UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 5 May 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points A sharp rise in gold prices can impact India’s economy in various ways. Which of the following effects are likely consequences of a sustained gold price increase in India? Worsening of India’s current account deficit. Appreciation of the Indian rupee (increase in rupee’s value) due to costlier gold. Significant direct increase in India’s CPI (consumer inflation) because gold has a large weight in the consumer price index. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Gold price surges tend to worsen India’s current account deficit (CAD) (Statement 1) because India is one of the world’s largest importers of gold (hundreds of tons annually). When gold becomes more expensive, the import bill for the same quantity rises, thereby widening the trade deficit. In fact, high gold imports have been identified as a key factor in India’s record trade deficits; So, a larger gold import bill worsens CAD (not improves it), and often the rupee depreciates (weakens) under the strain of higher outflows – meaning Statement 2 is incorrect. Expensive gold does not cause the rupee to strengthen; rather, if India’s import costs spike (without a matching rise in exports), the currency can come under pressure. Statement 3 is incorrect. Gold is not a major component of the consumer price index (CPI) basket in India. The CPI focuses on goods and services consumed regularly by households (food, fuel, housing, clothing, etc.). Incorrect Solution: a) Gold price surges tend to worsen India’s current account deficit (CAD) (Statement 1) because India is one of the world’s largest importers of gold (hundreds of tons annually). When gold becomes more expensive, the import bill for the same quantity rises, thereby widening the trade deficit. In fact, high gold imports have been identified as a key factor in India’s record trade deficits; So, a larger gold import bill worsens CAD (not improves it), and often the rupee depreciates (weakens) under the strain of higher outflows – meaning Statement 2 is incorrect. Expensive gold does not cause the rupee to strengthen; rather, if India’s import costs spike (without a matching rise in exports), the currency can come under pressure. Statement 3 is incorrect. Gold is not a major component of the consumer price index (CPI) basket in India. The CPI focuses on goods and services consumed regularly by households (food, fuel, housing, clothing, etc.).

#### 1. Question

A sharp rise in gold prices can impact India’s economy in various ways. Which of the following effects are likely consequences of a sustained gold price increase in India?

• Worsening of India’s current account deficit.

• Appreciation of the Indian rupee (increase in rupee’s value) due to costlier gold.

• Significant direct increase in India’s CPI (consumer inflation) because gold has a large weight in the consumer price index.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

Gold price surges tend to worsen India’s current account deficit (CAD) (Statement 1) because India is one of the world’s largest importers of gold (hundreds of tons annually). When gold becomes more expensive, the import bill for the same quantity rises, thereby widening the trade deficit. In fact, high gold imports have been identified as a key factor in India’s record trade deficits;

So, a larger gold import bill worsens CAD (not improves it), and often the rupee depreciates (weakens) under the strain of higher outflows – meaning Statement 2 is incorrect. Expensive gold does not cause the rupee to strengthen; rather, if India’s import costs spike (without a matching rise in exports), the currency can come under pressure.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Gold is not a major component of the consumer price index (CPI) basket in India. The CPI focuses on goods and services consumed regularly by households (food, fuel, housing, clothing, etc.).

Solution: a)

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Non-Tariff Barriers (NTBs) in global trade have been a topic of discussion. Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct about NTBs? “Non-tariff barriers” refer to ordinary customs tariffs applied on imported goods. The WTO agreements have completely eliminated the use of non-tariff barriers in international trade. Import quotas and licensing requirements are not considered NTBs. Select the correct answer: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: d) Statement 1: NTBs are not tariffs. By definition, non-tariff barriers are trade barriers that are not in the form of a customs duty. They include a wide range of measures like quotas, import licenses, standards, subsidies, embargoes, sanctions, etc., which can restrict imports or make trade costlier without using a tax. Ordinary customs tariffs (import duties) are just “tariff barriers,” not NTBs. So statement 1 is wrong because it confuses tariffs with NTBs. Statement 2: WTO agreements have not “completely eliminated” NTBs. While the WTO (and its predecessor GATT) significantly reduced tariff rates globally, NTBs have in many cases become more prevalent forms of protection. Many WTO rules (like the Agreement on Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures, or Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade) seek to discipline and make transparent the use of NTBs, but they do not ban them outright – countries can and do use NTBs for various reasons (health, safety, environmental, or protectionist motives). Statement 3: Import quotas and licensing requirements are classic examples of NTBs. Any quantitative restriction (quota) on imports or an import licensing system (other than purely for information) is considered a non-tariff barrier because it restricts trade by means other than a tariff. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1: NTBs are not tariffs. By definition, non-tariff barriers are trade barriers that are not in the form of a customs duty. They include a wide range of measures like quotas, import licenses, standards, subsidies, embargoes, sanctions, etc., which can restrict imports or make trade costlier without using a tax. Ordinary customs tariffs (import duties) are just “tariff barriers,” not NTBs. So statement 1 is wrong because it confuses tariffs with NTBs. Statement 2: WTO agreements have not “completely eliminated” NTBs. While the WTO (and its predecessor GATT) significantly reduced tariff rates globally, NTBs have in many cases become more prevalent forms of protection. Many WTO rules (like the Agreement on Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures, or Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade) seek to discipline and make transparent the use of NTBs, but they do not ban them outright – countries can and do use NTBs for various reasons (health, safety, environmental, or protectionist motives). Statement 3: Import quotas and licensing requirements are classic examples of NTBs. Any quantitative restriction (quota) on imports or an import licensing system (other than purely for information) is considered a non-tariff barrier because it restricts trade by means other than a tariff.

#### 2. Question

Non-Tariff Barriers (NTBs) in global trade have been a topic of discussion. Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct about NTBs?

• “Non-tariff barriers” refer to ordinary customs tariffs applied on imported goods.

• The WTO agreements have completely eliminated the use of non-tariff barriers in international trade.

• Import quotas and licensing requirements are not considered NTBs.

Select the correct answer:

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d)

• Statement 1: NTBs are not tariffs. By definition, non-tariff barriers are trade barriers that are not in the form of a customs duty. They include a wide range of measures like quotas, import licenses, standards, subsidies, embargoes, sanctions, etc., which can restrict imports or make trade costlier without using a tax. Ordinary customs tariffs (import duties) are just “tariff barriers,” not NTBs. So statement 1 is wrong because it confuses tariffs with NTBs.

• Statement 2: WTO agreements have not “completely eliminated” NTBs. While the WTO (and its predecessor GATT) significantly reduced tariff rates globally, NTBs have in many cases become more prevalent forms of protection. Many WTO rules (like the Agreement on Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures, or Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade) seek to discipline and make transparent the use of NTBs, but they do not ban them outright – countries can and do use NTBs for various reasons (health, safety, environmental, or protectionist motives).

Statement 3: Import quotas and licensing requirements are classic examples of NTBs. Any quantitative restriction (quota) on imports or an import licensing system (other than purely for information) is considered a non-tariff barrier because it restricts trade by means other than a tariff.

Solution: d)

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Match the following international agreements/schemes with their primary subject matter: List I (Agreement/Scheme) – List II (Subject) A. Indus Waters Treaty, 1960 – 1. Sharing of river waters between India and Pakistan B. SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme – 2. Visa-free travel for designated categories in South Asia C. Montreux Convention, 1936 – 3. Regulation of warship passage through the Turkish Straits D. Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969 – 4. Rules governing diplomatic immunity and consular access How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: c) Pairs A, B, and C are correctly matched; pair D is not. A: Indus Waters Treaty, 1960 – Water-sharing between India and Pakistan. This is correct. The Indus Waters Treaty is a famous agreement between India and Pakistan over the distribution of the Indus river system waters. It resulted in Pakistan getting the western rivers and India the eastern rivers for consumptive use. B: SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme – Visa-free travel for designated categories in SAARC. Correct. SVES provides special visa exemption stickers to certain categories of people (officials, journalists, etc.) within SAARC nations, allowing easier travel without regular visas. It is indeed about facilitating travel for specific groups in South Asia. C: Montreux Convention, 1936 – Regulation of warship passage through Turkish Straits (Bosphorus and Dardanelles). Correct. The Montreux Convention Regarding the Regime of the Straits (signed in Montreux, Switzerland in 1936) governs the passage of naval ships through the Dardanelles, Sea of Marmara, and Bosphorus – the waterways connecting the Black Sea to the Mediterranean. It gives Turkey control over these straits and imposes limits on non-Black Sea nations’ warships (tonnage and duration in Black Sea). D: Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties (VCLT), 1969 – Rules governing diplomatic immunity and consular access. This is incorrectly matched. The description given (diplomatic immunity/consular access) actually pertains to the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations (1961) or the Vienna Convention on Consular Relations (1963). The 1969 Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties is a different treaty that codifies the international law on treaties: how treaties are made, interpreted, amended, or terminated. It has nothing to do with diplomatic immunity. Incorrect Solution: c) Pairs A, B, and C are correctly matched; pair D is not. A: Indus Waters Treaty, 1960 – Water-sharing between India and Pakistan. This is correct. The Indus Waters Treaty is a famous agreement between India and Pakistan over the distribution of the Indus river system waters. It resulted in Pakistan getting the western rivers and India the eastern rivers for consumptive use. B: SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme – Visa-free travel for designated categories in SAARC. Correct. SVES provides special visa exemption stickers to certain categories of people (officials, journalists, etc.) within SAARC nations, allowing easier travel without regular visas. It is indeed about facilitating travel for specific groups in South Asia. C: Montreux Convention, 1936 – Regulation of warship passage through Turkish Straits (Bosphorus and Dardanelles). Correct. The Montreux Convention Regarding the Regime of the Straits (signed in Montreux, Switzerland in 1936) governs the passage of naval ships through the Dardanelles, Sea of Marmara, and Bosphorus – the waterways connecting the Black Sea to the Mediterranean. It gives Turkey control over these straits and imposes limits on non-Black Sea nations’ warships (tonnage and duration in Black Sea). D: Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties (VCLT), 1969 – Rules governing diplomatic immunity and consular access. This is incorrectly matched. The description given (diplomatic immunity/consular access) actually pertains to the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations (1961) or the Vienna Convention on Consular Relations (1963). The 1969 Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties is a different treaty that codifies the international law on treaties: how treaties are made, interpreted, amended, or terminated. It has nothing to do with diplomatic immunity.

#### 3. Question

Match the following international agreements/schemes with their primary subject matter:

List I (Agreement/Scheme) – List II (Subject) A. Indus Waters Treaty, 1960 – 1. Sharing of river waters between India and Pakistan B. SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme – 2. Visa-free travel for designated categories in South Asia C. Montreux Convention, 1936 – 3. Regulation of warship passage through the Turkish Straits D. Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969 – 4. Rules governing diplomatic immunity and consular access

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: c)

Pairs A, B, and C are correctly matched; pair D is not.

• A: Indus Waters Treaty, 1960 – Water-sharing between India and Pakistan. This is correct. The Indus Waters Treaty is a famous agreement between India and Pakistan over the distribution of the Indus river system waters. It resulted in Pakistan getting the western rivers and India the eastern rivers for consumptive use.

• B: SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme – Visa-free travel for designated categories in SAARC. Correct. SVES provides special visa exemption stickers to certain categories of people (officials, journalists, etc.) within SAARC nations, allowing easier travel without regular visas. It is indeed about facilitating travel for specific groups in South Asia.

• C: Montreux Convention, 1936 – Regulation of warship passage through Turkish Straits (Bosphorus and Dardanelles). Correct. The Montreux Convention Regarding the Regime of the Straits (signed in Montreux, Switzerland in 1936) governs the passage of naval ships through the Dardanelles, Sea of Marmara, and Bosphorus – the waterways connecting the Black Sea to the Mediterranean. It gives Turkey control over these straits and imposes limits on non-Black Sea nations’ warships (tonnage and duration in Black Sea).

• D: Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties (VCLT), 1969 – Rules governing diplomatic immunity and consular access. This is incorrectly matched. The description given (diplomatic immunity/consular access) actually pertains to the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations (1961) or the Vienna Convention on Consular Relations (1963). The 1969 Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties is a different treaty that codifies the international law on treaties: how treaties are made, interpreted, amended, or terminated. It has nothing to do with diplomatic immunity.

Solution: c)

Pairs A, B, and C are correctly matched; pair D is not.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following factors can contribute to coral bleaching? A decrease in sea surface temperatures below the normal range for a prolonged period. Increased levels of carbon dioxide absorption by the oceans. Runoff containing pollutants and excessive sedimentation near coral reefs. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: b) A decrease in sea surface temperatures is generally not a primary cause of coral bleaching. Bleaching is predominantly triggered by prolonged thermal stress due to increased temperatures. Increased levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere lead to ocean acidification. This process reduces the availability of carbonate ions, which corals need to build their skeletons, weakening them and making them more susceptible to bleaching. Pollution, including chemical pollutants and excessive sedimentation, can stress corals, reduce their resilience, and impair their ability to photosynthesize, making them more vulnerable to bleaching caused by other factors like temperature stress. Incorrect Solution: b) A decrease in sea surface temperatures is generally not a primary cause of coral bleaching. Bleaching is predominantly triggered by prolonged thermal stress due to increased temperatures. Increased levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere lead to ocean acidification. This process reduces the availability of carbonate ions, which corals need to build their skeletons, weakening them and making them more susceptible to bleaching. Pollution, including chemical pollutants and excessive sedimentation, can stress corals, reduce their resilience, and impair their ability to photosynthesize, making them more vulnerable to bleaching caused by other factors like temperature stress.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following factors can contribute to coral bleaching?

• A decrease in sea surface temperatures below the normal range for a prolonged period.

• Increased levels of carbon dioxide absorption by the oceans.

• Runoff containing pollutants and excessive sedimentation near coral reefs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b)

• A decrease in sea surface temperatures is generally not a primary cause of coral bleaching. Bleaching is predominantly triggered by prolonged thermal stress due to increased temperatures.

• Increased levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere lead to ocean acidification. This process reduces the availability of carbonate ions, which corals need to build their skeletons, weakening them and making them more susceptible to bleaching.

• Pollution, including chemical pollutants and excessive sedimentation, can stress corals, reduce their resilience, and impair their ability to photosynthesize, making them more vulnerable to bleaching caused by other factors like temperature stress.

Solution: b)

• A decrease in sea surface temperatures is generally not a primary cause of coral bleaching. Bleaching is predominantly triggered by prolonged thermal stress due to increased temperatures.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the factors that can influence gold prices in India: Fluctuations in the international market rates of gold. Changes in the exchange rate of the Indian Rupee against major global currencies. The domestic demand for gold during the agricultural harvest season. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) International Market Rates: Global gold prices are a primary driver of domestic prices in India, as India is a significant importer of gold. Currency Exchange Rate: A weaker Rupee makes imports, including gold, more expensive in local currency, thus pushing domestic gold prices higher. Domestic Demand: While festivals and weddings are known to surge gold demand, the agricultural harvest season is not typically associated with a significant direct increase in gold demand that would drastically affect prices nationwide. Incorrect Solution: b) International Market Rates: Global gold prices are a primary driver of domestic prices in India, as India is a significant importer of gold. Currency Exchange Rate: A weaker Rupee makes imports, including gold, more expensive in local currency, thus pushing domestic gold prices higher. Domestic Demand: While festivals and weddings are known to surge gold demand, the agricultural harvest season is not typically associated with a significant direct increase in gold demand that would drastically affect prices nationwide.

#### 5. Question

Consider the factors that can influence gold prices in India:

• Fluctuations in the international market rates of gold.

• Changes in the exchange rate of the Indian Rupee against major global currencies.

• The domestic demand for gold during the agricultural harvest season.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• International Market Rates: Global gold prices are a primary driver of domestic prices in India, as India is a significant importer of gold.

• Currency Exchange Rate: A weaker Rupee makes imports, including gold, more expensive in local currency, thus pushing domestic gold prices higher.

• Domestic Demand: While festivals and weddings are known to surge gold demand, the agricultural harvest season is not typically associated with a significant direct increase in gold demand that would drastically affect prices nationwide.

Solution: b)

• International Market Rates: Global gold prices are a primary driver of domestic prices in India, as India is a significant importer of gold.

• Currency Exchange Rate: A weaker Rupee makes imports, including gold, more expensive in local currency, thus pushing domestic gold prices higher.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs related to international chemical conventions: Stockholm Convention: Primarily focuses on managing the trade of hazardous chemicals through Prior Informed Consent. Rotterdam Convention: Aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: d) The Stockholm Convention’s primary focus is on eliminating or restricting Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). The management of trade through Prior Informed Consent (PIC) is the primary mechanism of the Rotterdam Convention. The Rotterdam Convention’s primary focus is on facilitating informed decisions about the import of hazardous chemicals through the PIC procedure and promoting shared responsibility in international trade. The elimination or restriction of POPs is the objective of the Stockholm Convention. Incorrect Solution: d) The Stockholm Convention’s primary focus is on eliminating or restricting Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). The management of trade through Prior Informed Consent (PIC) is the primary mechanism of the Rotterdam Convention. The Rotterdam Convention’s primary focus is on facilitating informed decisions about the import of hazardous chemicals through the PIC procedure and promoting shared responsibility in international trade. The elimination or restriction of POPs is the objective of the Stockholm Convention.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following pairs related to international chemical conventions:

• Stockholm Convention: Primarily focuses on managing the trade of hazardous chemicals through Prior Informed Consent.

• Rotterdam Convention: Aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d)

The Stockholm Convention’s primary focus is on eliminating or restricting Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). The management of trade through Prior Informed Consent (PIC) is the primary mechanism of the Rotterdam Convention.

The Rotterdam Convention’s primary focus is on facilitating informed decisions about the import of hazardous chemicals through the PIC procedure and promoting shared responsibility in international trade. The elimination or restriction of POPs is the objective of the Stockholm Convention.

Solution: d)

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) in India: Statement-I: The CCS approves all major defence procurement proposals exceeding a certain financial threshold. Statement-II: The CCS is chaired by the Defence Minister, reflecting its primary focus on military and security matters. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) plays a crucial role in India’s defence apparatus. One of its key functions is to consider and approve major defence capital acquisitions and procurement proposals, typically those exceeding specified financial limits. This ensures high-level political oversight and strategic direction for significant defence expenditures and capability development. Decisions on major defence deals, procurements of weapon systems, and defence policy matters fall within its purview. Statement-II is incorrect. The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) is chaired by the Prime Minister of India, not the Defence Minister. While the Defence Minister is a key member, the chairmanship by the Prime Minister underscores the committee’s apex role in national security decision-making, integrating inputs from defence, home affairs, external affairs, and finance, under the overall leadership of the head of government. Other core members include the Minister of Home Affairs, Minister of Finance, and Minister of External Affairs. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) plays a crucial role in India’s defence apparatus. One of its key functions is to consider and approve major defence capital acquisitions and procurement proposals, typically those exceeding specified financial limits. This ensures high-level political oversight and strategic direction for significant defence expenditures and capability development. Decisions on major defence deals, procurements of weapon systems, and defence policy matters fall within its purview. Statement-II is incorrect. The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) is chaired by the Prime Minister of India, not the Defence Minister. While the Defence Minister is a key member, the chairmanship by the Prime Minister underscores the committee’s apex role in national security decision-making, integrating inputs from defence, home affairs, external affairs, and finance, under the overall leadership of the head of government. Other core members include the Minister of Home Affairs, Minister of Finance, and Minister of External Affairs.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) in India:

Statement-I: The CCS approves all major defence procurement proposals exceeding a certain financial threshold.

Statement-II: The CCS is chaired by the Defence Minister, reflecting its primary focus on military and security matters.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: c)

Statement-I is correct. The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) plays a crucial role in India’s defence apparatus. One of its key functions is to consider and approve major defence capital acquisitions and procurement proposals, typically those exceeding specified financial limits. This ensures high-level political oversight and strategic direction for significant defence expenditures and capability development. Decisions on major defence deals, procurements of weapon systems, and defence policy matters fall within its purview.

Statement-II is incorrect. The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) is chaired by the Prime Minister of India, not the Defence Minister. While the Defence Minister is a key member, the chairmanship by the Prime Minister underscores the committee’s apex role in national security decision-making, integrating inputs from defence, home affairs, external affairs, and finance, under the overall leadership of the head of government. Other core members include the Minister of Home Affairs, Minister of Finance, and Minister of External Affairs.

Solution: c)

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Match the following defence assets/exercises with their primary characteristic or objective: Column A (Asset/Exercise) Column B (Characteristic/Objective) 1. INS Surat A. Full-spectrum operational readiness drill involving fighter jets 2. Exercise Aakraman B. Indigenous stealth-guided missile destroyer (Project 15B) 3. MRSAM C. Supersonic cruise missile for long-range precision strikes 4. BrahMos D. Air defence system capable of intercepting aerial threats Select the correct matching: a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D c) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C d) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C Correct Solution: a) 1. INS Surat: This is explicitly identified as a Visakhapatnam-class stealth-guided missile destroyer built under Project 15B by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd. 2. Exercise Aakraman: Described as a full-spectrum operational readiness drill conducted by the Indian Air Force (IAF) involving Rafale jets to test combat readiness and precision strike capabilities. 3. MRSAM (Medium-Range Surface-to-Air Missile): This system, equipped on ships like INS Surat, is designed for air defence, capable of intercepting aerial threats like missiles and aircraft at medium ranges, specified as approximately 70 km. 4. BrahMos: This is a well-known supersonic cruise missile system, jointly developed by India and Russia, equipped on platforms like INS Surat for long-range, high-speed precision strikes against land and sea targets. Incorrect Solution: a) 1. INS Surat: This is explicitly identified as a Visakhapatnam-class stealth-guided missile destroyer built under Project 15B by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd. 2. Exercise Aakraman: Described as a full-spectrum operational readiness drill conducted by the Indian Air Force (IAF) involving Rafale jets to test combat readiness and precision strike capabilities. 3. MRSAM (Medium-Range Surface-to-Air Missile): This system, equipped on ships like INS Surat, is designed for air defence, capable of intercepting aerial threats like missiles and aircraft at medium ranges, specified as approximately 70 km. 4. BrahMos: This is a well-known supersonic cruise missile system, jointly developed by India and Russia, equipped on platforms like INS Surat for long-range, high-speed precision strikes against land and sea targets.

#### 8. Question

Match the following defence assets/exercises with their primary characteristic or objective:

Column A (Asset/Exercise) | Column B (Characteristic/Objective)

1.INS Surat | A. Full-spectrum operational readiness drill involving fighter jets
2.Exercise Aakraman | B. Indigenous stealth-guided missile destroyer (Project 15B)
3.MRSAM | C. Supersonic cruise missile for long-range precision strikes
4.BrahMos | D. Air defence system capable of intercepting aerial threats

Select the correct matching:

• a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C

• b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

• c) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C

• d) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

Solution: a)

• 1. INS Surat: This is explicitly identified as a Visakhapatnam-class stealth-guided missile destroyer built under Project 15B by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd.

• 2. Exercise Aakraman: Described as a full-spectrum operational readiness drill conducted by the Indian Air Force (IAF) involving Rafale jets to test combat readiness and precision strike capabilities.

• 3. MRSAM (Medium-Range Surface-to-Air Missile): This system, equipped on ships like INS Surat, is designed for air defence, capable of intercepting aerial threats like missiles and aircraft at medium ranges, specified as approximately 70 km.

• 4. BrahMos: This is a well-known supersonic cruise missile system, jointly developed by India and Russia, equipped on platforms like INS Surat for long-range, high-speed precision strikes against land and sea targets.

Solution: a)

• 1. INS Surat: This is explicitly identified as a Visakhapatnam-class stealth-guided missile destroyer built under Project 15B by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Simla Agreement of 1972: Statement-I: The Simla Agreement explicitly converted the Ceasefire Line in Jammu and Kashmir into the Line of Control (LoC) with the mutual agreement that it would not be altered unilaterally by either India or Pakistan. Statement-II: A primary objective of the Simla Agreement was to secure the release of Pakistani Prisoners of War (POWs) held by India following the 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: b) Statement-I is correct. A key outcome of the Simla Agreement was the redesignation of the ceasefire line in Jammu and Kashmir, which resulted from the 1971 war, as the Line of Control (LoC). Crucially, paragraph 4(ii) of the Agreement states, “The line of control resulting from the cease-fire of December 17, 1971 shall be respected by both sides without prejudice to the recognized position of either side. Neither side shall seek to alter it unilaterally, irrespective of mutual differences and legal interpretations.” This established the LoC as the de facto boundary pending a final settlement, with a commitment against unilateral changes. Statement-II is correct. The Simla Agreement was signed in the immediate aftermath of the 1971 war, which resulted in a decisive Indian victory and the creation of Bangladesh. A major consequence was the surrender of over 93,000 Pakistani military personnel and civilians who became Prisoners of War (POWs) under Indian custody. Securing the release and repatriation of these POWs was a significant objective for Pakistan and a key element addressed in the Simla Agreement, contributing to the normalization of relations outlined in the pact. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement-I is correct. A key outcome of the Simla Agreement was the redesignation of the ceasefire line in Jammu and Kashmir, which resulted from the 1971 war, as the Line of Control (LoC). Crucially, paragraph 4(ii) of the Agreement states, “The line of control resulting from the cease-fire of December 17, 1971 shall be respected by both sides without prejudice to the recognized position of either side. Neither side shall seek to alter it unilaterally, irrespective of mutual differences and legal interpretations.” This established the LoC as the de facto boundary pending a final settlement, with a commitment against unilateral changes. Statement-II is correct. The Simla Agreement was signed in the immediate aftermath of the 1971 war, which resulted in a decisive Indian victory and the creation of Bangladesh. A major consequence was the surrender of over 93,000 Pakistani military personnel and civilians who became Prisoners of War (POWs) under Indian custody. Securing the release and repatriation of these POWs was a significant objective for Pakistan and a key element addressed in the Simla Agreement, contributing to the normalization of relations outlined in the pact.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Simla Agreement of 1972:

Statement-I: The Simla Agreement explicitly converted the Ceasefire Line in Jammu and Kashmir into the Line of Control (LoC) with the mutual agreement that it would not be altered unilaterally by either India or Pakistan.

Statement-II: A primary objective of the Simla Agreement was to secure the release of Pakistani Prisoners of War (POWs) held by India following the 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: b)

Statement-I is correct. A key outcome of the Simla Agreement was the redesignation of the ceasefire line in Jammu and Kashmir, which resulted from the 1971 war, as the Line of Control (LoC). Crucially, paragraph 4(ii) of the Agreement states, “The line of control resulting from the cease-fire of December 17, 1971 shall be respected by both sides without prejudice to the recognized position of either side. Neither side shall seek to alter it unilaterally, irrespective of mutual differences and legal interpretations.” This established the LoC as the de facto boundary pending a final settlement, with a commitment against unilateral changes.

Statement-II is correct. The Simla Agreement was signed in the immediate aftermath of the 1971 war, which resulted in a decisive Indian victory and the creation of Bangladesh. A major consequence was the surrender of over 93,000 Pakistani military personnel and civilians who became Prisoners of War (POWs) under Indian custody. Securing the release and repatriation of these POWs was a significant objective for Pakistan and a key element addressed in the Simla Agreement, contributing to the normalization of relations outlined in the pact.

Solution: b)

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Krishna River system: The Krishna River originates in the Eastern Ghats near Mahabaleshwar and flows westward to drain into the Arabian Sea. The Nagarjuna Sagar Dam, a major multipurpose project, is located entirely within the state of Andhra Pradesh on the Krishna River. The Krishna River basin is characterized by highly seasonal, rain-fed flow, making it prone to significant variations in water availability between monsoon and dry seasons. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is Incorrect. The Krishna River originates near Mahabaleshwar, which is in the Western Ghats (Sahyadri range) in Maharashtra, not the Eastern Ghats. It flows eastward across the Deccan plateau through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh for about 1,400 km before draining into the Bay of Bengal, not the Arabian Sea. Statement 2 is Incorrect. The Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is located on the border between Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. While it serves both states (and was historically significant for Andhra Pradesh before bifurcation), it is not located entirely within the current state boundaries of Andhra Pradesh. Statement 3 is Correct. The Krishna River is largely rain-fed, primarily dependent on the southwest monsoon for its water supply. This results in highly seasonal flow, with peak discharge during the monsoon months (June to October) and significantly reduced flow during the dry season. This variability poses challenges for water management, irrigation, and hydropower generation, making projects like dams crucial for regulating water availability throughout the year. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is Incorrect. The Krishna River originates near Mahabaleshwar, which is in the Western Ghats (Sahyadri range) in Maharashtra, not the Eastern Ghats. It flows eastward across the Deccan plateau through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh for about 1,400 km before draining into the Bay of Bengal, not the Arabian Sea. Statement 2 is Incorrect. The Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is located on the border between Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. While it serves both states (and was historically significant for Andhra Pradesh before bifurcation), it is not located entirely within the current state boundaries of Andhra Pradesh. Statement 3 is Correct. The Krishna River is largely rain-fed, primarily dependent on the southwest monsoon for its water supply. This results in highly seasonal flow, with peak discharge during the monsoon months (June to October) and significantly reduced flow during the dry season. This variability poses challenges for water management, irrigation, and hydropower generation, making projects like dams crucial for regulating water availability throughout the year.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Krishna River system:

• The Krishna River originates in the Eastern Ghats near Mahabaleshwar and flows westward to drain into the Arabian Sea.

• The Nagarjuna Sagar Dam, a major multipurpose project, is located entirely within the state of Andhra Pradesh on the Krishna River.

• The Krishna River basin is characterized by highly seasonal, rain-fed flow, making it prone to significant variations in water availability between monsoon and dry seasons.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is Incorrect. The Krishna River originates near Mahabaleshwar, which is in the Western Ghats (Sahyadri range) in Maharashtra, not the Eastern Ghats. It flows eastward across the Deccan plateau through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh for about 1,400 km before draining into the Bay of Bengal, not the Arabian Sea.

• Statement 2 is Incorrect. The Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is located on the border between Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. While it serves both states (and was historically significant for Andhra Pradesh before bifurcation), it is not located entirely within the current state boundaries of Andhra Pradesh.

• Statement 3 is Correct. The Krishna River is largely rain-fed, primarily dependent on the southwest monsoon for its water supply. This results in highly seasonal flow, with peak discharge during the monsoon months (June to October) and significantly reduced flow during the dry season. This variability poses challenges for water management, irrigation, and hydropower generation, making projects like dams crucial for regulating water availability throughout the year.

Solution: a)

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