UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 5 July 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 10 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 10 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC): The DAC is chaired by the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS). It was established following the recommendations of the Group of Ministers Report on National Security reforms after the Kargil War. The DAC is the apex body in the Ministry of Home Affairs for procurement matters. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is chaired by the Union Defence Minister, not the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS). The CDS is a member of the council, along with the Chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force. This composition ensures that the highest political and military leadership are involved in crucial defence procurement decisions. Statement 2 is correct. The DAC was formed in 2001 as a dedicated body to streamline and expedite the defence procurement process. Its creation was a direct outcome of the recommendations made by the Group of Ministers (GoM) that was constituted to review the national security system in the aftermath of the Kargil War (1999). The GoM identified several shortcomings in the existing defence procurement mechanism, which led to the establishment of the DAC to bring about greater efficiency and accountability. Statement 3 is incorrect. The DAC operates under the Ministry of Defence, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Its mandate is exclusively related to the procurement of capital assets for the Indian Armed Forces. The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for internal security and the administration of Central Armed Police Forces, whose procurement processes are separate. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is chaired by the Union Defence Minister, not the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS). The CDS is a member of the council, along with the Chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force. This composition ensures that the highest political and military leadership are involved in crucial defence procurement decisions. Statement 2 is correct. The DAC was formed in 2001 as a dedicated body to streamline and expedite the defence procurement process. Its creation was a direct outcome of the recommendations made by the Group of Ministers (GoM) that was constituted to review the national security system in the aftermath of the Kargil War (1999). The GoM identified several shortcomings in the existing defence procurement mechanism, which led to the establishment of the DAC to bring about greater efficiency and accountability. Statement 3 is incorrect. The DAC operates under the Ministry of Defence, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Its mandate is exclusively related to the procurement of capital assets for the Indian Armed Forces. The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for internal security and the administration of Central Armed Police Forces, whose procurement processes are separate.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):

• The DAC is chaired by the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS).

• It was established following the recommendations of the Group of Ministers Report on National Security reforms after the Kargil War.

• The DAC is the apex body in the Ministry of Home Affairs for procurement matters.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is chaired by the Union Defence Minister, not the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS). The CDS is a member of the council, along with the Chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force. This composition ensures that the highest political and military leadership are involved in crucial defence procurement decisions.

• Statement 2 is correct. The DAC was formed in 2001 as a dedicated body to streamline and expedite the defence procurement process. Its creation was a direct outcome of the recommendations made by the Group of Ministers (GoM) that was constituted to review the national security system in the aftermath of the Kargil War (1999). The GoM identified several shortcomings in the existing defence procurement mechanism, which led to the establishment of the DAC to bring about greater efficiency and accountability.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The DAC operates under the Ministry of Defence, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Its mandate is exclusively related to the procurement of capital assets for the Indian Armed Forces. The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for internal security and the administration of Central Armed Police Forces, whose procurement processes are separate.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Overseas Citizen of India (OCI): Statement-I: The Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) scheme grants dual citizenship to foreign nationals of Indian origin. Statement-II: OCI cardholders enjoy parity with Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in all matters, including the acquisition of agricultural land. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect Correct Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. The OCI scheme does not grant dual citizenship. The Indian Constitution does not permit dual citizenship. OCI is a form of permanent residency that allows individuals of Indian origin to live and work in India indefinitely. It is a status that provides many of the benefits of citizenship without the actual grant of citizenship itself. This distinction is crucial as OCI cardholders do not have political rights, such as the right to vote or hold constitutional offices. Statement-II is incorrect. While OCI cardholders have parity with NRIs in many economic, financial, and educational fields, there are specific restrictions. The most notable exception is the acquisition of agricultural land or farmhouses. OCI cardholders are not permitted to purchase such properties. This is a significant distinction in their property rights compared to Indian citizens. Therefore, the statement that they enjoy parity in “all matters” is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. The OCI scheme does not grant dual citizenship. The Indian Constitution does not permit dual citizenship. OCI is a form of permanent residency that allows individuals of Indian origin to live and work in India indefinitely. It is a status that provides many of the benefits of citizenship without the actual grant of citizenship itself. This distinction is crucial as OCI cardholders do not have political rights, such as the right to vote or hold constitutional offices. Statement-II is incorrect. While OCI cardholders have parity with NRIs in many economic, financial, and educational fields, there are specific restrictions. The most notable exception is the acquisition of agricultural land or farmhouses. OCI cardholders are not permitted to purchase such properties. This is a significant distinction in their property rights compared to Indian citizens. Therefore, the statement that they enjoy parity in “all matters” is incorrect.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Overseas Citizen of India (OCI):

Statement-I: The Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) scheme grants dual citizenship to foreign nationals of Indian origin.

Statement-II: OCI cardholders enjoy parity with Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in all matters, including the acquisition of agricultural land.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

Solution: D

• Statement-I is incorrect. The OCI scheme does not grant dual citizenship. The Indian Constitution does not permit dual citizenship. OCI is a form of permanent residency that allows individuals of Indian origin to live and work in India indefinitely. It is a status that provides many of the benefits of citizenship without the actual grant of citizenship itself. This distinction is crucial as OCI cardholders do not have political rights, such as the right to vote or hold constitutional offices.

Statement-II is incorrect. While OCI cardholders have parity with NRIs in many economic, financial, and educational fields, there are specific restrictions. The most notable exception is the acquisition of agricultural land or farmhouses. OCI cardholders are not permitted to purchase such properties. This is a significant distinction in their property rights compared to Indian citizens. Therefore, the statement that they enjoy parity in “all matters” is incorrect.

Solution: D

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the RBI’s recent policy on pre-payment charges: The ban on pre-payment penalties applies to all types of loans, including fixed-rate loans. The directive is applicable to commercial banks and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs). The new rules will come into effect for loans sanctioned on or after 1st January 2026. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The RBI’s directive specifically bars lenders from levying pre-payment charges on floating-rate loans. It does not apply to fixed-rate loans. The rationale behind this is that borrowers with floating-rate loans are subject to interest rate risk, and penalising them for pre-payment is considered an unfair practice. Statement 2 is correct. The policy aims to create a “Harmonised Lending Environment” across institutions like commercial banks, NBFC-ULs (Upper Layer), urban cooperative banks, and RRBs, especially for loans up to ₹50 lakh. Statement 3 is correct. The policy is forward-looking and will be applicable to new or renewed floating-rate loans that are sanctioned on or after January 1, 2026. This gives lending institutions time to adjust their systems and loan agreement templates to comply with the new regulations. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The RBI’s directive specifically bars lenders from levying pre-payment charges on floating-rate loans. It does not apply to fixed-rate loans. The rationale behind this is that borrowers with floating-rate loans are subject to interest rate risk, and penalising them for pre-payment is considered an unfair practice. Statement 2 is correct. The policy aims to create a “Harmonised Lending Environment” across institutions like commercial banks, NBFC-ULs (Upper Layer), urban cooperative banks, and RRBs, especially for loans up to ₹50 lakh. Statement 3 is correct. The policy is forward-looking and will be applicable to new or renewed floating-rate loans that are sanctioned on or after January 1, 2026. This gives lending institutions time to adjust their systems and loan agreement templates to comply with the new regulations.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the RBI’s recent policy on pre-payment charges:

• The ban on pre-payment penalties applies to all types of loans, including fixed-rate loans.

• The directive is applicable to commercial banks and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs).

• The new rules will come into effect for loans sanctioned on or after 1st January 2026.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The RBI’s directive specifically bars lenders from levying pre-payment charges on floating-rate loans. It does not apply to fixed-rate loans. The rationale behind this is that borrowers with floating-rate loans are subject to interest rate risk, and penalising them for pre-payment is considered an unfair practice.

• Statement 2 is correct. The policy aims to create a “Harmonised Lending Environment” across institutions like commercial banks, NBFC-ULs (Upper Layer), urban cooperative banks, and RRBs, especially for loans up to ₹50 lakh.

Statement 3 is correct. The policy is forward-looking and will be applicable to new or renewed floating-rate loans that are sanctioned on or after January 1, 2026. This gives lending institutions time to adjust their systems and loan agreement templates to comply with the new regulations.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following issues with the current TRP system are the TV Rating Guidelines 2025 attempting to address? The monopoly of a single rating agency. The exclusion of digital and OTT viewership from measurement. The disproportionately large sample size of viewership measurement. The lack of government oversight in the TRP ecosystem. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: C The primary issues the new guidelines aim to address are the structural and technological limitations of the current system. Statement 1 is correct: The draft policy explicitly proposes to end the monopoly of BARC by allowing multiple agencies to operate in the sector. This is intended to foster competition and bring in new methodologies. Statement 2 is correct: A major focus of the reform is to expand the scope of measurement beyond traditional television sets to include modern digital platforms like connected TVs and OTT services, which are currently not part of the TRP measurement framework. Statement 3 is incorrect: The problem with the current system is a small and limited sample size, not a large one. The 58,000 meters are considered insufficient to accurately capture the viewing habits of a large and diverse nation. Statement 4 is incorrect: The TRP system is already under the oversight of the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting, which establishes the policy guidelines. The new guidelines are an exercise of this oversight, not an introduction of it. The issue is not the lack of oversight but the effectiveness and structure of the existing regulatory framework. Incorrect Solution: C The primary issues the new guidelines aim to address are the structural and technological limitations of the current system. Statement 1 is correct: The draft policy explicitly proposes to end the monopoly of BARC by allowing multiple agencies to operate in the sector. This is intended to foster competition and bring in new methodologies. Statement 2 is correct: A major focus of the reform is to expand the scope of measurement beyond traditional television sets to include modern digital platforms like connected TVs and OTT services, which are currently not part of the TRP measurement framework. Statement 3 is incorrect: The problem with the current system is a small and limited sample size, not a large one. The 58,000 meters are considered insufficient to accurately capture the viewing habits of a large and diverse nation. Statement 4 is incorrect: The TRP system is already under the oversight of the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting, which establishes the policy guidelines. The new guidelines are an exercise of this oversight, not an introduction of it. The issue is not the lack of oversight but the effectiveness and structure of the existing regulatory framework.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following issues with the current TRP system are the TV Rating Guidelines 2025 attempting to address?

• The monopoly of a single rating agency.

• The exclusion of digital and OTT viewership from measurement.

• The disproportionately large sample size of viewership measurement.

• The lack of government oversight in the TRP ecosystem.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (b) 3 and 4 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: C

The primary issues the new guidelines aim to address are the structural and technological limitations of the current system.

• Statement 1 is correct: The draft policy explicitly proposes to end the monopoly of BARC by allowing multiple agencies to operate in the sector. This is intended to foster competition and bring in new methodologies.

• Statement 2 is correct: A major focus of the reform is to expand the scope of measurement beyond traditional television sets to include modern digital platforms like connected TVs and OTT services, which are currently not part of the TRP measurement framework.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The problem with the current system is a small and limited sample size, not a large one. The 58,000 meters are considered insufficient to accurately capture the viewing habits of a large and diverse nation.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The TRP system is already under the oversight of the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting, which establishes the policy guidelines. The new guidelines are an exercise of this oversight, not an introduction of it. The issue is not the lack of oversight but the effectiveness and structure of the existing regulatory framework.

Solution: C

The primary issues the new guidelines aim to address are the structural and technological limitations of the current system.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Motor Vehicle Aggregator Guidelines (MVAG), 2025: Statement I: The guidelines mandate a minimum share of the total fare that must be paid to the driver. Statement II: The guidelines introduce a cap on the surge pricing that can be charged by aggregators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: B Statement I is correct. The MVAG, 2025 introduces a significant driver welfare measure by stipulating that drivers must receive at least 80% of the fare if they use their own vehicle, and a minimum of 60% if they use a vehicle owned by the aggregator. This is a direct intervention to ensure a fair earning structure for drivers. Statement II is correct. The guidelines aim to regulate the fare structure by allowing state governments to fix a base fare. Aggregators can then charge up to twice this base fare as a dynamic pricing cap. This effectively puts a ceiling on surge pricing, a common cause of passenger grievances. While both statements are correct and relate to the economic regulation of ride-hailing platforms, Statement II does not explain Statement I. Incorrect Solution: B Statement I is correct. The MVAG, 2025 introduces a significant driver welfare measure by stipulating that drivers must receive at least 80% of the fare if they use their own vehicle, and a minimum of 60% if they use a vehicle owned by the aggregator. This is a direct intervention to ensure a fair earning structure for drivers. Statement II is correct. The guidelines aim to regulate the fare structure by allowing state governments to fix a base fare. Aggregators can then charge up to twice this base fare as a dynamic pricing cap. This effectively puts a ceiling on surge pricing, a common cause of passenger grievances. While both statements are correct and relate to the economic regulation of ride-hailing platforms, Statement II does not explain Statement I.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the Motor Vehicle Aggregator Guidelines (MVAG), 2025:

Statement I: The guidelines mandate a minimum share of the total fare that must be paid to the driver.

Statement II: The guidelines introduce a cap on the surge pricing that can be charged by aggregators.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: B

• Statement I is correct. The MVAG, 2025 introduces a significant driver welfare measure by stipulating that drivers must receive at least 80% of the fare if they use their own vehicle, and a minimum of 60% if they use a vehicle owned by the aggregator. This is a direct intervention to ensure a fair earning structure for drivers.

• Statement II is correct. The guidelines aim to regulate the fare structure by allowing state governments to fix a base fare. Aggregators can then charge up to twice this base fare as a dynamic pricing cap. This effectively puts a ceiling on surge pricing, a common cause of passenger grievances.

• While both statements are correct and relate to the economic regulation of ride-hailing platforms, Statement II does not explain Statement I.

Solution: B

• While both statements are correct and relate to the economic regulation of ride-hailing platforms, Statement II does not explain Statement I.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Roll Clouds: They are a type of funnel cloud attached to the base of a thunderstorm. They are formed due to the interaction of contrasting air masses and are influenced by atmospheric gravity waves. Their presence is a definite precursor to the formation of a tornado. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. A defining characteristic of a roll cloud is that it is detached from any thunderstorm base or rotating vortex. Funnel clouds, on the other hand, are associated with rotating supercell thunderstorms and are often the precursor to tornadoes. A roll cloud appears as a long, horizontal tube, distinct from the main cloud system. Statement 2 is correct. The formation of a roll cloud is a classic example of meso-scale atmospheric dynamics. It typically occurs when a cool, dense air mass (like a sea breeze) undercuts a warmer, less dense air mass. This interaction can trigger atmospheric gravity waves. The rising part of the wave causes air to cool and condense, forming the cloud, while the sinking part remains clear, creating the distinct “rolling” tube shape. Statement 3 is incorrect. Roll clouds are primarily a visual phenomenon and are not directly dangerous. While they indicate atmospheric instability in the lower levels, they are not a definite precursor to tornadoes. In some regions, they might precede a storm, but they are not a reliable indicator of severe weather like tornadoes. About Roll Cloud: A roll cloud is a rare, low-level, horizontal, tube-shaped cloud that appears to roll as it moves. Unlike funnel clouds, it is not attached to any thunderstorm base or rotating vortex. Commonly Seen In: Coastal regions where oceanic and continental air masses interact Frequently observed over Plains in the U.S., Gulf of Carpentaria in Australia, and Atlantic coasts of Europe. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. A defining characteristic of a roll cloud is that it is detached from any thunderstorm base or rotating vortex. Funnel clouds, on the other hand, are associated with rotating supercell thunderstorms and are often the precursor to tornadoes. A roll cloud appears as a long, horizontal tube, distinct from the main cloud system. Statement 2 is correct. The formation of a roll cloud is a classic example of meso-scale atmospheric dynamics. It typically occurs when a cool, dense air mass (like a sea breeze) undercuts a warmer, less dense air mass. This interaction can trigger atmospheric gravity waves. The rising part of the wave causes air to cool and condense, forming the cloud, while the sinking part remains clear, creating the distinct “rolling” tube shape. Statement 3 is incorrect. Roll clouds are primarily a visual phenomenon and are not directly dangerous. While they indicate atmospheric instability in the lower levels, they are not a definite precursor to tornadoes. In some regions, they might precede a storm, but they are not a reliable indicator of severe weather like tornadoes. About Roll Cloud: A roll cloud is a rare, low-level, horizontal, tube-shaped cloud that appears to roll as it moves. Unlike funnel clouds, it is not attached to any thunderstorm base or rotating vortex. Commonly Seen In: Coastal regions where oceanic and continental air masses interact Frequently observed over Plains in the U.S., Gulf of Carpentaria in Australia, and Atlantic coasts of Europe.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about Roll Clouds:

• They are a type of funnel cloud attached to the base of a thunderstorm.

• They are formed due to the interaction of contrasting air masses and are influenced by atmospheric gravity waves.

• Their presence is a definite precursor to the formation of a tornado.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. A defining characteristic of a roll cloud is that it is detached from any thunderstorm base or rotating vortex. Funnel clouds, on the other hand, are associated with rotating supercell thunderstorms and are often the precursor to tornadoes. A roll cloud appears as a long, horizontal tube, distinct from the main cloud system.

• Statement 2 is correct. The formation of a roll cloud is a classic example of meso-scale atmospheric dynamics. It typically occurs when a cool, dense air mass (like a sea breeze) undercuts a warmer, less dense air mass. This interaction can trigger atmospheric gravity waves. The rising part of the wave causes air to cool and condense, forming the cloud, while the sinking part remains clear, creating the distinct “rolling” tube shape.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Roll clouds are primarily a visual phenomenon and are not directly dangerous. While they indicate atmospheric instability in the lower levels, they are not a definite precursor to tornadoes. In some regions, they might precede a storm, but they are not a reliable indicator of severe weather like tornadoes.

About Roll Cloud:

• A roll cloud is a rare, low-level, horizontal, tube-shaped cloud that appears to roll as it moves.

• Unlike funnel clouds, it is not attached to any thunderstorm base or rotating vortex.

• Commonly Seen In:

• Coastal regions where oceanic and continental air masses interact Frequently observed over Plains in the U.S., Gulf of Carpentaria in Australia, and Atlantic coasts of Europe.

• Coastal regions where oceanic and continental air masses interact

• Frequently observed over Plains in the U.S., Gulf of Carpentaria in Australia, and Atlantic coasts of Europe.

Solution: A

About Roll Cloud:

• A roll cloud is a rare, low-level, horizontal, tube-shaped cloud that appears to roll as it moves.

• Unlike funnel clouds, it is not attached to any thunderstorm base or rotating vortex.

• Commonly Seen In:

• Coastal regions where oceanic and continental air masses interact Frequently observed over Plains in the U.S., Gulf of Carpentaria in Australia, and Atlantic coasts of Europe.

• Coastal regions where oceanic and continental air masses interact

• Frequently observed over Plains in the U.S., Gulf of Carpentaria in Australia, and Atlantic coasts of Europe.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Russia shares a land border with which of the following countries? Finland Ukraine Mongolia Japan Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: A Russia has the most land borders of any country in the world. 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Russia shares extensive land borders with Finland in the northwest, Ukraine in the southwest, and Mongolia in the south. 4 is incorrect. Russia does not share a land border with Japan. The two countries are separated by the Sea of Okhotsk and the Sea of Japan. Incorrect Solution: A Russia has the most land borders of any country in the world. 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Russia shares extensive land borders with Finland in the northwest, Ukraine in the southwest, and Mongolia in the south. 4 is incorrect. Russia does not share a land border with Japan. The two countries are separated by the Sea of Okhotsk and the Sea of Japan.

#### 7. Question

Russia shares a land border with which of the following countries?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: A

Russia has the most land borders of any country in the world.

• 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Russia shares extensive land borders with Finland in the northwest, Ukraine in the southwest, and Mongolia in the south.

• 4 is incorrect. Russia does not share a land border with Japan. The two countries are separated by the Sea of Okhotsk and the Sea of Japan.

Solution: A

Russia has the most land borders of any country in the world.

• 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Russia shares extensive land borders with Finland in the northwest, Ukraine in the southwest, and Mongolia in the south.

• 4 is incorrect. Russia does not share a land border with Japan. The two countries are separated by the Sea of Okhotsk and the Sea of Japan.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points With reference to the geopolitical context of the Fordow Nuclear Facility, consider the following statements: The facility is located near Tehran and is easily accessible for international inspections. Its existence was initially concealed from the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). Under the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA), Iran had agreed to convert Fordow into a technology centre and cease all uranium enrichment activities there. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Fordow facility is not located near Tehran but near the city of Qom. More importantly, it is not easily accessible; it is a heavily fortified facility built deep inside a mountain, making both physical access and potential military strikes extremely difficult. Statement 2 is correct. The existence of the Fordow Fuel Enrichment Plant was not initially declared by Iran. It was being built as a covert facility and its existence was revealed to the IAEA by Iran only in 2009, after it became clear that Western intelligence agencies were already aware of it. This concealment was a major point of contention. Statement 3 is correct. As part of the original 2015 nuclear deal, the JCPOA, Iran committed to significant limitations on its nuclear program. A key provision was that the Fordow facility would be repurposed. It was to be converted into a nuclear, physics, and technology centre, and Iran agreed to refrain from any uranium enrichment and R&D activities and not have any fissile material at the site. However, Iran has since resumed enrichment activities at Fordow following the US withdrawal from the deal. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Fordow facility is not located near Tehran but near the city of Qom. More importantly, it is not easily accessible; it is a heavily fortified facility built deep inside a mountain, making both physical access and potential military strikes extremely difficult. Statement 2 is correct. The existence of the Fordow Fuel Enrichment Plant was not initially declared by Iran. It was being built as a covert facility and its existence was revealed to the IAEA by Iran only in 2009, after it became clear that Western intelligence agencies were already aware of it. This concealment was a major point of contention. Statement 3 is correct. As part of the original 2015 nuclear deal, the JCPOA, Iran committed to significant limitations on its nuclear program. A key provision was that the Fordow facility would be repurposed. It was to be converted into a nuclear, physics, and technology centre, and Iran agreed to refrain from any uranium enrichment and R&D activities and not have any fissile material at the site. However, Iran has since resumed enrichment activities at Fordow following the US withdrawal from the deal.

#### 8. Question

With reference to the geopolitical context of the Fordow Nuclear Facility, consider the following statements:

• The facility is located near Tehran and is easily accessible for international inspections.

• Its existence was initially concealed from the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).

• Under the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA), Iran had agreed to convert Fordow into a technology centre and cease all uranium enrichment activities there.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Fordow facility is not located near Tehran but near the city of Qom. More importantly, it is not easily accessible; it is a heavily fortified facility built deep inside a mountain, making both physical access and potential military strikes extremely difficult.

• Statement 2 is correct. The existence of the Fordow Fuel Enrichment Plant was not initially declared by Iran. It was being built as a covert facility and its existence was revealed to the IAEA by Iran only in 2009, after it became clear that Western intelligence agencies were already aware of it. This concealment was a major point of contention.

• Statement 3 is correct. As part of the original 2015 nuclear deal, the JCPOA, Iran committed to significant limitations on its nuclear program. A key provision was that the Fordow facility would be repurposed. It was to be converted into a nuclear, physics, and technology centre, and Iran agreed to refrain from any uranium enrichment and R&D activities and not have any fissile material at the site. However, Iran has since resumed enrichment activities at Fordow following the US withdrawal from the deal.

Solution: D

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) as per recent analyses like the World Investment Report 2025: Greenfield investment refers to a company directly building its own new facilities in a foreign country. International Project Finance (IPF) is a crucial source of funding for large-scale infrastructure projects in developing nations. Recent trends indicate a robust growth in International Project Finance (IPF), particularly in the renewable energy sector. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. This is a standard definition in international economics. A Greenfield investment is a type of FDI where a parent company starts a new venture in a foreign country by constructing new operational facilities from the ground up. This is distinct from a merger/acquisition, where a company buys an existing facility. Statement 2 is correct. International Project Finance (IPF) is a specific method of funding very large, long-term projects, such as infrastructure (ports, power plants, highways) and energy projects. It is particularly vital for developing countries that may lack sufficient domestic capital for such capital-intensive undertakings. Statement 3 is incorrect. The World Investment Report 2025 highlights a concerning trend: a significant slump or decline in the value of International Project Finance deals globally. This decline has disproportionately affected developing countries and has specifically impacted sectors like renewable energy and infrastructure, which saw a contraction in financing, not robust growth. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. This is a standard definition in international economics. A Greenfield investment is a type of FDI where a parent company starts a new venture in a foreign country by constructing new operational facilities from the ground up. This is distinct from a merger/acquisition, where a company buys an existing facility. Statement 2 is correct. International Project Finance (IPF) is a specific method of funding very large, long-term projects, such as infrastructure (ports, power plants, highways) and energy projects. It is particularly vital for developing countries that may lack sufficient domestic capital for such capital-intensive undertakings. Statement 3 is incorrect. The World Investment Report 2025 highlights a concerning trend: a significant slump or decline in the value of International Project Finance deals globally. This decline has disproportionately affected developing countries and has specifically impacted sectors like renewable energy and infrastructure, which saw a contraction in financing, not robust growth.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) as per recent analyses like the World Investment Report 2025:

• Greenfield investment refers to a company directly building its own new facilities in a foreign country.

• International Project Finance (IPF) is a crucial source of funding for large-scale infrastructure projects in developing nations.

• Recent trends indicate a robust growth in International Project Finance (IPF), particularly in the renewable energy sector.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. This is a standard definition in international economics. A Greenfield investment is a type of FDI where a parent company starts a new venture in a foreign country by constructing new operational facilities from the ground up. This is distinct from a merger/acquisition, where a company buys an existing facility.

• Statement 2 is correct. International Project Finance (IPF) is a specific method of funding very large, long-term projects, such as infrastructure (ports, power plants, highways) and energy projects. It is particularly vital for developing countries that may lack sufficient domestic capital for such capital-intensive undertakings.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The World Investment Report 2025 highlights a concerning trend: a significant slump or decline in the value of International Project Finance deals globally. This decline has disproportionately affected developing countries and has specifically impacted sectors like renewable energy and infrastructure, which saw a contraction in financing, not robust growth.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India Post Payments Bank (IPPB): Statement I: The establishment of India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) is a significant step towards achieving deeper financial inclusion in India. Statement II: IPPB leverages the India Stack for paperless banking and utilises a multilingual digital interface. Statement III: IPPB’s doorstep banking model is primarily delivered through a dedicated fleet of mobile vans in urban centres. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I c) Only Statement II is correct and it explains Statement I d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: C Statement I is a correct assertion. IPPB’s core mandate and its operational model are designed to bring banking services to the unbanked and underbanked populations, especially in rural India, thereby directly contributing to the national goal of financial inclusion. Statement II is correct and provides a strong explanation for Statement By using the India Stack (Aadhaar, e-KYC, etc.), IPPB enables rapid, paperless, and presence-less account opening. Its multilingual interface breaks down language barriers, making banking accessible to a diverse population. These technological features are crucial mechanisms through which IPPB achieves the financial inclusion mentioned in Statement I. Statement III is incorrect. While IPPB might use various methods, its primary and most lauded doorstep banking model is delivered not by mobile vans in urban areas, but by the vast, existing network of over 2 lakh Postmen and Gramin Dak Sevaks. These individuals, equipped with smartphones and biometric devices, reach households in even the remotest villages, which is the cornerstone of its inclusion model. The focus is rural and semi-urban, not primarily urban centres with mobile vans. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is a correct assertion. IPPB’s core mandate and its operational model are designed to bring banking services to the unbanked and underbanked populations, especially in rural India, thereby directly contributing to the national goal of financial inclusion. Statement II is correct and provides a strong explanation for Statement By using the India Stack (Aadhaar, e-KYC, etc.), IPPB enables rapid, paperless, and presence-less account opening. Its multilingual interface breaks down language barriers, making banking accessible to a diverse population. These technological features are crucial mechanisms through which IPPB achieves the financial inclusion mentioned in Statement I. Statement III is incorrect. While IPPB might use various methods, its primary and most lauded doorstep banking model is delivered not by mobile vans in urban areas, but by the vast, existing network of over 2 lakh Postmen and Gramin Dak Sevaks. These individuals, equipped with smartphones and biometric devices, reach households in even the remotest villages, which is the cornerstone of its inclusion model. The focus is rural and semi-urban, not primarily urban centres with mobile vans.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India Post Payments Bank (IPPB):

Statement I: The establishment of India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) is a significant step towards achieving deeper financial inclusion in India.

Statement II: IPPB leverages the India Stack for paperless banking and utilises a multilingual digital interface.

Statement III: IPPB’s doorstep banking model is primarily delivered through a dedicated fleet of mobile vans in urban centres.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• c) Only Statement II is correct and it explains Statement I

• d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: C

• Statement I is a correct assertion. IPPB’s core mandate and its operational model are designed to bring banking services to the unbanked and underbanked populations, especially in rural India, thereby directly contributing to the national goal of financial inclusion.

• Statement II is correct and provides a strong explanation for Statement By using the India Stack (Aadhaar, e-KYC, etc.), IPPB enables rapid, paperless, and presence-less account opening. Its multilingual interface breaks down language barriers, making banking accessible to a diverse population. These technological features are crucial mechanisms through which IPPB achieves the financial inclusion mentioned in Statement I.

• Statement III is incorrect. While IPPB might use various methods, its primary and most lauded doorstep banking model is delivered not by mobile vans in urban areas, but by the vast, existing network of over 2 lakh Postmen and Gramin Dak Sevaks. These individuals, equipped with smartphones and biometric devices, reach households in even the remotest villages, which is the cornerstone of its inclusion model. The focus is rural and semi-urban, not primarily urban centres with mobile vans.

Solution: C

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates for

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE