UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 5 August 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 10 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 10 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Framework Agreement’ signed in 2015: It was signed between the Government of India and a united front of all Naga National Political Groups (NNPGs). The agreement definitively settled the issue of a separate Naga flag and constitution. It acknowledges the unique history of the Nagas and proposes a model of shared sovereignty. The agreement’s implementation has been stalled due to disagreements over the interpretation of ‘shared sovereignty’ and other core issues. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Framework Agreement was signed specifically between the Government of India and the National Socialist Council of Nagalim–Isak-Muivah (NSCN-IM), which is the largest and most prominent Naga group. It did not involve a united front of all NNPGs at the time of its signing; rival factions and other groups have had differing stances. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Framework Agreement is a preamble that lays down the principles for a final accord, but it did not definitively settle contentious issues like a separate Naga flag and constitution (Yehzabo). These remain major stumbling blocks in the final negotiations. Statement 3 is correct. A core tenet of the agreement is the recognition of the unique history and political identity of the Nagas. It moves beyond a simple law-and-order perspective to a political solution, proposing a framework of shared sovereignty where power would be divided between the Indian union and the Naga entity. Statement 4 is correct. The final peace accord has been delayed for years precisely because of differing interpretations of the Framework Agreement’s terms. The NSCN-IM’s insistence on a separate flag and constitution, derived from its understanding of shared sovereignty, has been a key point of contention with the Government of India, leading to a prolonged stalemate. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Framework Agreement was signed specifically between the Government of India and the National Socialist Council of Nagalim–Isak-Muivah (NSCN-IM), which is the largest and most prominent Naga group. It did not involve a united front of all NNPGs at the time of its signing; rival factions and other groups have had differing stances. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Framework Agreement is a preamble that lays down the principles for a final accord, but it did not definitively settle contentious issues like a separate Naga flag and constitution (Yehzabo). These remain major stumbling blocks in the final negotiations. Statement 3 is correct. A core tenet of the agreement is the recognition of the unique history and political identity of the Nagas. It moves beyond a simple law-and-order perspective to a political solution, proposing a framework of shared sovereignty where power would be divided between the Indian union and the Naga entity. Statement 4 is correct. The final peace accord has been delayed for years precisely because of differing interpretations of the Framework Agreement’s terms. The NSCN-IM’s insistence on a separate flag and constitution, derived from its understanding of shared sovereignty, has been a key point of contention with the Government of India, leading to a prolonged stalemate.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Framework Agreement’ signed in 2015:

• It was signed between the Government of India and a united front of all Naga National Political Groups (NNPGs).

• The agreement definitively settled the issue of a separate Naga flag and constitution.

• It acknowledges the unique history of the Nagas and proposes a model of shared sovereignty.

• The agreement’s implementation has been stalled due to disagreements over the interpretation of ‘shared sovereignty’ and other core issues.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Framework Agreement was signed specifically between the Government of India and the National Socialist Council of Nagalim–Isak-Muivah (NSCN-IM), which is the largest and most prominent Naga group. It did not involve a united front of all NNPGs at the time of its signing; rival factions and other groups have had differing stances.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Framework Agreement is a preamble that lays down the principles for a final accord, but it did not definitively settle contentious issues like a separate Naga flag and constitution (Yehzabo). These remain major stumbling blocks in the final negotiations.

• Statement 3 is correct. A core tenet of the agreement is the recognition of the unique history and political identity of the Nagas. It moves beyond a simple law-and-order perspective to a political solution, proposing a framework of shared sovereignty where power would be divided between the Indian union and the Naga entity.

• Statement 4 is correct. The final peace accord has been delayed for years precisely because of differing interpretations of the Framework Agreement’s terms. The NSCN-IM’s insistence on a separate flag and constitution, derived from its understanding of shared sovereignty, has been a key point of contention with the Government of India, leading to a prolonged stalemate.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With respect to the FSSAI’s initiative on ‘Ayurveda Aahara’, which of the following statements is incorrect? a) The regulations for Ayurveda Aahara were formulated exclusively by the Ministry of Ayush. b) The initiative provides a definitive list of products based on recipes from classical Ayurvedic texts. c) It aims to bridge traditional food wisdom with modern food safety standards. d) Food Business Operators can request the inclusion of new products if they provide valid scriptural references. Correct Solution: A Statement (a) is incorrect. The Food Safety and Standards (Ayurveda Aahara) Regulations, 2022, and the subsequent definitive list were a collaborative effort. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, worked in conjunction with the Ministry of Ayush. This partnership ensures that the products meet both traditional Ayurvedic principles and modern food safety and manufacturing benchmarks. Statement (b) is correct. A key feature of this initiative is its authenticity, which is ensured by validating all formulations against classical Ayurvedic texts listed in Schedule A of the regulations. This provides a credible and standardized reference for manufacturers and consumers. Statement (c) is correct. The overarching goal is to mainstream traditional knowledge by aligning it with contemporary regulatory frameworks. This enhances public trust and credibility, allowing ancient dietary practices to be integrated into modern lifestyles under a system of quality control. Statement (d) is correct. The framework includes a structured mechanism for expansion. Food Business Operators (FBOs) are permitted to apply for the inclusion of new Ayurveda Aahara products, provided they can furnish authentic evidence and references from the prescribed classical Ayurvedic scriptures, which would then be validated. Incorrect Solution: A Statement (a) is incorrect. The Food Safety and Standards (Ayurveda Aahara) Regulations, 2022, and the subsequent definitive list were a collaborative effort. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, worked in conjunction with the Ministry of Ayush. This partnership ensures that the products meet both traditional Ayurvedic principles and modern food safety and manufacturing benchmarks. Statement (b) is correct. A key feature of this initiative is its authenticity, which is ensured by validating all formulations against classical Ayurvedic texts listed in Schedule A of the regulations. This provides a credible and standardized reference for manufacturers and consumers. Statement (c) is correct. The overarching goal is to mainstream traditional knowledge by aligning it with contemporary regulatory frameworks. This enhances public trust and credibility, allowing ancient dietary practices to be integrated into modern lifestyles under a system of quality control. Statement (d) is correct. The framework includes a structured mechanism for expansion. Food Business Operators (FBOs) are permitted to apply for the inclusion of new Ayurveda Aahara products, provided they can furnish authentic evidence and references from the prescribed classical Ayurvedic scriptures, which would then be validated.

#### 2. Question

With respect to the FSSAI’s initiative on ‘Ayurveda Aahara’, which of the following statements is incorrect?

• a) The regulations for Ayurveda Aahara were formulated exclusively by the Ministry of Ayush.

• b) The initiative provides a definitive list of products based on recipes from classical Ayurvedic texts.

• c) It aims to bridge traditional food wisdom with modern food safety standards.

• d) Food Business Operators can request the inclusion of new products if they provide valid scriptural references.

Solution: A

• Statement (a) is incorrect. The Food Safety and Standards (Ayurveda Aahara) Regulations, 2022, and the subsequent definitive list were a collaborative effort. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, worked in conjunction with the Ministry of Ayush. This partnership ensures that the products meet both traditional Ayurvedic principles and modern food safety and manufacturing benchmarks.

• Statement (b) is correct. A key feature of this initiative is its authenticity, which is ensured by validating all formulations against classical Ayurvedic texts listed in Schedule A of the regulations. This provides a credible and standardized reference for manufacturers and consumers.

• Statement (c) is correct. The overarching goal is to mainstream traditional knowledge by aligning it with contemporary regulatory frameworks. This enhances public trust and credibility, allowing ancient dietary practices to be integrated into modern lifestyles under a system of quality control.

• Statement (d) is correct. The framework includes a structured mechanism for expansion. Food Business Operators (FBOs) are permitted to apply for the inclusion of new Ayurveda Aahara products, provided they can furnish authentic evidence and references from the prescribed classical Ayurvedic scriptures, which would then be validated.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about India’s first 5G Captive Non-Public Network (CNPN): It is being deployed in the telecom manufacturing sector to test new equipment. The network infrastructure relies entirely on imported components from global 5G leaders. A key feature of this network is its operation in isolation from public networks, ensuring enhanced security. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The CNPN is being deployed in the refinery sector, specifically at Numaligarh Refinery Limited (NRL) in Assam. The objective is to digitalize industrial operations under the Industry 4.0 framework, not to test telecom equipment. Statement 2 is incorrect. The project emphasizes self-reliance and security by using a fully India-built (indigenous) 5G infrastructure. This aligns with the ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ mission and is a key feature highlighted in the announcement, aimed at creating a secure, trusted network for critical infrastructure. Statement 3 is correct. A Captive Non-Public Network is, by definition, a private, dedicated network for a single enterprise. It operates in isolation from public 5G networks. This separation is crucial for mission-critical industrial applications as it prevents interference and provides a highly secure environment for sensitive operational data, which is a primary requirement for sectors like oil and gas. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The CNPN is being deployed in the refinery sector, specifically at Numaligarh Refinery Limited (NRL) in Assam. The objective is to digitalize industrial operations under the Industry 4.0 framework, not to test telecom equipment. Statement 2 is incorrect. The project emphasizes self-reliance and security by using a fully India-built (indigenous) 5G infrastructure. This aligns with the ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ mission and is a key feature highlighted in the announcement, aimed at creating a secure, trusted network for critical infrastructure. Statement 3 is correct. A Captive Non-Public Network is, by definition, a private, dedicated network for a single enterprise. It operates in isolation from public 5G networks. This separation is crucial for mission-critical industrial applications as it prevents interference and provides a highly secure environment for sensitive operational data, which is a primary requirement for sectors like oil and gas.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about India’s first 5G Captive Non-Public Network (CNPN):

• It is being deployed in the telecom manufacturing sector to test new equipment.

• The network infrastructure relies entirely on imported components from global 5G leaders.

• A key feature of this network is its operation in isolation from public networks, ensuring enhanced security.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The CNPN is being deployed in the refinery sector, specifically at Numaligarh Refinery Limited (NRL) in Assam. The objective is to digitalize industrial operations under the Industry 4.0 framework, not to test telecom equipment.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The project emphasizes self-reliance and security by using a fully India-built (indigenous) 5G infrastructure. This aligns with the ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ mission and is a key feature highlighted in the announcement, aimed at creating a secure, trusted network for critical infrastructure.

Statement 3 is correct. A Captive Non-Public Network is, by definition, a private, dedicated network for a single enterprise. It operates in isolation from public 5G networks. This separation is crucial for mission-critical industrial applications as it prevents interference and provides a highly secure environment for sensitive operational data, which is a primary requirement for sectors like oil and gas.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Regarding the Airbus C-295 aircraft deal, consider the following statements: Statement I: The induction of the C-295 aircraft is a significant step towards the modernization of the Indian Air Force’s tactical airlift capabilities. Statement II: The entire fleet of C-295 aircraft will be manufactured in Spain and delivered to India, ensuring rapid replacement of the ageing Avro fleet. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct. The Airbus C-295 is a modern, medium tactical transport aircraft designed to replace the Indian Air Force’s (IAF) old HS-748 Avro fleet. Its features, such as the ability to operate from short and unprepared runways, multi-role capability (troop transport, medical evacuation, surveillance), and long endurance, directly enhance the IAF’s tactical airlift capabilities, which are crucial for operations in forward areas like Ladakh and the North East. Statement-II is incorrect. The deal for 56 aircraft involves a significant ‘Make in India’ component. While the first 16 aircraft are being delivered from Airbus’s facility in Spain, the remaining 40 aircraft will be manufactured in India by Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) in Vadodara. This is a landmark project, being the first time a private Indian company will manufacture a military aircraft in the country, and it involves substantial technology transfer. Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct. The Airbus C-295 is a modern, medium tactical transport aircraft designed to replace the Indian Air Force’s (IAF) old HS-748 Avro fleet. Its features, such as the ability to operate from short and unprepared runways, multi-role capability (troop transport, medical evacuation, surveillance), and long endurance, directly enhance the IAF’s tactical airlift capabilities, which are crucial for operations in forward areas like Ladakh and the North East. Statement-II is incorrect. The deal for 56 aircraft involves a significant ‘Make in India’ component. While the first 16 aircraft are being delivered from Airbus’s facility in Spain, the remaining 40 aircraft will be manufactured in India by Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) in Vadodara. This is a landmark project, being the first time a private Indian company will manufacture a military aircraft in the country, and it involves substantial technology transfer.

#### 4. Question

Regarding the Airbus C-295 aircraft deal, consider the following statements:

Statement I: The induction of the C-295 aircraft is a significant step towards the modernization of the Indian Air Force’s tactical airlift capabilities.

Statement II: The entire fleet of C-295 aircraft will be manufactured in Spain and delivered to India, ensuring rapid replacement of the ageing Avro fleet.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement-I is correct. The Airbus C-295 is a modern, medium tactical transport aircraft designed to replace the Indian Air Force’s (IAF) old HS-748 Avro fleet. Its features, such as the ability to operate from short and unprepared runways, multi-role capability (troop transport, medical evacuation, surveillance), and long endurance, directly enhance the IAF’s tactical airlift capabilities, which are crucial for operations in forward areas like Ladakh and the North East.

Statement-II is incorrect. The deal for 56 aircraft involves a significant ‘Make in India’ component. While the first 16 aircraft are being delivered from Airbus’s facility in Spain, the remaining 40 aircraft will be manufactured in India by Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) in Vadodara. This is a landmark project, being the first time a private Indian company will manufacture a military aircraft in the country, and it involves substantial technology transfer.

Solution: C

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points With reference to the Mahanadi River, consider the following statements: It originates in the Eastern Ghats in Odisha and flows westward into the Arabian Sea. The Hirakud Dam, located in Chhattisgarh, is the primary source of the water-sharing dispute with Odisha. The river forms a large delta, which it shares with the Brahmani river system. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Mahanadi River originates in the Nagri Sihawa hills of the Dandakaranya range in the Dhamtari district of Chhattisgarh, not the Eastern Ghats of Odisha. It is an east-flowing river that drains into the Bay of Bengal, not the Arabian Sea. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Hirakud Dam, one of the world’s longest earthen dams, is located in Odisha, not Chhattisgarh. While the dam’s water level is a central point of the dispute, the conflict primarily arises from Odisha’s objection to the numerous barrages and industrial projects constructed upstream by Chhattisgarh, which Odisha claims reduces the water flow into the Hirakud reservoir and downstream areas. Statement 3 is correct. The Mahanadi River forms one of India’s most extensive and fertile deltas in its lower course in Odisha. This deltaic system is shared with the Brahmani River, and together they create a vast, agriculturally rich region that is also ecologically significant before emptying into the Bay of Bengal near Paradip. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Mahanadi River originates in the Nagri Sihawa hills of the Dandakaranya range in the Dhamtari district of Chhattisgarh, not the Eastern Ghats of Odisha. It is an east-flowing river that drains into the Bay of Bengal, not the Arabian Sea. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Hirakud Dam, one of the world’s longest earthen dams, is located in Odisha, not Chhattisgarh. While the dam’s water level is a central point of the dispute, the conflict primarily arises from Odisha’s objection to the numerous barrages and industrial projects constructed upstream by Chhattisgarh, which Odisha claims reduces the water flow into the Hirakud reservoir and downstream areas. Statement 3 is correct. The Mahanadi River forms one of India’s most extensive and fertile deltas in its lower course in Odisha. This deltaic system is shared with the Brahmani River, and together they create a vast, agriculturally rich region that is also ecologically significant before emptying into the Bay of Bengal near Paradip.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the Mahanadi River, consider the following statements:

• It originates in the Eastern Ghats in Odisha and flows westward into the Arabian Sea.

• The Hirakud Dam, located in Chhattisgarh, is the primary source of the water-sharing dispute with Odisha.

• The river forms a large delta, which it shares with the Brahmani river system.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Mahanadi River originates in the Nagri Sihawa hills of the Dandakaranya range in the Dhamtari district of Chhattisgarh, not the Eastern Ghats of Odisha. It is an east-flowing river that drains into the Bay of Bengal, not the Arabian Sea.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Hirakud Dam, one of the world’s longest earthen dams, is located in Odisha, not Chhattisgarh. While the dam’s water level is a central point of the dispute, the conflict primarily arises from Odisha’s objection to the numerous barrages and industrial projects constructed upstream by Chhattisgarh, which Odisha claims reduces the water flow into the Hirakud reservoir and downstream areas.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Mahanadi River forms one of India’s most extensive and fertile deltas in its lower course in Odisha. This deltaic system is shared with the Brahmani River, and together they create a vast, agriculturally rich region that is also ecologically significant before emptying into the Bay of Bengal near Paradip.

Solution: A

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the nature of Dacite? a) An intrusive igneous rock with low silica content, typically found in mid-ocean ridges. b) A sedimentary rock formed from the cementation of volcanic ash and other fine-grained debris. c) A metamorphic rock formed under high pressure, primarily composed of quartz and mica. d) An extrusive igneous rock with high silica content, commonly associated with explosive eruptions in subduction zones. Correct Solution: D Dacite is an extrusive igneous (volcanic) rock, meaning it forms from the rapid cooling of lava on or near the Earth’s surface. Its key characteristic is a high silica content (typically 63-69%), which makes the lava very viscous. This viscosity prevents gases from escaping easily, leading to a buildup of pressure that often results in explosive eruptions. Dacite is commonly found in volcanic arcs located at subduction zones, where an oceanic plate sinks beneath a continental plate. This process melts the crust and generates the silica-rich magma that forms dacite. Incorrect Solution: D Dacite is an extrusive igneous (volcanic) rock, meaning it forms from the rapid cooling of lava on or near the Earth’s surface. Its key characteristic is a high silica content (typically 63-69%), which makes the lava very viscous. This viscosity prevents gases from escaping easily, leading to a buildup of pressure that often results in explosive eruptions. Dacite is commonly found in volcanic arcs located at subduction zones, where an oceanic plate sinks beneath a continental plate. This process melts the crust and generates the silica-rich magma that forms dacite.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following best describes the nature of Dacite?

• a) An intrusive igneous rock with low silica content, typically found in mid-ocean ridges.

• b) A sedimentary rock formed from the cementation of volcanic ash and other fine-grained debris.

• c) A metamorphic rock formed under high pressure, primarily composed of quartz and mica.

• d) An extrusive igneous rock with high silica content, commonly associated with explosive eruptions in subduction zones.

Solution: D

• Dacite is an extrusive igneous (volcanic) rock, meaning it forms from the rapid cooling of lava on or near the Earth’s surface. Its key characteristic is a high silica content (typically 63-69%), which makes the lava very viscous.

• This viscosity prevents gases from escaping easily, leading to a buildup of pressure that often results in explosive eruptions. Dacite is commonly found in volcanic arcs located at subduction zones, where an oceanic plate sinks beneath a continental plate.

This process melts the crust and generates the silica-rich magma that forms dacite.

Solution: D

This process melts the crust and generates the silica-rich magma that forms dacite.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements related to the regulations for ‘Ayurveda Aahara’: The regulations permit the fortification of Ayurveda Aahara products with synthetic vitamins and minerals to enhance their nutritional value. All food products, including staple items like rice and flour, are covered under these regulations by default. Manufacturers are prohibited from making claims that their Ayurveda Aahara products can treat or cure any human disease. The National Institute of Ayurveda (NIA) is the designated nodal agency for validating the formulations. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Food Safety and Standards (Ayurveda Aahara) Regulations, 2022, explicitly prohibit the addition of synthetic vitamins, minerals, and amino acids to these products. The nutritional value must come from the natural ingredients as prescribed in the classical texts. A declaration on the natural presence of vitamins and minerals is required. Statement 2 is incorrect. The regulations do not cover staple food items like pulses, rice, flour, and vegetables in their regular form. Such items only fall under the Ayurveda Aahara category if they are prepared and formulated according to the specific recipes and processes mentioned in the Ayurvedic texts and meet all other requirements of these regulations. Statement 3 is correct. A key regulatory control is the prohibition of medicinal claims. Labels and advertisements for Ayurveda Aahara products cannot claim to treat, mitigate, or cure any human disease. Any health benefit claims must be substantiated by evidence from Ayurvedic texts, and claims of disease risk reduction require prior approval from FSSAI. Statement 4 is correct. The National Institute of Ayurveda (NIA), an autonomous body under the Ministry of Ayush, serves as the nodal agency. Its role is to curate and validate the formulations from classical texts to ensure they maintain both scientific rigor and traditional fidelity, providing an authoritative basis for the definitive list. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Food Safety and Standards (Ayurveda Aahara) Regulations, 2022, explicitly prohibit the addition of synthetic vitamins, minerals, and amino acids to these products. The nutritional value must come from the natural ingredients as prescribed in the classical texts. A declaration on the natural presence of vitamins and minerals is required. Statement 2 is incorrect. The regulations do not cover staple food items like pulses, rice, flour, and vegetables in their regular form. Such items only fall under the Ayurveda Aahara category if they are prepared and formulated according to the specific recipes and processes mentioned in the Ayurvedic texts and meet all other requirements of these regulations. Statement 3 is correct. A key regulatory control is the prohibition of medicinal claims. Labels and advertisements for Ayurveda Aahara products cannot claim to treat, mitigate, or cure any human disease. Any health benefit claims must be substantiated by evidence from Ayurvedic texts, and claims of disease risk reduction require prior approval from FSSAI. Statement 4 is correct. The National Institute of Ayurveda (NIA), an autonomous body under the Ministry of Ayush, serves as the nodal agency. Its role is to curate and validate the formulations from classical texts to ensure they maintain both scientific rigor and traditional fidelity, providing an authoritative basis for the definitive list.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements related to the regulations for ‘Ayurveda Aahara’:

• The regulations permit the fortification of Ayurveda Aahara products with synthetic vitamins and minerals to enhance their nutritional value.

• All food products, including staple items like rice and flour, are covered under these regulations by default.

• Manufacturers are prohibited from making claims that their Ayurveda Aahara products can treat or cure any human disease.

• The National Institute of Ayurveda (NIA) is the designated nodal agency for validating the formulations.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Food Safety and Standards (Ayurveda Aahara) Regulations, 2022, explicitly prohibit the addition of synthetic vitamins, minerals, and amino acids to these products. The nutritional value must come from the natural ingredients as prescribed in the classical texts. A declaration on the natural presence of vitamins and minerals is required.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The regulations do not cover staple food items like pulses, rice, flour, and vegetables in their regular form. Such items only fall under the Ayurveda Aahara category if they are prepared and formulated according to the specific recipes and processes mentioned in the Ayurvedic texts and meet all other requirements of these regulations.

• Statement 3 is correct. A key regulatory control is the prohibition of medicinal claims. Labels and advertisements for Ayurveda Aahara products cannot claim to treat, mitigate, or cure any human disease. Any health benefit claims must be substantiated by evidence from Ayurvedic texts, and claims of disease risk reduction require prior approval from FSSAI.

Statement 4 is correct. The National Institute of Ayurveda (NIA), an autonomous body under the Ministry of Ayush, serves as the nodal agency. Its role is to curate and validate the formulations from classical texts to ensure they maintain both scientific rigor and traditional fidelity, providing an authoritative basis for the definitive list.

Solution: B

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Captive Non-Public Networks (CNPNs): A CNPN is a shared public network infrastructure that enterprises can lease for private use. The only primary advantage of a CNPN is its ability to provide ultra-low latency, which is critical for real-time industrial automation. Network slicing, a feature of public 5G, is not applicable to CNPNs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. A Captive Non-Public Network (CNPN) is a dedicated, standalone private network deployed for the exclusive use of a single enterprise. It is not part of a shared public network infrastructure. Its key characteristic is its isolation from public networks to ensure security, reliability, and customized performance. Statement 2 is incorrect. While providing ultra-low latency is a key capability of 5G technology, which is used to build CNPNs, it is not its only primary advantage. Other critical advantages include high throughput (for handling massive IoT data), enhanced privacy and security (as data remains within the enterprise), and the ability to have a customized architecture tailored to specific industrial needs. Statement 3 is incorrect. Network slicing is highly applicable and a significant feature for CNPNs. This technology allows a single physical network to be partitioned into multiple virtual networks. Within a CNPN, an enterprise can use network slicing to create separate, dedicated virtual networks for different operations—for instance, one slice for critical safety systems requiring ultra-high reliability, another for high-bandwidth video surveillance, and a third for general logistics communication. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. A Captive Non-Public Network (CNPN) is a dedicated, standalone private network deployed for the exclusive use of a single enterprise. It is not part of a shared public network infrastructure. Its key characteristic is its isolation from public networks to ensure security, reliability, and customized performance. Statement 2 is incorrect. While providing ultra-low latency is a key capability of 5G technology, which is used to build CNPNs, it is not its only primary advantage. Other critical advantages include high throughput (for handling massive IoT data), enhanced privacy and security (as data remains within the enterprise), and the ability to have a customized architecture tailored to specific industrial needs. Statement 3 is incorrect. Network slicing is highly applicable and a significant feature for CNPNs. This technology allows a single physical network to be partitioned into multiple virtual networks. Within a CNPN, an enterprise can use network slicing to create separate, dedicated virtual networks for different operations—for instance, one slice for critical safety systems requiring ultra-high reliability, another for high-bandwidth video surveillance, and a third for general logistics communication.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Captive Non-Public Networks (CNPNs):

• A CNPN is a shared public network infrastructure that enterprises can lease for private use.

• The only primary advantage of a CNPN is its ability to provide ultra-low latency, which is critical for real-time industrial automation.

• Network slicing, a feature of public 5G, is not applicable to CNPNs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• b) 1 and 3 only

• c) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. A Captive Non-Public Network (CNPN) is a dedicated, standalone private network deployed for the exclusive use of a single enterprise. It is not part of a shared public network infrastructure. Its key characteristic is its isolation from public networks to ensure security, reliability, and customized performance.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While providing ultra-low latency is a key capability of 5G technology, which is used to build CNPNs, it is not its only primary advantage. Other critical advantages include high throughput (for handling massive IoT data), enhanced privacy and security (as data remains within the enterprise), and the ability to have a customized architecture tailored to specific industrial needs.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Network slicing is highly applicable and a significant feature for CNPNs. This technology allows a single physical network to be partitioned into multiple virtual networks. Within a CNPN, an enterprise can use network slicing to create separate, dedicated virtual networks for different operations—for instance, one slice for critical safety systems requiring ultra-high reliability, another for high-bandwidth video surveillance, and a third for general logistics communication.

Solution: D

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Apna Ghar’ initiative and the Pradhan Mantri National Dialysis Programme (PMNDP): Both initiatives are implemented by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Both initiatives primarily target the welfare of vulnerable sections of the population. Both initiatives extensively leverage a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model for implementation. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The PMNDP is under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, but the ‘Apna Ghar’ initiative is launched by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Statement 2 is correct. Both schemes target vulnerable groups. The PMNDP focuses on economically vulnerable patients (especially BPL families) with end-stage renal disease. The ‘Apna Ghar’ initiative aims to improve the living and working conditions for truck drivers, who are crucial to the logistics sector and often belong to the informal economy. Statement 3 is correct. Both schemes utilize the PPP model. The PMNDP is implemented via PPP, in-house, and hybrid models. The ‘Apna Ghar’ initiative is described as having “Public-Private Implementation” as it is built and managed by Oil Marketing Companies at their retail stations, which often involves private dealers. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The PMNDP is under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, but the ‘Apna Ghar’ initiative is launched by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Statement 2 is correct. Both schemes target vulnerable groups. The PMNDP focuses on economically vulnerable patients (especially BPL families) with end-stage renal disease. The ‘Apna Ghar’ initiative aims to improve the living and working conditions for truck drivers, who are crucial to the logistics sector and often belong to the informal economy. Statement 3 is correct. Both schemes utilize the PPP model. The PMNDP is implemented via PPP, in-house, and hybrid models. The ‘Apna Ghar’ initiative is described as having “Public-Private Implementation” as it is built and managed by Oil Marketing Companies at their retail stations, which often involves private dealers.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Apna Ghar’ initiative and the Pradhan Mantri National Dialysis Programme (PMNDP):

• Both initiatives are implemented by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

• Both initiatives primarily target the welfare of vulnerable sections of the population.

• Both initiatives extensively leverage a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model for implementation.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The PMNDP is under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, but the ‘Apna Ghar’ initiative is launched by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.

• Statement 2 is correct. Both schemes target vulnerable groups. The PMNDP focuses on economically vulnerable patients (especially BPL families) with end-stage renal disease. The ‘Apna Ghar’ initiative aims to improve the living and working conditions for truck drivers, who are crucial to the logistics sector and often belong to the informal economy.

Statement 3 is correct. Both schemes utilize the PPP model. The PMNDP is implemented via PPP, in-house, and hybrid models. The ‘Apna Ghar’ initiative is described as having “Public-Private Implementation” as it is built and managed by Oil Marketing Companies at their retail stations, which often involves private dealers.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding mangrove distribution in India: The Sundarbans in West Bengal host the largest single block of mangrove forests in the country. Mangrove cover is also found in the intertidal zones of the Godavari and Mahanadi deltas. The state of Gujarat has a significant area of mangroves, particularly in the Gulf of Kutch. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The Sundarbans, a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in the delta of the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers in the Bay of Bengal, represents the largest contiguous block of mangrove forest in the world, a significant portion of which lies in West Bengal, India. Statement 2 is correct. The east coast of India features significant mangrove ecosystems in its river deltas. The deltas of the Mahanadi River in Odisha and the Godavari-Krishna rivers in Andhra Pradesh are known for their rich mangrove biodiversity. Statement 3 is correct. After West Bengal, the state of Gujarat has the second-highest mangrove cover in India. These mangroves are predominantly found along the Gulf of Kutch and the Gulf of Khambhat, adapted to the arid climate and high salinity conditions of the region. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The Sundarbans, a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in the delta of the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers in the Bay of Bengal, represents the largest contiguous block of mangrove forest in the world, a significant portion of which lies in West Bengal, India. Statement 2 is correct. The east coast of India features significant mangrove ecosystems in its river deltas. The deltas of the Mahanadi River in Odisha and the Godavari-Krishna rivers in Andhra Pradesh are known for their rich mangrove biodiversity. Statement 3 is correct. After West Bengal, the state of Gujarat has the second-highest mangrove cover in India. These mangroves are predominantly found along the Gulf of Kutch and the Gulf of Khambhat, adapted to the arid climate and high salinity conditions of the region.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding mangrove distribution in India:

• The Sundarbans in West Bengal host the largest single block of mangrove forests in the country.

• Mangrove cover is also found in the intertidal zones of the Godavari and Mahanadi deltas.

• The state of Gujarat has a significant area of mangroves, particularly in the Gulf of Kutch.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. The Sundarbans, a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in the delta of the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers in the Bay of Bengal, represents the largest contiguous block of mangrove forest in the world, a significant portion of which lies in West Bengal, India.

• Statement 2 is correct. The east coast of India features significant mangrove ecosystems in its river deltas. The deltas of the Mahanadi River in Odisha and the Godavari-Krishna rivers in Andhra Pradesh are known for their rich mangrove biodiversity.

Statement 3 is correct. After West Bengal, the state of Gujarat has the second-highest mangrove cover in India. These mangroves are predominantly found along the Gulf of Kutch and the Gulf of Khambhat, adapted to the arid climate and high salinity conditions of the region.

Solution: C

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates for

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE