UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 5 March 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Protohistory is the period where people didn’t develop writing but were mentioned in the written records of a contemporary group. Harappans were literate people, and their written materials were completely deciphered by historians. For the Vedic period, there are no written records but have orally transmitted literature. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 2 is incorrect. Protohistory is the period between prehistory and history and refers to the people who didn’t develop writing but were mentioned in the written records of a contemporary group. Although the Harappans were literate people, their written materials could not be deciphered by historians. For the Vedic period, we don’t have written records but orally transmitted literature (the Vedas). Incorrect Solution: A Statement 2 is incorrect. Protohistory is the period between prehistory and history and refers to the people who didn’t develop writing but were mentioned in the written records of a contemporary group. Although the Harappans were literate people, their written materials could not be deciphered by historians. For the Vedic period, we don’t have written records but orally transmitted literature (the Vedas).

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Protohistory is the period where people didn’t develop writing but were mentioned in the written records of a contemporary group.

• Harappans were literate people, and their written materials were completely deciphered by historians.

• For the Vedic period, there are no written records but have orally transmitted literature.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Protohistory is the period between prehistory and history and refers to the people who didn’t develop writing but were mentioned in the written records of a contemporary group.

Although the Harappans were literate people, their written materials could not be deciphered by historians. For the Vedic period, we don’t have written records but orally transmitted literature (the Vedas).

Solution: A

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Protohistory is the period between prehistory and history and refers to the people who didn’t develop writing but were mentioned in the written records of a contemporary group.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Habitat Rights. Habitat rights are granted under the Forest Rights Act and provide communities with rights over their customary territories, cultural practices, livelihood means and protection of their natural and cultural heritage. They empower Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) communities to access government schemes and initiatives to develop their habitats. In India, more than half of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) have been granted habitat rights. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 3 is incorrect. About Habitat Rights: Habitat rights are granted under the Forest Rights Act and provide communities with rights over their customary territories, cultural practices, livelihood means, biodiversity knowledge, and protection of their natural and cultural heritage. Habitat rights help safeguard traditional livelihoods and ecological knowledge, and they empower PVTG communities to access government schemes and initiatives to develop their habitats. The Mankidia community in Odisha has been granted habitat rights, making them the sixth Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) to receive this recognition under the Forest Rights Act, 2006. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 3 is incorrect. About Habitat Rights: Habitat rights are granted under the Forest Rights Act and provide communities with rights over their customary territories, cultural practices, livelihood means, biodiversity knowledge, and protection of their natural and cultural heritage. Habitat rights help safeguard traditional livelihoods and ecological knowledge, and they empower PVTG communities to access government schemes and initiatives to develop their habitats. The Mankidia community in Odisha has been granted habitat rights, making them the sixth Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) to receive this recognition under the Forest Rights Act, 2006.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Habitat Rights.

• Habitat rights are granted under the Forest Rights Act and provide communities with rights over their customary territories, cultural practices, livelihood means and protection of their natural and cultural heritage.

• They empower Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) communities to access government schemes and initiatives to develop their habitats.

• In India, more than half of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) have been granted habitat rights.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 3 is incorrect.

About Habitat Rights:

• Habitat rights are granted under the Forest Rights Act and provide communities with rights over their customary territories, cultural practices, livelihood means, biodiversity knowledge, and protection of their natural and cultural heritage.

• Habitat rights help safeguard traditional livelihoods and ecological knowledge, and they empower PVTG communities to access government schemes and initiatives to develop their habitats.

The Mankidia community in Odisha has been granted habitat rights, making them the sixth Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) to receive this recognition under the Forest Rights Act, 2006.

Solution: B

Statement 3 is incorrect.

About Habitat Rights:

• Habitat rights help safeguard traditional livelihoods and ecological knowledge, and they empower PVTG communities to access government schemes and initiatives to develop their habitats.

The Mankidia community in Odisha has been granted habitat rights, making them the sixth Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) to receive this recognition under the Forest Rights Act, 2006.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Remote Sensing. It is the science of obtaining information about objects or areas from a distance, typically from aircraft or satellites. It collects data by detecting the reflected energy from the Earth. Hyperspectral imaging and seismograms are common application of the remote sensing. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Remote Sensing: It is the science of obtaining information about objects or areas from a distance, typically from aircraft or satellites. It collects data by detecting the reflected energy from the Earth. Hyperspectral imaging, sonar, and seismograms are common application of the remote sensing. Incorrect Solution: D Remote Sensing: It is the science of obtaining information about objects or areas from a distance, typically from aircraft or satellites. It collects data by detecting the reflected energy from the Earth. Hyperspectral imaging, sonar, and seismograms are common application of the remote sensing.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Remote Sensing.

• It is the science of obtaining information about objects or areas from a distance, typically from aircraft or satellites.

• It collects data by detecting the reflected energy from the Earth.

• Hyperspectral imaging and seismograms are common application of the remote sensing.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

Remote Sensing: It is the science of obtaining information about objects or areas from a distance, typically from aircraft or satellites. It collects data by detecting the reflected energy from the Earth. Hyperspectral imaging, sonar, and seismograms are common application of the remote sensing.

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Under Section 8(1) of the Representation of the People Act of 1951, which of the following offences can lead to disqualification of an MP. Promoting enmity between two groups Bribery Undue influence or personation at an election Defamation How many of the above options is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Option 4 is incorrect. The disqualification of an MP convicted for an offence can happen in two instances. First, if the offence for which he is convicted is listed in Section 8(1) of the Representation of the People Act of 1951. This includes certain specific offences such as promoting enmity between two groups, bribery and undue influence or personation at an election. Defamation does not fall under this list. Second, if the lawmaker is convicted for any other offence but is sentenced for a period of two years or more. Section 8(3) of the RPA mandates that an MP can be disqualified if convicted and sentenced to not less than two years of imprisonment. Incorrect Solution: C Option 4 is incorrect. The disqualification of an MP convicted for an offence can happen in two instances. First, if the offence for which he is convicted is listed in Section 8(1) of the Representation of the People Act of 1951. This includes certain specific offences such as promoting enmity between two groups, bribery and undue influence or personation at an election. Defamation does not fall under this list. Second, if the lawmaker is convicted for any other offence but is sentenced for a period of two years or more. Section 8(3) of the RPA mandates that an MP can be disqualified if convicted and sentenced to not less than two years of imprisonment.

#### 4. Question

Under Section 8(1) of the Representation of the People Act of 1951, which of the following offences can lead to disqualification of an MP.

• Promoting enmity between two groups

• Undue influence or personation at an election

• Defamation

How many of the above options is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

Option 4 is incorrect.

The disqualification of an MP convicted for an offence can happen in two instances.

First, if the offence for which he is convicted is listed in Section 8(1) of the Representation of the People Act of 1951. This includes certain specific offences such as promoting enmity between two groups, bribery and undue influence or personation at an election. Defamation does not fall under this list.

Second, if the lawmaker is convicted for any other offence but is sentenced for a period of two years or more. Section 8(3) of the RPA mandates that an MP can be disqualified if convicted and sentenced to not less than two years of imprisonment.

Solution: C

Option 4 is incorrect.

The disqualification of an MP convicted for an offence can happen in two instances.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Mustard flowers contain both female and male reproductive organs, which makes the plant largely self-pollinating. GM mustard is the first approved GM crop in India, that is meant for human consumption. Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is responsible for approving proposals relating to genetically engineered organisms. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) — the body that is responsible for approving proposals relating to genetically engineered organisms. Bacillus thuringiensis cotton (or Bt cotton) is the only GM crop that has been approved for cultivation in India so far. Mustard flowers contain both female (pistil) and male (stamen) reproductive organs, which makes the plant largely self-pollinating. The GM mustard developed by the DU scientists contains two alien genes — the first, ‘barnase’, gene interferes with pollen production and renders the plant male-sterile, and the resulting plant is crossed with fertile mustard flowers containing the second, ‘barstar’, gene which blocks the action of the barnase gene. The resulting plants are meant to be high-yield variants of mustard. Incorrect Solution: D Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) — the body that is responsible for approving proposals relating to genetically engineered organisms. Bacillus thuringiensis cotton (or Bt cotton) is the only GM crop that has been approved for cultivation in India so far. Mustard flowers contain both female (pistil) and male (stamen) reproductive organs, which makes the plant largely self-pollinating. The GM mustard developed by the DU scientists contains two alien genes — the first, ‘barnase’, gene interferes with pollen production and renders the plant male-sterile, and the resulting plant is crossed with fertile mustard flowers containing the second, ‘barstar’, gene which blocks the action of the barnase gene. The resulting plants are meant to be high-yield variants of mustard.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Mustard flowers contain both female and male reproductive organs, which makes the plant largely self-pollinating.

• GM mustard is the first approved GM crop in India, that is meant for human consumption.

• Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is responsible for approving proposals relating to genetically engineered organisms.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: D

Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) — the body that is responsible for approving proposals relating to genetically engineered organisms.

Bacillus thuringiensis cotton (or Bt cotton) is the only GM crop that has been approved for cultivation in India so far.

Mustard flowers contain both female (pistil) and male (stamen) reproductive organs, which makes the plant largely self-pollinating. The GM mustard developed by the DU scientists contains two alien genes — the first, ‘barnase’, gene interferes with pollen production and renders the plant male-sterile, and the resulting plant is crossed with fertile mustard flowers containing the second, ‘barstar’, gene which blocks the action of the barnase gene. The resulting plants are meant to be high-yield variants of mustard.

Solution: D

Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) — the body that is responsible for approving proposals relating to genetically engineered organisms.

Bacillus thuringiensis cotton (or Bt cotton) is the only GM crop that has been approved for cultivation in India so far.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Listeria. Listeria is a bacteria that can lead to an infection called listeriosis. It is found in soil, vegetation, water and even the faeces of animals and humans. Most people who ingest listeria-infected food will fall sick or develop symptoms immediately. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 3 is incorrect. Listeria or Listeria monocytogenes is a type of bacteria found in soil, vegetation, water, sewage and even the faeces of animals and humans. Listeria-contaminated food can lead to an infection called listeriosis. Most people who ingest listeria-infected food do not fall sick or develop symptoms. The bacteria can be present in the infected person’s system for up to two months until the symptoms present themselves, making it difficult to establish the connection between what was consumed and the infection. Symptoms include vomiting, nausea, cramps, severe headache, constipation and fever. People with compromised immune systems, pregnant persons and their offspring and the elderly (aged 65 and above) are vulnerable. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 3 is incorrect. Listeria or Listeria monocytogenes is a type of bacteria found in soil, vegetation, water, sewage and even the faeces of animals and humans. Listeria-contaminated food can lead to an infection called listeriosis. Most people who ingest listeria-infected food do not fall sick or develop symptoms. The bacteria can be present in the infected person’s system for up to two months until the symptoms present themselves, making it difficult to establish the connection between what was consumed and the infection. Symptoms include vomiting, nausea, cramps, severe headache, constipation and fever. People with compromised immune systems, pregnant persons and their offspring and the elderly (aged 65 and above) are vulnerable.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Listeria.

• Listeria is a bacteria that can lead to an infection called listeriosis.

• It is found in soil, vegetation, water and even the faeces of animals and humans.

• Most people who ingest listeria-infected food will fall sick or develop symptoms immediately.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Listeria or Listeria monocytogenes is a type of bacteria found in soil, vegetation, water, sewage and even the faeces of animals and humans. Listeria-contaminated food can lead to an infection called listeriosis.

Most people who ingest listeria-infected food do not fall sick or develop symptoms. The bacteria can be present in the infected person’s system for up to two months until the symptoms present themselves, making it difficult to establish the connection between what was consumed and the infection.

Symptoms include vomiting, nausea, cramps, severe headache, constipation and fever.

People with compromised immune systems, pregnant persons and their offspring and the elderly (aged 65 and above) are vulnerable.

Solution: B

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Symptoms include vomiting, nausea, cramps, severe headache, constipation and fever.

People with compromised immune systems, pregnant persons and their offspring and the elderly (aged 65 and above) are vulnerable.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Royalties refer to the fees paid to the owner of a product in exchange for the right to use that product. According to Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDRA), those who obtain leases to conduct mining activities are required to pay royalty to the individual or corporation who leased the land to them. India’s states does not have the power to tax mining activities, and collecting “royalties” from mining leaseholders. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 3 is incorrect. India’s states have the power to tax mining activities, and collecting “royalties” from mining leaseholders is entirely separate from, and does not interfere with, the power to impose taxes, a nine-judge Constitution Bench ruled. Following the judgment, states can generate additional revenues in the form of taxes on mining activities and on the land used to conduct these activities. Royalties refer to the fees paid to the owner of a product in exchange for the right to use that product. For example, if a movie studio wants to use an existing piece of music by a specific artist in their new film, they will have to pay a royalty fee that goes to the artist. Section 9 of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDRA) requires those who obtain leases to conduct mining activities to “pay royalty in respect of any mineral removed” to the individual or corporation who leased the land to them. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 3 is incorrect. India’s states have the power to tax mining activities, and collecting “royalties” from mining leaseholders is entirely separate from, and does not interfere with, the power to impose taxes, a nine-judge Constitution Bench ruled. Following the judgment, states can generate additional revenues in the form of taxes on mining activities and on the land used to conduct these activities. Royalties refer to the fees paid to the owner of a product in exchange for the right to use that product. For example, if a movie studio wants to use an existing piece of music by a specific artist in their new film, they will have to pay a royalty fee that goes to the artist. Section 9 of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDRA) requires those who obtain leases to conduct mining activities to “pay royalty in respect of any mineral removed” to the individual or corporation who leased the land to them.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Royalties refer to the fees paid to the owner of a product in exchange for the right to use that product.

• According to Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDRA), those who obtain leases to conduct mining activities are required to pay royalty to the individual or corporation who leased the land to them.

• India’s states does not have the power to tax mining activities, and collecting “royalties” from mining leaseholders.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 3 is incorrect.

India’s states have the power to tax mining activities, and collecting “royalties” from mining leaseholders is entirely separate from, and does not interfere with, the power to impose taxes, a nine-judge Constitution Bench ruled.

Following the judgment, states can generate additional revenues in the form of taxes on mining activities and on the land used to conduct these activities.

Royalties refer to the fees paid to the owner of a product in exchange for the right to use that product. For example, if a movie studio wants to use an existing piece of music by a specific artist in their new film, they will have to pay a royalty fee that goes to the artist.

Section 9 of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDRA) requires those who obtain leases to conduct mining activities to “pay royalty in respect of any mineral removed” to the individual or corporation who leased the land to them.

Solution: A

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Following the judgment, states can generate additional revenues in the form of taxes on mining activities and on the land used to conduct these activities.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Khanij Bidesh India Ltd is a private joint venture that aims to secure critical minerals globally. Lithium is an alkali metal used in rechargeable batteries and medical devices like pacemakers. Niobium is a silvery metal with a corrosion-resistant oxide layer on its surface. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Initiatives for Critical Minerals exploration: Initiative Details Amendment to Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act Amendment to MMRDA in 2023 delisted six minerals, including Lithium and Niobium, from the list of atomic minerals, thereby allowing private sector participation Provided for the auction of mining leases and composite licenses of 24 critical and strategic minerals by the central government Khanij Bidesh India Ltd It is a government joint venture that aims to secure critical minerals globally, with a focus on Australia and South America. Mineral Description Common Uses Lithium An alkali metal used in rechargeable batteries for mobiles, laptops, electric vehicles, and medical devices like pacemakers. Rechargeable batteries, energy storage. Rare Earth Elements A group of 17-odd minerals including scandium, yttrium, cerium, and more. Catalysts, magnets, alloys, glass, electronics, petroleum extraction, electric motors, wind turbines. Niobium A silvery metal with a corrosion-resistant oxide layer on its surface. The main source of Niobium is the mineral columbite, which is found in countries such as Canada, Brazil, Australia, and Nigeria. Alloys (stainless steel), jet engines, construction materials, superconducting magnets (particle accelerators, MRI scanners). Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Initiatives for Critical Minerals exploration: Initiative Details Amendment to Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act Amendment to MMRDA in 2023 delisted six minerals, including Lithium and Niobium, from the list of atomic minerals, thereby allowing private sector participation Provided for the auction of mining leases and composite licenses of 24 critical and strategic minerals by the central government Khanij Bidesh India Ltd It is a government joint venture that aims to secure critical minerals globally, with a focus on Australia and South America. Mineral Description Common Uses Lithium An alkali metal used in rechargeable batteries for mobiles, laptops, electric vehicles, and medical devices like pacemakers. Rechargeable batteries, energy storage. Rare Earth Elements A group of 17-odd minerals including scandium, yttrium, cerium, and more. Catalysts, magnets, alloys, glass, electronics, petroleum extraction, electric motors, wind turbines. Niobium A silvery metal with a corrosion-resistant oxide layer on its surface. The main source of Niobium is the mineral columbite, which is found in countries such as Canada, Brazil, Australia, and Nigeria. Alloys (stainless steel), jet engines, construction materials, superconducting magnets (particle accelerators, MRI scanners).

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Khanij Bidesh India Ltd is a private joint venture that aims to secure critical minerals globally.

• Lithium is an alkali metal used in rechargeable batteries and medical devices like pacemakers.

• Niobium is a silvery metal with a corrosion-resistant oxide layer on its surface.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect.

Initiatives for Critical Minerals exploration:

Initiative | Details

Amendment to Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act | Amendment to MMRDA in 2023 delisted six minerals, including Lithium and Niobium, from the list of atomic minerals, thereby allowing private sector participation

Provided for the auction of mining leases and composite licenses of 24 critical and strategic minerals by the central government

Khanij Bidesh India Ltd | It is a government joint venture that aims to secure critical minerals globally, with a focus on Australia and South America.

Mineral | Description | Common Uses

Lithium | An alkali metal used in rechargeable batteries for mobiles, laptops, electric vehicles, and medical devices like pacemakers. | Rechargeable batteries, energy storage.

Rare Earth Elements | A group of 17-odd minerals including scandium, yttrium, cerium, and more. | Catalysts, magnets, alloys, glass, electronics, petroleum extraction, electric motors, wind turbines.

Niobium | A silvery metal with a corrosion-resistant oxide layer on its surface. The main source of Niobium is the mineral columbite, which is found in countries such as Canada, Brazil, Australia, and Nigeria. | Alloys (stainless steel), jet engines, construction materials, superconducting magnets (particle accelerators, MRI scanners).

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect.

Initiatives for Critical Minerals exploration:

Initiative | Details

Provided for the auction of mining leases and composite licenses of 24 critical and strategic minerals by the central government

Khanij Bidesh India Ltd | It is a government joint venture that aims to secure critical minerals globally, with a focus on Australia and South America.

Mineral | Description | Common Uses

Lithium | An alkali metal used in rechargeable batteries for mobiles, laptops, electric vehicles, and medical devices like pacemakers. | Rechargeable batteries, energy storage.

Rare Earth Elements | A group of 17-odd minerals including scandium, yttrium, cerium, and more. | Catalysts, magnets, alloys, glass, electronics, petroleum extraction, electric motors, wind turbines.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Article 102 of the Indian Constitution deals with the disqualification of MPs from either house of the Parliament. The reasons under which an MP can be disqualified include: if he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State. if he is an undischarged insolvent. if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India. if he is disqualified by the Election Commission of India. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 4 is incorrect. Article 102 deals with the disqualification of MPs from either house of the Parliament. Part (1) of the article lists the reasons why an MP can be disqualified. These include, (a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder; (b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court; (c) if he is an undischarged insolvent; (d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgment of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State; (e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 4 is incorrect. Article 102 deals with the disqualification of MPs from either house of the Parliament. Part (1) of the article lists the reasons why an MP can be disqualified. These include, (a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder; (b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court; (c) if he is an undischarged insolvent; (d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgment of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State; (e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament.

#### 9. Question

Article 102 of the Indian Constitution deals with the disqualification of MPs from either house of the Parliament. The reasons under which an MP can be disqualified include:

• if he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State.

• if he is an undischarged insolvent.

• if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India.

• if he is disqualified by the Election Commission of India.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

Statement 4 is incorrect.

Article 102 deals with the disqualification of MPs from either house of the Parliament.

Part (1) of the article lists the reasons why an MP can be disqualified. These include,

(a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder;

(b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;

(d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgment of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State;

(e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament.

Solution: C

Statement 4 is incorrect.

Article 102 deals with the disqualification of MPs from either house of the Parliament.

Part (1) of the article lists the reasons why an MP can be disqualified. These include,

(a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder;

(b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;

(d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgment of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State;

(e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points What did the Supreme Court rule in the 2023 case of Pankaj Bansal vs Union of India regarding the disclosure of ‘grounds of arrest’? a) It is optional to disclose grounds of arrest b) Grounds of arrest must be disclosed verbally within 48 hours c) Disclosing grounds of arrest in writing at the time of arrest is mandatory d) Grounds of arrest can be disclosed after the accused is produced before a magistrate Correct Solution: c) The Supreme Court’s ruling in this case established a crucial procedural safeguard for arrested individuals. By mandating the written disclosure of arrest grounds at the time of arrest, it ensures transparency in the arrest process and allows the accused to understand the basis of their detention immediately. This requirement serves multiple purposes: it protects against arbitrary arrests, enables the accused to prepare their defense promptly, and upholds the fundamental right to personal liberty. The immediacy of this disclosure is particularly significant in the context of laws like PMLA, where bail provisions are stringent, making the validity of the arrest itself a critical factor in potential legal challenges. Incorrect Solution: c) The Supreme Court’s ruling in this case established a crucial procedural safeguard for arrested individuals. By mandating the written disclosure of arrest grounds at the time of arrest, it ensures transparency in the arrest process and allows the accused to understand the basis of their detention immediately. This requirement serves multiple purposes: it protects against arbitrary arrests, enables the accused to prepare their defense promptly, and upholds the fundamental right to personal liberty. The immediacy of this disclosure is particularly significant in the context of laws like PMLA, where bail provisions are stringent, making the validity of the arrest itself a critical factor in potential legal challenges.

#### 10. Question

What did the Supreme Court rule in the 2023 case of Pankaj Bansal vs Union of India regarding the disclosure of ‘grounds of arrest’?

• a) It is optional to disclose grounds of arrest

• b) Grounds of arrest must be disclosed verbally within 48 hours

• c) Disclosing grounds of arrest in writing at the time of arrest is mandatory

• d) Grounds of arrest can be disclosed after the accused is produced before a magistrate

Solution: c)

The Supreme Court’s ruling in this case established a crucial procedural safeguard for arrested individuals. By mandating the written disclosure of arrest grounds at the time of arrest, it ensures transparency in the arrest process and allows the accused to understand the basis of their detention immediately. This requirement serves multiple purposes: it protects against arbitrary arrests, enables the accused to prepare their defense promptly, and upholds the fundamental right to personal liberty. The immediacy of this disclosure is particularly significant in the context of laws like PMLA, where bail provisions are stringent, making the validity of the arrest itself a critical factor in potential legal challenges.

Solution: c)

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