UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 5 August 2024

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding mRNA Technology Transfer Programme. The mRNA Technology Transfer Programme aims to enhance vaccine production capacity in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs). The Programme has developed a platform for COVID-19 vaccine candidates, which is now being adapted for other diseases. It is the initiative of World Bank. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 3 is incorrect. A new initiative to develop and distribute mRNA vaccines for human avian influenza (H5N1) in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs), in collaboration with the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Medicines Patent Pool (MPP). The project is part of the mRNA Technology Transfer Programme, established in 2021 to enhance vaccine production capacity in LMICs. Once successful, the knowledge and materials will be shared with other manufacturers to expedite vaccine development and strengthen pandemic preparedness. The initiative aligns with ongoing efforts to improve the sharing of influenza viruses and vaccine access under the Pandemic Influenza Preparedness Framework. The mRNA Technology Transfer Programme has already developed a platform for COVID-19 vaccine candidates, which is now being adapted for other diseases, enhancing global vaccine equity. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 3 is incorrect. A new initiative to develop and distribute mRNA vaccines for human avian influenza (H5N1) in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs), in collaboration with the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Medicines Patent Pool (MPP). The project is part of the mRNA Technology Transfer Programme, established in 2021 to enhance vaccine production capacity in LMICs. Once successful, the knowledge and materials will be shared with other manufacturers to expedite vaccine development and strengthen pandemic preparedness. The initiative aligns with ongoing efforts to improve the sharing of influenza viruses and vaccine access under the Pandemic Influenza Preparedness Framework. The mRNA Technology Transfer Programme has already developed a platform for COVID-19 vaccine candidates, which is now being adapted for other diseases, enhancing global vaccine equity.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding mRNA Technology Transfer Programme.

• The mRNA Technology Transfer Programme aims to enhance vaccine production capacity in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs).

• The Programme has developed a platform for COVID-19 vaccine candidates, which is now being adapted for other diseases.

• It is the initiative of World Bank.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

A new initiative to develop and distribute mRNA vaccines for human avian influenza (H5N1) in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs), in collaboration with the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Medicines Patent Pool (MPP).

• The project is part of the mRNA Technology Transfer Programme, established in 2021 to enhance vaccine production capacity in LMICs.

• Once successful, the knowledge and materials will be shared with other manufacturers to expedite vaccine development and strengthen pandemic preparedness.

• The initiative aligns with ongoing efforts to improve the sharing of influenza viruses and vaccine access under the Pandemic Influenza Preparedness Framework.

The mRNA Technology Transfer Programme has already developed a platform for COVID-19 vaccine candidates, which is now being adapted for other diseases, enhancing global vaccine equity.

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

• The project is part of the mRNA Technology Transfer Programme, established in 2021 to enhance vaccine production capacity in LMICs.

• Once successful, the knowledge and materials will be shared with other manufacturers to expedite vaccine development and strengthen pandemic preparedness.

• The initiative aligns with ongoing efforts to improve the sharing of influenza viruses and vaccine access under the Pandemic Influenza Preparedness Framework.

The mRNA Technology Transfer Programme has already developed a platform for COVID-19 vaccine candidates, which is now being adapted for other diseases, enhancing global vaccine equity.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Krishna Raja Sagar (KRS) dam, sometimes in news is located in which state? a) Tamil Nadu b) Andhra Pradesh c) Telangana d) Karnataka Correct Solution: d) Karnataka has begun releasing Cauvery water to Tamil Nadu from the Krishna Raja Sagar (KRS) dam and Kabini reservoir, following a directive from the Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA). Krishnaraja Sagar (KRS) Dam: Type: Gravity dam on the river Kaveri and tributaries Hemavathi and Lakshmana Theertha in Mandya, Karnataka. Construction: Named after Maharaja Krishna Raja Wadiyar IV, built between 1911 and 1931, designed by Sir M. Visvesvaraya. Objectives: Irrigation, hydroelectric power, drought mitigation. Features: 2,621 meters long, 40 meters high, with 177 arch-type iron sluices, some automatic. Constructed with stone masonry and surki mortar. Reservoir: Covers 130 sq. km, Brindavan Gardens attached. Usage: Main source of irrigation for Mysore and Mandya, drinking water for Mysore and Bangalore, and power for the Shivanasamudra station. Water flows to Tamil Nadu’s Mettur dam. Incorrect Solution: d) Karnataka has begun releasing Cauvery water to Tamil Nadu from the Krishna Raja Sagar (KRS) dam and Kabini reservoir, following a directive from the Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA). Krishnaraja Sagar (KRS) Dam: Type: Gravity dam on the river Kaveri and tributaries Hemavathi and Lakshmana Theertha in Mandya, Karnataka. Construction: Named after Maharaja Krishna Raja Wadiyar IV, built between 1911 and 1931, designed by Sir M. Visvesvaraya. Objectives: Irrigation, hydroelectric power, drought mitigation. Features: 2,621 meters long, 40 meters high, with 177 arch-type iron sluices, some automatic. Constructed with stone masonry and surki mortar. Reservoir: Covers 130 sq. km, Brindavan Gardens attached. Usage: Main source of irrigation for Mysore and Mandya, drinking water for Mysore and Bangalore, and power for the Shivanasamudra station. Water flows to Tamil Nadu’s Mettur dam.

#### 2. Question

Krishna Raja Sagar (KRS) dam, sometimes in news is located in which state?

• a) Tamil Nadu

• b) Andhra Pradesh

• c) Telangana

• d) Karnataka

Solution: d)

Karnataka has begun releasing Cauvery water to Tamil Nadu from the Krishna Raja Sagar (KRS) dam and Kabini reservoir, following a directive from the Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA).

Krishnaraja Sagar (KRS) Dam:

• Type: Gravity dam on the river Kaveri and tributaries Hemavathi and Lakshmana Theertha in Mandya, Karnataka.

• Construction: Named after Maharaja Krishna Raja Wadiyar IV, built between 1911 and 1931, designed by Sir M. Visvesvaraya.

• Objectives: Irrigation, hydroelectric power, drought mitigation.

• Features: 2,621 meters long, 40 meters high, with 177 arch-type iron sluices, some automatic. Constructed with stone masonry and surki mortar.

• Reservoir: Covers 130 sq. km, Brindavan Gardens attached.

• Usage: Main source of irrigation for Mysore and Mandya, drinking water for Mysore and Bangalore, and power for the Shivanasamudra station. Water flows to Tamil Nadu’s Mettur dam.

Solution: d)

Karnataka has begun releasing Cauvery water to Tamil Nadu from the Krishna Raja Sagar (KRS) dam and Kabini reservoir, following a directive from the Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA).

Krishnaraja Sagar (KRS) Dam:

• Type: Gravity dam on the river Kaveri and tributaries Hemavathi and Lakshmana Theertha in Mandya, Karnataka.

• Construction: Named after Maharaja Krishna Raja Wadiyar IV, built between 1911 and 1931, designed by Sir M. Visvesvaraya.

• Objectives: Irrigation, hydroelectric power, drought mitigation.

• Features: 2,621 meters long, 40 meters high, with 177 arch-type iron sluices, some automatic. Constructed with stone masonry and surki mortar.

• Reservoir: Covers 130 sq. km, Brindavan Gardens attached.

• Usage: Main source of irrigation for Mysore and Mandya, drinking water for Mysore and Bangalore, and power for the Shivanasamudra station. Water flows to Tamil Nadu’s Mettur dam.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court established the ‘creamy layer’ concept for Other Backward Classes (OBCs)? a) State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh case b) EV Chinnaiah case c) A.K Gopalan vs. State of Madras case d) Indra Sawhney Case Correct Solution: d) Indra Sawhney Case (1992): Established the ‘creamy layer’ concept for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) to ensure benefits reach the most disadvantaged. Incorrect Solution: d) Indra Sawhney Case (1992): Established the ‘creamy layer’ concept for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) to ensure benefits reach the most disadvantaged.

#### 3. Question

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court established the ‘creamy layer’ concept for Other Backward Classes (OBCs)?

• a) State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh case

• b) EV Chinnaiah case

• c) A.K Gopalan vs. State of Madras case

• d) Indra Sawhney Case

Solution: d)

Indra Sawhney Case (1992): Established the ‘creamy layer’ concept for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) to ensure benefits reach the most disadvantaged.

Solution: d)

Indra Sawhney Case (1992): Established the ‘creamy layer’ concept for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) to ensure benefits reach the most disadvantaged.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Articles of Indian Constitution. Article 15: empowers states to create special arrangements for socially and educationally backward classes like SCs and STs. Article 16: Allows States to make provisions for reservation in promotion if SCs and STs are underrepresented in state services. Article 341: Empowers the President to specify the Scheduled Tribes (STs) in various states and union territories through a public notification. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 3 is incorrect. States have the authority to provide reservation benefits to SCs and STs under Articles 15(4) and 16(4), and Articles 341(1) and 342(1). Article 15(4) empowers states to create special arrangements for socially and educationally backward classes like SCs and STs. Article 16(4) allows States to make provisions for reservation in promotion if SCs and STs are underrepresented in state services. Article 341 in Constitution of India (1) The President may with respect to any State or Union territory, and where it is a State after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public notification, specify the castes, races or tribes or parts of or group within castes, races or tribes which shall for the purposes of this Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to that State or Union territory, as the case may be. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 3 is incorrect. States have the authority to provide reservation benefits to SCs and STs under Articles 15(4) and 16(4), and Articles 341(1) and 342(1). Article 15(4) empowers states to create special arrangements for socially and educationally backward classes like SCs and STs. Article 16(4) allows States to make provisions for reservation in promotion if SCs and STs are underrepresented in state services. Article 341 in Constitution of India (1) The President may with respect to any State or Union territory, and where it is a State after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public notification, specify the castes, races or tribes or parts of or group within castes, races or tribes which shall for the purposes of this Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to that State or Union territory, as the case may be.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Articles of Indian Constitution.

• Article 15: empowers states to create special arrangements for socially and educationally backward classes like SCs and STs.

• Article 16: Allows States to make provisions for reservation in promotion if SCs and STs are underrepresented in state services.

• Article 341: Empowers the President to specify the Scheduled Tribes (STs) in various states and union territories through a public notification.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

States have the authority to provide reservation benefits to SCs and STs under Articles 15(4) and 16(4), and Articles 341(1) and 342(1).

• Article 15(4) empowers states to create special arrangements for socially and educationally backward classes like SCs and STs.

• Article 16(4) allows States to make provisions for reservation in promotion if SCs and STs are underrepresented in state services.

Article 341 in Constitution of India

(1) The President may with respect to any State or Union territory, and where it is a State after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public notification, specify the castes, races or tribes or parts of or group within castes, races or tribes which shall for the purposes of this Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to that State or Union territory, as the case may be.

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

States have the authority to provide reservation benefits to SCs and STs under Articles 15(4) and 16(4), and Articles 341(1) and 342(1).

• Article 15(4) empowers states to create special arrangements for socially and educationally backward classes like SCs and STs.

• Article 16(4) allows States to make provisions for reservation in promotion if SCs and STs are underrepresented in state services.

Article 341 in Constitution of India

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following committees recommended for the Sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes (OBC)? a) Usha Mehra Committee b) Justice P. Ramachandra Raju Commission c) Justice G. Rohini Commission d) None of the above Correct Solution: c) Committee Recommendations: Justice P. Ramachandra Raju Commission (1996): Recommended sub-categorization of Scheduled Castes in Andhra Pradesh National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC): Advocated for measures to address intra-group disparities and National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST): Highlighted the need to prioritize existing schemes and government benefits to reach the most backward sections of Scheduled Tribes before considering sub-categorization. Usha Mehra Committee (2008): Proposed the inclusion of Clause (3) in Article 341 through a constitutional amendment, empowering state legislatures to enact reclassification of the Scheduled Caste category, subject to Presidential confirmation. Justice G. Rohini headed the Commission for the Sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes (OBC): Report submitted in August 2023 Incorrect Solution: c) Committee Recommendations: Justice P. Ramachandra Raju Commission (1996): Recommended sub-categorization of Scheduled Castes in Andhra Pradesh National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC): Advocated for measures to address intra-group disparities and National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST): Highlighted the need to prioritize existing schemes and government benefits to reach the most backward sections of Scheduled Tribes before considering sub-categorization. Usha Mehra Committee (2008): Proposed the inclusion of Clause (3) in Article 341 through a constitutional amendment, empowering state legislatures to enact reclassification of the Scheduled Caste category, subject to Presidential confirmation. Justice G. Rohini headed the Commission for the Sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes (OBC): Report submitted in August 2023

#### 5. Question

Which of the following committees recommended for the Sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes (OBC)?

• a) Usha Mehra Committee

• b) Justice P. Ramachandra Raju Commission

• c) Justice G. Rohini Commission

• d) None of the above

Solution: c)

Committee Recommendations:

• Justice P. Ramachandra Raju Commission (1996): Recommended sub-categorization of Scheduled Castes in Andhra Pradesh

• National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC): Advocated for measures to address intra-group disparities and

• National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST): Highlighted the need to prioritize existing schemes and government benefits to reach the most backward sections of Scheduled Tribes before considering sub-categorization.

• Usha Mehra Committee (2008): Proposed the inclusion of Clause (3) in Article 341 through a constitutional amendment, empowering state legislatures to enact reclassification of the Scheduled Caste category, subject to Presidential confirmation.

• Justice G. Rohini headed the Commission for the Sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes (OBC): Report submitted in August 2023

Solution: c)

Committee Recommendations:

• Justice P. Ramachandra Raju Commission (1996): Recommended sub-categorization of Scheduled Castes in Andhra Pradesh

• National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC): Advocated for measures to address intra-group disparities and

• Justice G. Rohini headed the Commission for the Sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes (OBC): Report submitted in August 2023

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The Food Corporation of India (FCI) sells surplus stocks of wheat and rice through e-auctions in the open market to enhance food grain supply. The auctions under Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS) are conducted on the National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange Limited (NCDEX) platform. The food grain-deficient states cannot directly purchase rice from the Food Corporation of India (FCI) without participating in e-auctions. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 3 is incorrect. The government recently announced that grain-deficient states can directly purchase rice from the Food Corporation of India (FCI) under the Open Market Sale Scheme (Domestic) (OMSS [D]) for ₹2,800 per quintal without participating in e-auctions, effective August 1. This move aims to reduce surplus stocks before the new procurement season. About the Open Market Sale Scheme: The Food Corporation of India (FCI)sells surplus stocks of wheat and rice through e-auctions in the open market to enhance food grain supply and regulate wheat prices. These auctions are part of the Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS),conducted weekly on the National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange Limited (NCDEX) platform, which facilitates trading in various agricultural and other commodities in India. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 3 is incorrect. The government recently announced that grain-deficient states can directly purchase rice from the Food Corporation of India (FCI) under the Open Market Sale Scheme (Domestic) (OMSS [D]) for ₹2,800 per quintal without participating in e-auctions, effective August 1. This move aims to reduce surplus stocks before the new procurement season. About the Open Market Sale Scheme: The Food Corporation of India (FCI)sells surplus stocks of wheat and rice through e-auctions in the open market to enhance food grain supply and regulate wheat prices. These auctions are part of the Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS),conducted weekly on the National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange Limited (NCDEX) platform, which facilitates trading in various agricultural and other commodities in India.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The Food Corporation of India (FCI) sells surplus stocks of wheat and rice through e-auctions in the open market to enhance food grain supply.

• The auctions under Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS) are conducted on the National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange Limited (NCDEX) platform.

• The food grain-deficient states cannot directly purchase rice from the Food Corporation of India (FCI) without participating in e-auctions.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

The government recently announced that grain-deficient states can directly purchase rice from the Food Corporation of India (FCI) under the Open Market Sale Scheme (Domestic) (OMSS [D]) for ₹2,800 per quintal without participating in e-auctions, effective August 1.

• This move aims to reduce surplus stocks before the new procurement season.

About the Open Market Sale Scheme:

• The Food Corporation of India (FCI)sells surplus stocks of wheat and rice through e-auctions in the open market to enhance food grain supply and regulate wheat prices.

• These auctions are part of the Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS),conducted weekly on the National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange Limited (NCDEX) platform, which facilitates trading in various agricultural and other commodities in India.

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

• This move aims to reduce surplus stocks before the new procurement season.

About the Open Market Sale Scheme:

• The Food Corporation of India (FCI)sells surplus stocks of wheat and rice through e-auctions in the open market to enhance food grain supply and regulate wheat prices.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Which of the following are the objectives of Food Corporation of India (FCI). Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interests of the farmers. Distribution of food grains throughout the country for public distribution system. Maintaining a satisfactory level of operational and buffer stocks of foodgrains to ensure National Food Security. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3 c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 Correct Solution: d) The Food Corporation of India was setup under the Food Corporation’s Act 1964, in order to fulfill following objectives of the Food Policy: Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interests of the farmers, distribution of foodgrains throughout the country for public distribution system and maintaining satisfactory level of operational and buffer stocks of foodgrains to ensure national food security. Since its inception, FCI has played a significant role in India’s success in transforming the crisis management-oriented food security into a stable security system. Incorrect Solution: d) The Food Corporation of India was setup under the Food Corporation’s Act 1964, in order to fulfill following objectives of the Food Policy: Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interests of the farmers, distribution of foodgrains throughout the country for public distribution system and maintaining satisfactory level of operational and buffer stocks of foodgrains to ensure national food security. Since its inception, FCI has played a significant role in India’s success in transforming the crisis management-oriented food security into a stable security system.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following are the objectives of Food Corporation of India (FCI).

• Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interests of the farmers.

• Distribution of food grains throughout the country for public distribution system.

• Maintaining a satisfactory level of operational and buffer stocks of foodgrains to ensure National Food Security.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: d)

The Food Corporation of India was setup under the Food Corporation’s Act 1964, in order to fulfill following objectives of the Food Policy: Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interests of the farmers, distribution of foodgrains throughout the country for public distribution system and maintaining satisfactory level of operational and buffer stocks of foodgrains to ensure national food security.

Since its inception, FCI has played a significant role in India’s success in transforming the crisis management-oriented food security into a stable security system.

Solution: d)

Since its inception, FCI has played a significant role in India’s success in transforming the crisis management-oriented food security into a stable security system.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Genetic screening. Genetic screening is a tool used to identify individuals at higher risk for developing certain disorders or carrying specific genes for these disorders. It offers insights into personal traits like food allergies, vitamin and mineral needs of a person. Genetic screening can help in increasing the performance of athletes. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: d) Athletes worldwide are increasingly turning to genetic screening to enhance their performance. This emerging science offers valuable insights into personal traits like food allergies, vitamin and mineral needs, and other physiological factors. The Board of Control for Cricket in India has been using genetic tests since 2017 to improve players’ physical capabilities, including speed, endurance, recovery time, and muscle-building. Genetic screening is a tool used to identify individuals at higher risk for developing certain disorders or carrying specific genes for these disorders. It involves testing genetic material—chromosomes, genes, or proteins—to detect changes that might increase disease risk. By identifying altered genes, genetic screening helps determine risk and offers preventive measures and early treatment options. Incorrect Solution: d) Athletes worldwide are increasingly turning to genetic screening to enhance their performance. This emerging science offers valuable insights into personal traits like food allergies, vitamin and mineral needs, and other physiological factors. The Board of Control for Cricket in India has been using genetic tests since 2017 to improve players’ physical capabilities, including speed, endurance, recovery time, and muscle-building. Genetic screening is a tool used to identify individuals at higher risk for developing certain disorders or carrying specific genes for these disorders. It involves testing genetic material—chromosomes, genes, or proteins—to detect changes that might increase disease risk. By identifying altered genes, genetic screening helps determine risk and offers preventive measures and early treatment options.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Genetic screening.

• Genetic screening is a tool used to identify individuals at higher risk for developing certain disorders or carrying specific genes for these disorders.

• It offers insights into personal traits like food allergies, vitamin and mineral needs of a person.

• Genetic screening can help in increasing the performance of athletes.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: d)

Athletes worldwide are increasingly turning to genetic screening to enhance their performance.

• This emerging science offers valuable insights into personal traits like food allergies, vitamin and mineral needs, and other physiological factors.

• The Board of Control for Cricket in India has been using genetic tests since 2017 to improve players’ physical capabilities, including speed, endurance, recovery time, and muscle-building.

• Genetic screening is a tool used to identify individuals at higher risk for developing certain disorders or carrying specific genes for these disorders.

• It involves testing genetic material—chromosomes, genes, or proteins—to detect changes that might increase disease risk.

• By identifying altered genes, genetic screening helps determine risk and offers preventive measures and early treatment options.

Solution: d)

Athletes worldwide are increasingly turning to genetic screening to enhance their performance.

• This emerging science offers valuable insights into personal traits like food allergies, vitamin and mineral needs, and other physiological factors.

• The Board of Control for Cricket in India has been using genetic tests since 2017 to improve players’ physical capabilities, including speed, endurance, recovery time, and muscle-building.

• Genetic screening is a tool used to identify individuals at higher risk for developing certain disorders or carrying specific genes for these disorders.

• It involves testing genetic material—chromosomes, genes, or proteins—to detect changes that might increase disease risk.

• By identifying altered genes, genetic screening helps determine risk and offers preventive measures and early treatment options.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following diseases can be detected through Genetic screening? Sickle Cell Disease Cystic Fibrosis Down Syndrome Neural tube defects Edwards Syndrome How many of the above options is/are correct? a) Only two b) Only three c) Only four d) All five Correct Solution: d) Incorrect Solution: d)

#### 9. Question

Which of the following diseases can be detected through Genetic screening?

• Sickle Cell Disease

• Cystic Fibrosis

• Down Syndrome

• Neural tube defects

• Edwards Syndrome

How many of the above options is/are correct?

• a) Only two

• b) Only three

• c) Only four

• d) All five

Solution: d)

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre (GTMC). It is the first global outpost centre for traditional medicine across the world. It is located in India. The centre aims to serve as a key hub for evidence-based Traditional Complementary and Integrative Medicine to improve global health. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3 c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 Correct Solution: d) India will donate USD 85 million over ten years (2022-2032) to support the WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre (GTMC) in Jamnagar, Gujarat. The centre aims to serve as a key hub for evidence-based Traditional Complementary and Integrative Medicine (TCIM) to improve global health and well-being. The interim office is already operational, focusing on capacity-building and training. This collaboration aligns with India’s efforts to position traditional medicine globally, contributing to sustainable development goals through various joint initiatives with WHO. Incorrect Solution: d) India will donate USD 85 million over ten years (2022-2032) to support the WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre (GTMC) in Jamnagar, Gujarat. The centre aims to serve as a key hub for evidence-based Traditional Complementary and Integrative Medicine (TCIM) to improve global health and well-being. The interim office is already operational, focusing on capacity-building and training. This collaboration aligns with India’s efforts to position traditional medicine globally, contributing to sustainable development goals through various joint initiatives with WHO.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre (GTMC).

• It is the first global outpost centre for traditional medicine across the world.

• It is located in India.

• The centre aims to serve as a key hub for evidence-based Traditional Complementary and Integrative Medicine to improve global health.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: d)

India will donate USD 85 million over ten years (2022-2032) to support the WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre (GTMC) in Jamnagar, Gujarat.

• The centre aims to serve as a key hub for evidence-based Traditional Complementary and Integrative Medicine (TCIM) to improve global health and well-being.

• The interim office is already operational, focusing on capacity-building and training.

• This collaboration aligns with India’s efforts to position traditional medicine globally, contributing to sustainable development goals through various joint initiatives with WHO.

Solution: d)

India will donate USD 85 million over ten years (2022-2032) to support the WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre (GTMC) in Jamnagar, Gujarat.

• The centre aims to serve as a key hub for evidence-based Traditional Complementary and Integrative Medicine (TCIM) to improve global health and well-being.

• The interim office is already operational, focusing on capacity-building and training.

• This collaboration aligns with India’s efforts to position traditional medicine globally, contributing to sustainable development goals through various joint initiatives with WHO.

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