UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 5 January 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Estimates Committee: It is a joint committee with members elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. The recommendations of the committee are mandatory for the government to implement within a fixed timeframe. The committee is empowered to question the fundamental policy laid down by the Parliament. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Estimates Committee is an exclusive committee of the Lok Sabha. It consists of 30 members, all of whom are from the lower house. The Rajya Sabha has no representation on this committee, which is a key distinguishing feature. Statement 2 is incorrect. The role of the Estimates Committee, like other financial committees, is advisory. Its recommendations are not binding or mandatory for the government. While the government is expected to take them seriously and report back on the action taken, it is not legally obligated to implement them. Statement 3 is incorrect. A crucial limitation on the committee’s power is that it cannot question the policy laid down by the Parliament. Its mandate is to examine the expenditure within the framework of the approved policy and suggest “economies” or improvements in efficiency and administration. It can suggest alternative policies for better implementation but cannot challenge the core policy objective itself. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Estimates Committee is an exclusive committee of the Lok Sabha. It consists of 30 members, all of whom are from the lower house. The Rajya Sabha has no representation on this committee, which is a key distinguishing feature. Statement 2 is incorrect. The role of the Estimates Committee, like other financial committees, is advisory. Its recommendations are not binding or mandatory for the government. While the government is expected to take them seriously and report back on the action taken, it is not legally obligated to implement them. Statement 3 is incorrect. A crucial limitation on the committee’s power is that it cannot question the policy laid down by the Parliament. Its mandate is to examine the expenditure within the framework of the approved policy and suggest “economies” or improvements in efficiency and administration. It can suggest alternative policies for better implementation but cannot challenge the core policy objective itself.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Estimates Committee:

• It is a joint committee with members elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

• The recommendations of the committee are mandatory for the government to implement within a fixed timeframe.

• The committee is empowered to question the fundamental policy laid down by the Parliament.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Estimates Committee is an exclusive committee of the Lok Sabha. It consists of 30 members, all of whom are from the lower house. The Rajya Sabha has no representation on this committee, which is a key distinguishing feature.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The role of the Estimates Committee, like other financial committees, is advisory. Its recommendations are not binding or mandatory for the government. While the government is expected to take them seriously and report back on the action taken, it is not legally obligated to implement them.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. A crucial limitation on the committee’s power is that it cannot question the policy laid down by the Parliament. Its mandate is to examine the expenditure within the framework of the approved policy and suggest “economies” or improvements in efficiency and administration. It can suggest alternative policies for better implementation but cannot challenge the core policy objective itself.

Solution: D

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which one of the following statements most accurately distinguishes Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) from recognised State or National parties? (a) RUPPs are not permitted to receive political donations, whereas recognised parties are. (b) RUPPs do not get income tax exemptions, a privilege reserved only for recognised parties. (c) RUPPs do not have a reserved party symbol for elections, unlike recognised parties. (d) RUPPs are registered under a different act of Parliament than recognised parties. Correct Solution: C (a) is incorrect. RUPPs can receive political donations. (b) is incorrect. RUPPs enjoy income tax exemptions. (c) is correct. One of the most significant privileges of being a ‘recognised’ party (either State or National) is the allotment of a reserved party symbol for exclusive use by its candidates in elections. RUPPs do not get this privilege. Their candidates are allotted symbols from a list of ‘free symbols’ on a case-by-case basis for each election, just like independent candidates. This is a fundamental distinction. (d) is incorrect. All political parties, whether unrecognised or recognised, are registered under the same legal provision: Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Recognition is a status granted later by the ECI based on electoral performance, not a separate registration process under a different law. Incorrect Solution: C (a) is incorrect. RUPPs can receive political donations. (b) is incorrect. RUPPs enjoy income tax exemptions. (c) is correct. One of the most significant privileges of being a ‘recognised’ party (either State or National) is the allotment of a reserved party symbol for exclusive use by its candidates in elections. RUPPs do not get this privilege. Their candidates are allotted symbols from a list of ‘free symbols’ on a case-by-case basis for each election, just like independent candidates. This is a fundamental distinction. (d) is incorrect. All political parties, whether unrecognised or recognised, are registered under the same legal provision: Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Recognition is a status granted later by the ECI based on electoral performance, not a separate registration process under a different law.

#### 2. Question

Which one of the following statements most accurately distinguishes Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) from recognised State or National parties?

• (a) RUPPs are not permitted to receive political donations, whereas recognised parties are.

• (b) RUPPs do not get income tax exemptions, a privilege reserved only for recognised parties.

• (c) RUPPs do not have a reserved party symbol for elections, unlike recognised parties.

• (d) RUPPs are registered under a different act of Parliament than recognised parties.

Solution: C

• (a) is incorrect. RUPPs can receive political donations.

• (b) is incorrect. RUPPs enjoy income tax exemptions.

• (c) is correct. One of the most significant privileges of being a ‘recognised’ party (either State or National) is the allotment of a reserved party symbol for exclusive use by its candidates in elections. RUPPs do not get this privilege. Their candidates are allotted symbols from a list of ‘free symbols’ on a case-by-case basis for each election, just like independent candidates. This is a fundamental distinction.

• (d) is incorrect. All political parties, whether unrecognised or recognised, are registered under the same legal provision: Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Recognition is a status granted later by the ECI based on electoral performance, not a separate registration process under a different law.

Solution: C

• (a) is incorrect. RUPPs can receive political donations.

• (b) is incorrect. RUPPs enjoy income tax exemptions.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to the geological formation of the Western Ghats, consider the following statements: The Western Ghats are young fold mountains, formed concurrently with the Himalayas through orogenic processes. The characteristic step-like topography of the region is a direct result of massive basaltic lava flows from the Deccan Trap eruptions. The western edge of the Deccan Plateau fractured and subsided, forming a prominent escarpment that defines the Ghats. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Western Ghats are not young fold mountains like the Himalayas. They are part of the ancient Peninsular Shield, dating back to the Precambrian Era. Their formation is attributed to cratonic uplift and faulting, not the compressional forces of orogeny (mountain-building through folding) that created the Himalayas. The Ghats are a fault-block mountain system. Statement 2 is correct. The term ‘trap’ in Deccan Traps refers to the Swedish word for ‘stair-step’. The massive volcanic eruptions led to extensive basaltic lava flows that solidified in layers, creating the distinct step-like highland topography seen across western India, which is a defining feature of the Deccan Plateau’s western edge. Statement 3 is correct. The Western Ghats are essentially the uplifted, rugged edge of the Deccan Plateau. This escarpment was formed when the western part of the plateau broke away and subsided into the Arabian Sea following the northward drift of the Indian plate after it separated from Gondwanaland. This subsidence created the steep slope or escarpment. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Western Ghats are not young fold mountains like the Himalayas. They are part of the ancient Peninsular Shield, dating back to the Precambrian Era. Their formation is attributed to cratonic uplift and faulting, not the compressional forces of orogeny (mountain-building through folding) that created the Himalayas. The Ghats are a fault-block mountain system. Statement 2 is correct. The term ‘trap’ in Deccan Traps refers to the Swedish word for ‘stair-step’. The massive volcanic eruptions led to extensive basaltic lava flows that solidified in layers, creating the distinct step-like highland topography seen across western India, which is a defining feature of the Deccan Plateau’s western edge. Statement 3 is correct. The Western Ghats are essentially the uplifted, rugged edge of the Deccan Plateau. This escarpment was formed when the western part of the plateau broke away and subsided into the Arabian Sea following the northward drift of the Indian plate after it separated from Gondwanaland. This subsidence created the steep slope or escarpment.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the geological formation of the Western Ghats, consider the following statements:

• The Western Ghats are young fold mountains, formed concurrently with the Himalayas through orogenic processes.

• The characteristic step-like topography of the region is a direct result of massive basaltic lava flows from the Deccan Trap eruptions.

• The western edge of the Deccan Plateau fractured and subsided, forming a prominent escarpment that defines the Ghats.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Western Ghats are not young fold mountains like the Himalayas. They are part of the ancient Peninsular Shield, dating back to the Precambrian Era. Their formation is attributed to cratonic uplift and faulting, not the compressional forces of orogeny (mountain-building through folding) that created the Himalayas. The Ghats are a fault-block mountain system.

• Statement 2 is correct. The term ‘trap’ in Deccan Traps refers to the Swedish word for ‘stair-step’. The massive volcanic eruptions led to extensive basaltic lava flows that solidified in layers, creating the distinct step-like highland topography seen across western India, which is a defining feature of the Deccan Plateau’s western edge.

Statement 3 is correct. The Western Ghats are essentially the uplifted, rugged edge of the Deccan Plateau. This escarpment was formed when the western part of the plateau broke away and subsided into the Arabian Sea following the northward drift of the Indian plate after it separated from Gondwanaland. This subsidence created the steep slope or escarpment.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the formation and effects of tar balls: Tar balls are always found near the site of oil spills and cannot travel long distances. The environmental impact of tar balls is minimal because they quickly degrade once they reach shorelines. The size of tar balls can range from small pebbles to fist-sized clumps, depending on environmental conditions and exposure. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect because tar balls can travel significant distances from the site of oil spills, often being carried by ocean currents to shorelines far away. Statement 2 is incorrect because tar balls can persist in the environment for long periods and continue to pose environmental hazards, especially if they contain toxic substances like PAHs. Statement 3 is correct, as tar balls vary in size depending on environmental exposure and conditions, ranging from small pebbles to larger, fist-sized clumps. Their surface texture can also be smooth or rough based on environmental factors. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect because tar balls can travel significant distances from the site of oil spills, often being carried by ocean currents to shorelines far away. Statement 2 is incorrect because tar balls can persist in the environment for long periods and continue to pose environmental hazards, especially if they contain toxic substances like PAHs. Statement 3 is correct, as tar balls vary in size depending on environmental exposure and conditions, ranging from small pebbles to larger, fist-sized clumps. Their surface texture can also be smooth or rough based on environmental factors.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the formation and effects of tar balls:

• Tar balls are always found near the site of oil spills and cannot travel long distances.

• The environmental impact of tar balls is minimal because they quickly degrade once they reach shorelines.

• The size of tar balls can range from small pebbles to fist-sized clumps, depending on environmental conditions and exposure.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect because tar balls can travel significant distances from the site of oil spills, often being carried by ocean currents to shorelines far away.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because tar balls can persist in the environment for long periods and continue to pose environmental hazards, especially if they contain toxic substances like PAHs.

• Statement 3 is correct, as tar balls vary in size depending on environmental exposure and conditions, ranging from small pebbles to larger, fist-sized clumps. Their surface texture can also be smooth or rough based on environmental factors.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect because tar balls can travel significant distances from the site of oil spills, often being carried by ocean currents to shorelines far away.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because tar balls can persist in the environment for long periods and continue to pose environmental hazards, especially if they contain toxic substances like PAHs.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following correctly describes the process of appointing the Chief Justice of India (CJI)? a) The CJI is appointed solely by the President of India based on seniority. b) The Law Ministry appoints the CJI after consulting with the senior-most judges. c) The President of India appoints the CJI based on the recommendation of the outgoing CJI. d) The CJI is appointed by a collegium of senior judges in the Supreme Court. Correct Solution: C The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is appointed by the President of India under Article 124 of the Constitution. Typically, the outgoing CJI recommends the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court as their successor, following the principle of seniority and the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP). The Law Ministry processes the recommendation, and the President formalizes the appointment. While seniority is a crucial criterion, factors like merit and integrity are also considered, although deviations from the seniority norm are rare and would require strong justification. Incorrect Solution: C The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is appointed by the President of India under Article 124 of the Constitution. Typically, the outgoing CJI recommends the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court as their successor, following the principle of seniority and the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP). The Law Ministry processes the recommendation, and the President formalizes the appointment. While seniority is a crucial criterion, factors like merit and integrity are also considered, although deviations from the seniority norm are rare and would require strong justification.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following correctly describes the process of appointing the Chief Justice of India (CJI)?

• a) The CJI is appointed solely by the President of India based on seniority.

• b) The Law Ministry appoints the CJI after consulting with the senior-most judges.

• c) The President of India appoints the CJI based on the recommendation of the outgoing CJI.

• d) The CJI is appointed by a collegium of senior judges in the Supreme Court.

Solution: C

The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is appointed by the President of India under Article 124 of the Constitution. Typically, the outgoing CJI recommends the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court as their successor, following the principle of seniority and the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP).

The Law Ministry processes the recommendation, and the President formalizes the appointment. While seniority is a crucial criterion, factors like merit and integrity are also considered, although deviations from the seniority norm are rare and would require strong justification.

Solution: C

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime in India: It is a destination-based tax, which means the tax revenue accrues to the state where the consumption of the good or service occurs. The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016, provides the legal framework for the implementation of GST. Under the dual GST model, the tax is levied concurrently by the Centre and the States, but the rate for a specific good is solely determined by the GST Council without the need for legislative approval. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. GST is a destination-based tax, meaning the tax is levied at the point of consumption. This is a fundamental shift from the earlier origin-based taxation systems where tax was collected at the point of production. This principle ensures that the SGST component of the tax revenue goes to the state where the final consumer is located, not the state where the goods are manufactured. Statement 2 is correct. The introduction of GST required a constitutional amendment to grant concurrent powers to both the Union and State governments to levy this tax. The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016, was enacted for this purpose, inserting new articles like 246A, 269A, and 279A, and amending others to create a unified indirect tax system. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the GST Council, a constitutional body, recommends the tax rates, these rates are given effect through legislation passed by the Parliament (for CGST) and respective State Legislatures (for SGST). The Council’s recommendations are not automatically binding law; they form the basis for the CGST Act and SGST Acts, Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. GST is a destination-based tax, meaning the tax is levied at the point of consumption. This is a fundamental shift from the earlier origin-based taxation systems where tax was collected at the point of production. This principle ensures that the SGST component of the tax revenue goes to the state where the final consumer is located, not the state where the goods are manufactured. Statement 2 is correct. The introduction of GST required a constitutional amendment to grant concurrent powers to both the Union and State governments to levy this tax. The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016, was enacted for this purpose, inserting new articles like 246A, 269A, and 279A, and amending others to create a unified indirect tax system. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the GST Council, a constitutional body, recommends the tax rates, these rates are given effect through legislation passed by the Parliament (for CGST) and respective State Legislatures (for SGST). The Council’s recommendations are not automatically binding law; they form the basis for the CGST Act and SGST Acts,

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime in India:

• It is a destination-based tax, which means the tax revenue accrues to the state where the consumption of the good or service occurs.

• The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016, provides the legal framework for the implementation of GST.

• Under the dual GST model, the tax is levied concurrently by the Centre and the States, but the rate for a specific good is solely determined by the GST Council without the need for legislative approval.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. GST is a destination-based tax, meaning the tax is levied at the point of consumption. This is a fundamental shift from the earlier origin-based taxation systems where tax was collected at the point of production. This principle ensures that the SGST component of the tax revenue goes to the state where the final consumer is located, not the state where the goods are manufactured.

• Statement 2 is correct. The introduction of GST required a constitutional amendment to grant concurrent powers to both the Union and State governments to levy this tax. The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016, was enacted for this purpose, inserting new articles like 246A, 269A, and 279A, and amending others to create a unified indirect tax system.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While the GST Council, a constitutional body, recommends the tax rates, these rates are given effect through legislation passed by the Parliament (for CGST) and respective State Legislatures (for SGST). The Council’s recommendations are not automatically binding law; they form the basis for the CGST Act and SGST Acts,

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The formation of secondary pollutants like ammonium sulphate is a significant environmental concern in India. Statement-II: India has high emissions of primary pollutants such as sulphur dioxide (SO₂) from coal combustion and ammonia (NH₃) from agricultural activities. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Secondary pollutants are atmospheric pollutants that are not directly emitted from a source. They form when primary pollutants react in the atmosphere. Ammonium sulphate ((NH₄)₂SO₄) is a key component of particulate matter (PM2.5) and contributes significantly to haze and acid rain, posing risks to human health and ecosystems. Its presence is a notable environmental issue. Statement-II is correct. India’s energy and agricultural sectors are major sources of primary pollutants. The heavy reliance on coal for power generation leads to substantial emissions of sulphur dioxide (SO₂). Simultaneously, the extensive use of nitrogen-based fertilizers, particularly urea, in agriculture results in significant emissions of ammonia (NH₃). Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I because ammonium sulphate is formed in the atmosphere through the chemical reaction between the primary pollutants ammonia (NH₃) and sulphur dioxide (SO₂). Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Secondary pollutants are atmospheric pollutants that are not directly emitted from a source. They form when primary pollutants react in the atmosphere. Ammonium sulphate ((NH₄)₂SO₄) is a key component of particulate matter (PM2.5) and contributes significantly to haze and acid rain, posing risks to human health and ecosystems. Its presence is a notable environmental issue. Statement-II is correct. India’s energy and agricultural sectors are major sources of primary pollutants. The heavy reliance on coal for power generation leads to substantial emissions of sulphur dioxide (SO₂). Simultaneously, the extensive use of nitrogen-based fertilizers, particularly urea, in agriculture results in significant emissions of ammonia (NH₃). Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I because ammonium sulphate is formed in the atmosphere through the chemical reaction between the primary pollutants ammonia (NH₃) and sulphur dioxide (SO₂).

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The formation of secondary pollutants like ammonium sulphate is a significant environmental concern in India.

Statement-II: India has high emissions of primary pollutants such as sulphur dioxide (SO₂) from coal combustion and ammonia (NH₃) from agricultural activities.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. Secondary pollutants are atmospheric pollutants that are not directly emitted from a source. They form when primary pollutants react in the atmosphere. Ammonium sulphate ((NH₄)₂SO₄) is a key component of particulate matter (PM2.5) and contributes significantly to haze and acid rain, posing risks to human health and ecosystems. Its presence is a notable environmental issue.

• Statement-II is correct. India’s energy and agricultural sectors are major sources of primary pollutants. The heavy reliance on coal for power generation leads to substantial emissions of sulphur dioxide (SO₂). Simultaneously, the extensive use of nitrogen-based fertilizers, particularly urea, in agriculture results in significant emissions of ammonia (NH₃).

• Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I because ammonium sulphate is formed in the atmosphere through the chemical reaction between the primary pollutants ammonia (NH₃) and sulphur dioxide (SO₂).

Solution: A

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following statements best describes the legal status of a Geographical Indication (GI) tag in India? a) It is a private intellectual property right that can be sold or licensed by an individual producer to others for a royalty. b) It is a collective right, registered in the name of a community or an association of producers, and is not transferable. c) It is granted for a period of 20 years, after which it enters the public domain and can be used by anyone. d) It is granted by the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks to any product with a unique regional characteristic. Correct Solution: B A Geographical Indication (GI) in India is fundamentally a collective or public property. It is not granted to an individual or a single company. Instead, it is registered in the name of an association of persons, producers, organization, or any authority established by or under the law representing the interests of the producers of the concerned goods. This ensures that the benefits of the GI tag are shared by the entire community of producers from that specific geographical region. A key feature of a GI, distinguishing it from a trademark, is that it cannot be sold, transferred, licensed, pledged, or mortgaged. This prevents the commercial exploitation of a region’s collective heritage by a single entity. The registration is valid for 10 years and can be renewed indefinitely, not 20 years. While the office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks administers it, the registration is handled by the Geographical Indications Registry. Incorrect Solution: B A Geographical Indication (GI) in India is fundamentally a collective or public property. It is not granted to an individual or a single company. Instead, it is registered in the name of an association of persons, producers, organization, or any authority established by or under the law representing the interests of the producers of the concerned goods. This ensures that the benefits of the GI tag are shared by the entire community of producers from that specific geographical region. A key feature of a GI, distinguishing it from a trademark, is that it cannot be sold, transferred, licensed, pledged, or mortgaged. This prevents the commercial exploitation of a region’s collective heritage by a single entity. The registration is valid for 10 years and can be renewed indefinitely, not 20 years. While the office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks administers it, the registration is handled by the Geographical Indications Registry.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following statements best describes the legal status of a Geographical Indication (GI) tag in India?

• a) It is a private intellectual property right that can be sold or licensed by an individual producer to others for a royalty.

• b) It is a collective right, registered in the name of a community or an association of producers, and is not transferable.

• c) It is granted for a period of 20 years, after which it enters the public domain and can be used by anyone.

• d) It is granted by the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks to any product with a unique regional characteristic.

Solution: B

• A Geographical Indication (GI) in India is fundamentally a collective or public property. It is not granted to an individual or a single company. Instead, it is registered in the name of an association of persons, producers, organization, or any authority established by or under the law representing the interests of the producers of the concerned goods. This ensures that the benefits of the GI tag are shared by the entire community of producers from that specific geographical region.

• A key feature of a GI, distinguishing it from a trademark, is that it cannot be sold, transferred, licensed, pledged, or mortgaged. This prevents the commercial exploitation of a region’s collective heritage by a single entity.

• The registration is valid for 10 years and can be renewed indefinitely, not 20 years. While the office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks administers it, the registration is handled by the Geographical Indications Registry.

Solution: B

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points The formation of the Western Ghats is associated with which of the following geological events? Fracturing and subsidence of the western flank of the Deccan Plateau. Collision of the Indian Plate with the Eurasian Plate. Massive basaltic lava flows during the Deccan Trap volcanism. Glacial erosion during the Pleistocene epoch. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: A Event 1 is correct. A crucial event in the formation of the Ghats was the rifting and subsequent subsidence (sinking) of the landmass to the west of the present-day range as the Indian plate drifted northwards. This created the steep, fault-escarpment that characterizes the western face of the mountains. Event 2 is incorrect. The collision of the Indian Plate with the Eurasian Plate is the orogenic process responsible for the formation of the Himalayas, which are young fold mountains. The Western Ghats are much older and are structurally different, being fault-block mountains on the ancient Deccan Plateau. Event 3 is correct. The Deccan Trap volcanism laid down thick layers of basaltic lava across a vast area. The Western Ghats represent the eroded western edge of this lava plateau. This volcanism is responsible for the underlying rock composition and the “trap” or stair-step topography of the region. Event 4 is incorrect. Glacial erosion was a significant force in shaping landscapes at high altitudes and latitudes, but it was not a primary agent in the formation or shaping of the tropical, peninsular landscape of the Western Ghats. The primary erosional forces here have been fluvial (river-based) and monsoonal weathering over millions of years. Incorrect Solution: A Event 1 is correct. A crucial event in the formation of the Ghats was the rifting and subsequent subsidence (sinking) of the landmass to the west of the present-day range as the Indian plate drifted northwards. This created the steep, fault-escarpment that characterizes the western face of the mountains. Event 2 is incorrect. The collision of the Indian Plate with the Eurasian Plate is the orogenic process responsible for the formation of the Himalayas, which are young fold mountains. The Western Ghats are much older and are structurally different, being fault-block mountains on the ancient Deccan Plateau. Event 3 is correct. The Deccan Trap volcanism laid down thick layers of basaltic lava across a vast area. The Western Ghats represent the eroded western edge of this lava plateau. This volcanism is responsible for the underlying rock composition and the “trap” or stair-step topography of the region. Event 4 is incorrect. Glacial erosion was a significant force in shaping landscapes at high altitudes and latitudes, but it was not a primary agent in the formation or shaping of the tropical, peninsular landscape of the Western Ghats. The primary erosional forces here have been fluvial (river-based) and monsoonal weathering over millions of years.

#### 9. Question

The formation of the Western Ghats is associated with which of the following geological events?

• Fracturing and subsidence of the western flank of the Deccan Plateau.

• Collision of the Indian Plate with the Eurasian Plate.

• Massive basaltic lava flows during the Deccan Trap volcanism.

• Glacial erosion during the Pleistocene epoch.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: A

• Event 1 is correct. A crucial event in the formation of the Ghats was the rifting and subsequent subsidence (sinking) of the landmass to the west of the present-day range as the Indian plate drifted northwards. This created the steep, fault-escarpment that characterizes the western face of the mountains.

• Event 2 is incorrect. The collision of the Indian Plate with the Eurasian Plate is the orogenic process responsible for the formation of the Himalayas, which are young fold mountains. The Western Ghats are much older and are structurally different, being fault-block mountains on the ancient Deccan Plateau.

• Event 3 is correct. The Deccan Trap volcanism laid down thick layers of basaltic lava across a vast area. The Western Ghats represent the eroded western edge of this lava plateau. This volcanism is responsible for the underlying rock composition and the “trap” or stair-step topography of the region.

• Event 4 is incorrect. Glacial erosion was a significant force in shaping landscapes at high altitudes and latitudes, but it was not a primary agent in the formation or shaping of the tropical, peninsular landscape of the Western Ghats. The primary erosional forces here have been fluvial (river-based) and monsoonal weathering over millions of years.

Solution: A

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Predatory Pricing: It is a short-term strategy where a firm prices its products above the cost of production to maximize immediate profits. The primary objective is to eliminate or discipline competitors in the market. From a consumer’s perspective, this practice offers sustained long-term benefits through consistently low prices. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Predatory pricing involves setting prices below the actual cost of production, not above it. The aim is not immediate profit maximization but to incur short-term losses to achieve a long-term anti-competitive goal. Pricing above cost is a normal business practice for profitability. Statement 2 is correct. The core strategic purpose of predatory pricing is anti-competitive. A dominant firm leverages its financial strength to absorb losses from selling below cost, with the specific intention of driving less capitalized competitors out of the business, thereby reducing market competition. Statement 3 is incorrect. The benefits of predatory pricing for consumers are deceptive and purely short-term. While consumers enjoy artificially low prices during the predatory phase, they face significant harm in the long run. Once competitors are eliminated, the predatory firm, now a monopolist, is free to raise prices significantly, reduce product quality, and limit choices, leading to overall consumer welfare loss. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Predatory pricing involves setting prices below the actual cost of production, not above it. The aim is not immediate profit maximization but to incur short-term losses to achieve a long-term anti-competitive goal. Pricing above cost is a normal business practice for profitability. Statement 2 is correct. The core strategic purpose of predatory pricing is anti-competitive. A dominant firm leverages its financial strength to absorb losses from selling below cost, with the specific intention of driving less capitalized competitors out of the business, thereby reducing market competition. Statement 3 is incorrect. The benefits of predatory pricing for consumers are deceptive and purely short-term. While consumers enjoy artificially low prices during the predatory phase, they face significant harm in the long run. Once competitors are eliminated, the predatory firm, now a monopolist, is free to raise prices significantly, reduce product quality, and limit choices, leading to overall consumer welfare loss.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Predatory Pricing:

• It is a short-term strategy where a firm prices its products above the cost of production to maximize immediate profits.

• The primary objective is to eliminate or discipline competitors in the market.

• From a consumer’s perspective, this practice offers sustained long-term benefits through consistently low prices.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Predatory pricing involves setting prices below the actual cost of production, not above it. The aim is not immediate profit maximization but to incur short-term losses to achieve a long-term anti-competitive goal. Pricing above cost is a normal business practice for profitability.

• Statement 2 is correct. The core strategic purpose of predatory pricing is anti-competitive. A dominant firm leverages its financial strength to absorb losses from selling below cost, with the specific intention of driving less capitalized competitors out of the business, thereby reducing market competition.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The benefits of predatory pricing for consumers are deceptive and purely short-term. While consumers enjoy artificially low prices during the predatory phase, they face significant harm in the long run. Once competitors are eliminated, the predatory firm, now a monopolist, is free to raise prices significantly, reduce product quality, and limit choices, leading to overall consumer welfare loss.

Solution: A

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