natural aquifers, storing monsoon rain and ensuring year-round stream flow.” Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. It is the “smallest national park in Kerala,” not the largest. While it is part of the Western Ghats, which is a UNESCO site, the park itself is “under consideration” for the tag, not definitively part of it. Statement 2 is correct. The hydrological importance: “Serves as the watershed of the Pambar and Vaigai rivers, crucial for Tamil Nadu’s plains.” Statement 3 is correct. The function of the ecosystem: “The grasslands act as natural aquifers, storing monsoon rain and ensuring year-round stream flow.”

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about Pampadum Shola National Park:

• It is the largest national park in Kerala, forming part of the UNESCO World Heritage site of the Western Ghats.

• It serves as the watershed for the Pambar and Vaigai rivers, which are crucial for the plains of Tamil Nadu.

• The park’s grasslands are ecologically significant as they function as natural aquifers, storing monsoon rain.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 2 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. It is the “smallest national park in Kerala,” not the largest. While it is part of the Western Ghats, which is a UNESCO site, the park itself is “under consideration” for the tag, not definitively part of it.

• Statement 2 is correct. The hydrological importance: “Serves as the watershed of the Pambar and Vaigai rivers, crucial for Tamil Nadu’s plains.”

• Statement 3 is correct. The function of the ecosystem: “The grasslands act as natural aquifers, storing monsoon rain and ensuring year-round stream flow.”

Solution: C

• Statement 2 is correct. The hydrological importance: “Serves as the watershed of the Pambar and Vaigai rivers, crucial for Tamil Nadu’s plains.”

• Statement 3 is correct. The function of the ecosystem: “The grasslands act as natural aquifers, storing monsoon rain and ensuring year-round stream flow.”

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Nigeria’s geography: Nigeria is a landlocked country in West Africa. The country’s climate is uniformly humid equatorial, supporting alluvial soils throughout its territory. The Jos Plateau and the Sokoto plains are key geographical features of its landscape. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Nigeria is not The neighbours include the “Gulf of Guinea (Atlantic Ocean),” which gives it a coastline. Statement 2 is incorrect. The climate is not It is “ranging from humid equatorial in the south to arid in the north.” Similarly, soils “vary from sandy arid types in the north to lateritic and alluvial soils in the south.” Statement 3 is correct. The “Sokoto and Borno plains” and the “Jos Plateau” is part of its landscape. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Nigeria is not The neighbours include the “Gulf of Guinea (Atlantic Ocean),” which gives it a coastline. Statement 2 is incorrect. The climate is not It is “ranging from humid equatorial in the south to arid in the north.” Similarly, soils “vary from sandy arid types in the north to lateritic and alluvial soils in the south.” Statement 3 is correct. The “Sokoto and Borno plains” and the “Jos Plateau” is part of its landscape.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Nigeria’s geography:

• Nigeria is a landlocked country in West Africa.

• The country’s climate is uniformly humid equatorial, supporting alluvial soils throughout its territory.

• The Jos Plateau and the Sokoto plains are key geographical features of its landscape.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Nigeria is not The neighbours include the “Gulf of Guinea (Atlantic Ocean),” which gives it a coastline.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The climate is not It is “ranging from humid equatorial in the south to arid in the north.” Similarly, soils “vary from sandy arid types in the north to lateritic and alluvial soils in the south.”

• Statement 3 is correct. The “Sokoto and Borno plains” and the “Jos Plateau” is part of its landscape.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Nigeria is not The neighbours include the “Gulf of Guinea (Atlantic Ocean),” which gives it a coastline.

• Statement 3 is correct. The “Sokoto and Borno plains” and the “Jos Plateau” is part of its landscape.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: The proliferation of Australian wattle (Acacia mearnsii) in the Western Ghats leads to the conversion of perennial streams into seasonal flows. Statement II: Acacia mearnsii is a fast-growing, nitrogen-fixing tree with deep roots that deplete aquifers, and its dense canopy suppresses native ground flora, reducing soil porosity. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I (Assertion) is correct. One of the hydrological implications of the wattle: “its deep roots deplete aquifers and convert perennial streams into seasonal flows.” Statement-II (Reason) is correct. The wattle is a “fast-growing, nitrogen-fixing tree” and its mechanisms of impact: “deep roots deplete aquifers” and “dense canopies… suppress native flora, and reduce soil porosity.” Statement-II provides the precise mechanisms that lead to the outcome described in Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I (Assertion) is correct. One of the hydrological implications of the wattle: “its deep roots deplete aquifers and convert perennial streams into seasonal flows.” Statement-II (Reason) is correct. The wattle is a “fast-growing, nitrogen-fixing tree” and its mechanisms of impact: “deep roots deplete aquifers” and “dense canopies… suppress native flora, and reduce soil porosity.” Statement-II provides the precise mechanisms that lead to the outcome described in Statement-I.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The proliferation of Australian wattle (Acacia mearnsii) in the Western Ghats leads to the conversion of perennial streams into seasonal flows.

Statement II: Acacia mearnsii is a fast-growing, nitrogen-fixing tree with deep roots that deplete aquifers, and its dense canopy suppresses native ground flora, reducing soil porosity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I (Assertion) is correct. One of the hydrological implications of the wattle: “its deep roots deplete aquifers and convert perennial streams into seasonal flows.”

• Statement-II (Reason) is correct. The wattle is a “fast-growing, nitrogen-fixing tree” and its mechanisms of impact: “deep roots deplete aquifers” and “dense canopies… suppress native flora, and reduce soil porosity.”

• Statement-II provides the precise mechanisms that lead to the outcome described in Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Statement-I (Assertion) is correct. One of the hydrological implications of the wattle: “its deep roots deplete aquifers and convert perennial streams into seasonal flows.”

• Statement-II provides the precise mechanisms that lead to the outcome described in Statement-I.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements related to the measurement and properties of earthquakes: The Richter scale measures the intensity of an earthquake, reflecting the degree of shaking and damage at a specific location. The Modified Mercalli Scale measures the magnitude of an earthquake, indicating the total energy released at the hypocenter. P-waves (primary waves) are shear waves that travel slower than S-waves (secondary waves) but are more destructive. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Richter scale (and the more modern Moment Magnitude scale) measures the magnitude of an earthquake, which is related to the energy released at the source (hypocenter). It is the Modified Mercalli Scale that measures intensity (the observable effects and damage). Statement 2 is incorrect. As explained above, the Modified Mercalli Scale measures intensity, not magnitude. The Richter/Moment Magnitude scale measures magnitude (energy released). The statement again reverses the definitions. Statement 3 is incorrect. P-waves are compressional waves, not shear waves. S-waves are the shear Furthermore, P-waves are faster than S-waves (which is why they are ‘primary’, or first to arrive). While both cause shaking, the slower, high-amplitude S-waves (and the subsequent surface waves) are generally more destructive to structures. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Richter scale (and the more modern Moment Magnitude scale) measures the magnitude of an earthquake, which is related to the energy released at the source (hypocenter). It is the Modified Mercalli Scale that measures intensity (the observable effects and damage). Statement 2 is incorrect. As explained above, the Modified Mercalli Scale measures intensity, not magnitude. The Richter/Moment Magnitude scale measures magnitude (energy released). The statement again reverses the definitions. Statement 3 is incorrect. P-waves are compressional waves, not shear waves. S-waves are the shear Furthermore, P-waves are faster than S-waves (which is why they are ‘primary’, or first to arrive). While both cause shaking, the slower, high-amplitude S-waves (and the subsequent surface waves) are generally more destructive to structures.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements related to the measurement and properties of earthquakes:

• The Richter scale measures the intensity of an earthquake, reflecting the degree of shaking and damage at a specific location.

• The Modified Mercalli Scale measures the magnitude of an earthquake, indicating the total energy released at the hypocenter.

• P-waves (primary waves) are shear waves that travel slower than S-waves (secondary waves) but are more destructive.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Richter scale (and the more modern Moment Magnitude scale) measures the magnitude of an earthquake, which is related to the energy released at the source (hypocenter). It is the Modified Mercalli Scale that measures intensity (the observable effects and damage).

• Statement 2 is incorrect. As explained above, the Modified Mercalli Scale measures intensity, not magnitude. The Richter/Moment Magnitude scale measures magnitude (energy released). The statement again reverses the definitions.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. P-waves are compressional waves, not shear waves. S-waves are the shear Furthermore, P-waves are faster than S-waves (which is why they are ‘primary’, or first to arrive). While both cause shaking, the slower, high-amplitude S-waves (and the subsequent surface waves) are generally more destructive to structures.

Solution: D

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following geographical features: Lake Victoria Lake Tanganyika Serengeti Plains East African Rift System How many of the above are located, at least in part, within Tanzania? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D All four of these major African geographical features are intrinsically linked to Tanzania. 1. Lake Victoria: Tanzania borders this lake to the north, sharing it with Uganda and Kenya. It is Africa’s largest lake. 2. Lake Tanganyika: Tanzania borders this lake to the west, sharing it with DRC, Burundi, and Zambia. It is one of the world’s deepest lakes. 3. Serengeti Plains: This world-famous ecosystem, known for the Great Migration, is located almost entirely in northern Tanzania. 4. East African Rift System: This major geological feature transects the country. It “divides the country into Western and Eastern Rift Valleys”, which form the depressions that hold lakes like Tanganyika and Nyasa. Incorrect Solution: D All four of these major African geographical features are intrinsically linked to Tanzania. 1. Lake Victoria: Tanzania borders this lake to the north, sharing it with Uganda and Kenya. It is Africa’s largest lake. 2. Lake Tanganyika: Tanzania borders this lake to the west, sharing it with DRC, Burundi, and Zambia. It is one of the world’s deepest lakes. 3. Serengeti Plains: This world-famous ecosystem, known for the Great Migration, is located almost entirely in northern Tanzania. 4. East African Rift System: This major geological feature transects the country. It “divides the country into Western and Eastern Rift Valleys”, which form the depressions that hold lakes like Tanganyika and Nyasa.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following geographical features:

• Lake Victoria

• Lake Tanganyika

• Serengeti Plains

• East African Rift System

How many of the above are located, at least in part, within Tanzania?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

All four of these major African geographical features are intrinsically linked to Tanzania.

• 1. Lake Victoria: Tanzania borders this lake to the north, sharing it with Uganda and Kenya. It is Africa’s largest lake.

• 2. Lake Tanganyika: Tanzania borders this lake to the west, sharing it with DRC, Burundi, and Zambia. It is one of the world’s deepest lakes.

• 3. Serengeti Plains: This world-famous ecosystem, known for the Great Migration, is located almost entirely in northern Tanzania.

• 4. East African Rift System: This major geological feature transects the country. It “divides the country into Western and Eastern Rift Valleys”, which form the depressions that hold lakes like Tanganyika and Nyasa.

Solution: D

All four of these major African geographical features are intrinsically linked to Tanzania.

• 1. Lake Victoria: Tanzania borders this lake to the north, sharing it with Uganda and Kenya. It is Africa’s largest lake.

• 2. Lake Tanganyika: Tanzania borders this lake to the west, sharing it with DRC, Burundi, and Zambia. It is one of the world’s deepest lakes.

• 3. Serengeti Plains: This world-famous ecosystem, known for the Great Migration, is located almost entirely in northern Tanzania.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following two statements regarding Employee’s Enrolment Scheme 2025: Statement-I: The Employee’s Enrolment Scheme 2025 is intended to promote the formalisation of the Indian workforce. Statement-II: The scheme encourages voluntary compliance by employers by waiving the employee’s contribution (if not deducted) and imposing only a nominal penalty for past omissions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I states the primary aim of the scheme: to promote labour formalisation. By bringing previously unregistered employees under the umbrella of the Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF), they gain access to social security benefits, a key aspect of a formalised workforce. Statement-II describes the mechanism used to achieve this aim. To encourage employers to “formalise” these workers without fear of severe financial repercussions, the scheme offers significant incentives. These include waiving the employee’s share of past contributions (if it wasn’t deducted) and, most importantly, replacing large potential penalties with a nominal ₹100 penalty. This reduction in compliance burden (the “how”) directly encourages the voluntary action needed to achieve the goal (the “what” in Statement-I). Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I states the primary aim of the scheme: to promote labour formalisation. By bringing previously unregistered employees under the umbrella of the Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF), they gain access to social security benefits, a key aspect of a formalised workforce. Statement-II describes the mechanism used to achieve this aim. To encourage employers to “formalise” these workers without fear of severe financial repercussions, the scheme offers significant incentives. These include waiving the employee’s share of past contributions (if it wasn’t deducted) and, most importantly, replacing large potential penalties with a nominal ₹100 penalty. This reduction in compliance burden (the “how”) directly encourages the voluntary action needed to achieve the goal (the “what” in Statement-I).

#### 9. Question

Consider the following two statements regarding Employee’s Enrolment Scheme 2025:

Statement-I: The Employee’s Enrolment Scheme 2025 is intended to promote the formalisation of the Indian workforce.

Statement-II: The scheme encourages voluntary compliance by employers by waiving the employee’s contribution (if not deducted) and imposing only a nominal penalty for past omissions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I states the primary aim of the scheme: to promote labour formalisation. By bringing previously unregistered employees under the umbrella of the Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF), they gain access to social security benefits, a key aspect of a formalised workforce.

• Statement-II describes the mechanism used to achieve this aim. To encourage employers to “formalise” these workers without fear of severe financial repercussions, the scheme offers significant incentives. These include waiving the employee’s share of past contributions (if it wasn’t deducted) and, most importantly, replacing large potential penalties with a nominal ₹100 penalty. This reduction in compliance burden (the “how”) directly encourages the voluntary action needed to achieve the goal (the “what” in Statement-I).

Solution: A

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the impacts of Western Disturbances in India: They provide critical moisture for Rabi crops, particularly wheat and mustard, across north India. They interact with the monsoon trough, which can lead to catastrophic heavy precipitation events, as exemplified by the 2013 Uttarakhand floods. Their decline in late spring is a necessary condition for the smooth onset of the southwest monsoon from the Arabian Sea side. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. WDs bring non-monsoonal winter rain, which is crucial for the survival and growth of Rabi crops (winter-sown crops) like wheat and mustard in the northwestern plains. Statement 2 is correct. WDs are not just a winter phenomenon. “Occasionally, WDs interact with the monsoon trough, leading to heavy precipitation events—as seen in the 2013 Uttarakhand floods.” This highlights their potential for causing extreme weather. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the decline of WDs does facilitate the transition to the monsoon, it allows the “smooth onset of the southwest monsoon from the Bay of Bengal side,” not the Arabian Sea side. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. WDs bring non-monsoonal winter rain, which is crucial for the survival and growth of Rabi crops (winter-sown crops) like wheat and mustard in the northwestern plains. Statement 2 is correct. WDs are not just a winter phenomenon. “Occasionally, WDs interact with the monsoon trough, leading to heavy precipitation events—as seen in the 2013 Uttarakhand floods.” This highlights their potential for causing extreme weather. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the decline of WDs does facilitate the transition to the monsoon, it allows the “smooth onset of the southwest monsoon from the Bay of Bengal side,” not the Arabian Sea side.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about the impacts of Western Disturbances in India:

• They provide critical moisture for Rabi crops, particularly wheat and mustard, across north India.

• They interact with the monsoon trough, which can lead to catastrophic heavy precipitation events, as exemplified by the 2013 Uttarakhand floods.

• Their decline in late spring is a necessary condition for the smooth onset of the southwest monsoon from the Arabian Sea side.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. WDs bring non-monsoonal winter rain, which is crucial for the survival and growth of Rabi crops (winter-sown crops) like wheat and mustard in the northwestern plains.

• Statement 2 is correct. WDs are not just a winter phenomenon. “Occasionally, WDs interact with the monsoon trough, leading to heavy precipitation events—as seen in the 2013 Uttarakhand floods.” This highlights their potential for causing extreme weather.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While the decline of WDs does facilitate the transition to the monsoon, it allows the “smooth onset of the southwest monsoon from the Bay of Bengal side,” not the Arabian Sea side.

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. WDs bring non-monsoonal winter rain, which is crucial for the survival and growth of Rabi crops (winter-sown crops) like wheat and mustard in the northwestern plains.

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