UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 4 September 2024

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following accurately describes the Munich Agreement of 1938? a) It was a peace treaty signed between Germany and the Soviet Union. b) It was a treaty to end World War II. c) It was a non-aggression pact signed between the United States and Germany. d) It allowed Nazi Germany to annex the Sudetenland region of Czechoslovakia Correct Solution: d) The Munich Agreement, signed in 1938, was a deal between Germany, France, Great Britain, and Italy, which permitted Nazi Germany to annex the Sudetenland, a border region of Czechoslovakia with a significant ethnic German population. Czechoslovakia, despite being directly affected, was not involved in the negotiations. The agreement, championed by British Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain, was an attempt to appease Adolf Hitler and maintain peace. However, Hitler violated it within six months by invading the rest of Czechoslovakia, marking the failure of the appeasement policy. Incorrect Solution: d) The Munich Agreement, signed in 1938, was a deal between Germany, France, Great Britain, and Italy, which permitted Nazi Germany to annex the Sudetenland, a border region of Czechoslovakia with a significant ethnic German population. Czechoslovakia, despite being directly affected, was not involved in the negotiations. The agreement, championed by British Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain, was an attempt to appease Adolf Hitler and maintain peace. However, Hitler violated it within six months by invading the rest of Czechoslovakia, marking the failure of the appeasement policy.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following accurately describes the Munich Agreement of 1938?

• a) It was a peace treaty signed between Germany and the Soviet Union.

• b) It was a treaty to end World War II.

• c) It was a non-aggression pact signed between the United States and Germany.

• d) It allowed Nazi Germany to annex the Sudetenland region of Czechoslovakia

Solution: d)

• The Munich Agreement, signed in 1938, was a deal between Germany, France, Great Britain, and Italy, which permitted Nazi Germany to annex the Sudetenland, a border region of Czechoslovakia with a significant ethnic German population. Czechoslovakia, despite being directly affected, was not involved in the negotiations.

• The agreement, championed by British Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain, was an attempt to appease Adolf Hitler and maintain peace.

• However, Hitler violated it within six months by invading the rest of Czechoslovakia, marking the failure of the appeasement policy.

Solution: d)

• The agreement, championed by British Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain, was an attempt to appease Adolf Hitler and maintain peace.

• However, Hitler violated it within six months by invading the rest of Czechoslovakia, marking the failure of the appeasement policy.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which of the following is not considered a motor symptom of Parkinson’s disease? a) Tremors b) Bradykinesia c) Gastrointestinal symptoms d) Dystonia Correct Solution: c) Motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease primarily include tremors, bradykinesia (slowness of movement), rigidity, postural instability, and dystonia (involuntary muscle contractions). Gastrointestinal symptoms such as constipation and drooling are non-motor symptoms. These non-motor symptoms significantly affect the quality of life but are often underrecognized compared to motor issues. Incorrect Solution: c) Motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease primarily include tremors, bradykinesia (slowness of movement), rigidity, postural instability, and dystonia (involuntary muscle contractions). Gastrointestinal symptoms such as constipation and drooling are non-motor symptoms. These non-motor symptoms significantly affect the quality of life but are often underrecognized compared to motor issues.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following is not considered a motor symptom of Parkinson’s disease?

• a) Tremors

• b) Bradykinesia

• c) Gastrointestinal symptoms

• d) Dystonia

Solution: c)

Motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease primarily include tremors, bradykinesia (slowness of movement), rigidity, postural instability, and dystonia (involuntary muscle contractions). Gastrointestinal symptoms such as constipation and drooling are non-motor symptoms. These non-motor symptoms significantly affect the quality of life but are often underrecognized compared to motor issues.

Solution: c)

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which operation was initiated to address the wolf attacks in Bahraich, Uttar Pradesh? a) Operation Leopard b) Operation Jungle Watch c) Operation Shikaar d) Operation Bhediya Correct Solution: d) “Operation Bhediya” was launched to capture the wolves responsible for the attacks in Bahraich, Uttar Pradesh. Despite ongoing efforts, some wolves have yet to be captured, leaving the local community in fear. The operation has successfully captured four wolves so far. Incorrect Solution: d) “Operation Bhediya” was launched to capture the wolves responsible for the attacks in Bahraich, Uttar Pradesh. Despite ongoing efforts, some wolves have yet to be captured, leaving the local community in fear. The operation has successfully captured four wolves so far.

#### 3. Question

Which operation was initiated to address the wolf attacks in Bahraich, Uttar Pradesh?

• a) Operation Leopard

• b) Operation Jungle Watch

• c) Operation Shikaar

• d) Operation Bhediya

Solution: d)

“Operation Bhediya” was launched to capture the wolves responsible for the attacks in Bahraich, Uttar Pradesh. Despite ongoing efforts, some wolves have yet to be captured, leaving the local community in fear. The operation has successfully captured four wolves so far.

Solution: d)

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Indian Gray Wolf: It is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 in India, granting it the highest level of protection. The Indian Gray Wolf is classified under Appendix III of CITES, reflecting its vulnerability in international trade. The Indian Gray Wolf is a critically endangered species, as per the IUCN Red List. Which of the statements given above is correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 3 only Correct Solution: a) The Indian Gray Wolf is indeed listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, giving it full protection under Indian law. However, it is listed under Appendix I of CITES, not Appendix III. As per the IUCN Red List, it is classified as “Least Concern” rather than “Critically Endangered.” Incorrect Solution: a) The Indian Gray Wolf is indeed listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, giving it full protection under Indian law. However, it is listed under Appendix I of CITES, not Appendix III. As per the IUCN Red List, it is classified as “Least Concern” rather than “Critically Endangered.”

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about the Indian Gray Wolf:

• It is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 in India, granting it the highest level of protection.

• The Indian Gray Wolf is classified under Appendix III of CITES, reflecting its vulnerability in international trade.

• The Indian Gray Wolf is a critically endangered species, as per the IUCN Red List.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

• c) 1 and 3 only

Solution: a)

The Indian Gray Wolf is indeed listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, giving it full protection under Indian law. However, it is listed under Appendix I of CITES, not Appendix III. As per the IUCN Red List, it is classified as “Least Concern” rather than “Critically Endangered.”

Solution: a)

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which body of water does Sudan share a coastline with? a) Mediterranean Sea b) Arabian Sea c) Red Sea d) Atlantic Ocean Correct Solution: c) Sudan has a coastline along the Red Sea to the east. Its strategic position along this important body of water allows for significant maritime activities and is key to its trade and economic relationships with neighboring countries. Incorrect Solution: c) Sudan has a coastline along the Red Sea to the east. Its strategic position along this important body of water allows for significant maritime activities and is key to its trade and economic relationships with neighboring countries.

#### 5. Question

Which body of water does Sudan share a coastline with?

• a) Mediterranean Sea

• b) Arabian Sea

• c) Red Sea

• d) Atlantic Ocean

Solution: c)

Sudan has a coastline along the Red Sea to the east. Its strategic position along this important body of water allows for significant maritime activities and is key to its trade and economic relationships with neighboring countries.

Solution: c)

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Ramon Magsaysay Award: The award is given only to citizens of Southeast Asia. It was established to honor the then president of the Philippines, Ramon Magsaysay. Recipients of the award receive a medallion, a certificate, and not cash prize. Which of the statements given above is correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: b) The Ramon Magsaysay Award was established in 1957 to honor the legacy of Ramon Magsaysay, the third president of the Philippines. However, it is not limited to Southeast Asian citizens—it recognizes individuals from all over Asia who have shown exceptional dedication to serving the people of the continent. The award is often referred to as Asia’s Nobel Prize and includes a certificate, medallion, and a cash prize, making statement 2 correct. Incorrect Solution: b) The Ramon Magsaysay Award was established in 1957 to honor the legacy of Ramon Magsaysay, the third president of the Philippines. However, it is not limited to Southeast Asian citizens—it recognizes individuals from all over Asia who have shown exceptional dedication to serving the people of the continent. The award is often referred to as Asia’s Nobel Prize and includes a certificate, medallion, and a cash prize, making statement 2 correct.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Ramon Magsaysay Award:

• The award is given only to citizens of Southeast Asia.

• It was established to honor the then president of the Philippines, Ramon Magsaysay.

• Recipients of the award receive a medallion, a certificate, and not cash prize.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

• d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: b)

The Ramon Magsaysay Award was established in 1957 to honor the legacy of Ramon Magsaysay, the third president of the Philippines. However, it is not limited to Southeast Asian citizens—it recognizes individuals from all over Asia who have shown exceptional dedication to serving the people of the continent. The award is often referred to as Asia’s Nobel Prize and includes a certificate, medallion, and a cash prize, making statement 2 correct.

Solution: b)

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Match the following terms with their descriptions in the context of wildlife conservation: List I (Term) List II (Description) A. IUCN Least Concern 1. International trade in species is regulated B. CITES Appendix I 2. Highest level of protection under Indian law C. Wildlife (Protection) Act, Schedule I 3. Species not currently at significant global risk D. Endangered 4. Species at high risk of extinction in the wild a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 c) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 Correct Solution: a) IUCN Least Concern refers to species not currently at significant risk, while CITES Appendix I regulates international trade in endangered species. Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 provides the highest protection to species in India. “Endangered” refers to species at high risk of extinction. Incorrect Solution: a) IUCN Least Concern refers to species not currently at significant risk, while CITES Appendix I regulates international trade in endangered species. Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 provides the highest protection to species in India. “Endangered” refers to species at high risk of extinction.

#### 7. Question

Match the following terms with their descriptions in the context of wildlife conservation:

List I (Term) | List II (Description)

A. IUCN Least Concern | 1. International trade in species is regulated

B. CITES Appendix I | 2. Highest level of protection under Indian law

C. Wildlife (Protection) Act, Schedule I | 3. Species not currently at significant global risk

D. Endangered | 4. Species at high risk of extinction in the wild

• a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

• b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

• c) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

• d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

Solution: a)

IUCN Least Concern refers to species not currently at significant risk, while CITES Appendix I regulates international trade in endangered species. Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 provides the highest protection to species in India. “Endangered” refers to species at high risk of extinction.

Solution: a)

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding mitochondrial dynamics in Parkinson’s disease: Mitochondria are static structures that maintain a fixed size and location in the cell. Imbalances in mitochondrial dynamics are linked to neurodegenerative diseases, including Parkinson’s disease. Mitochondrial dysfunction is considered one of the underlying causes of the cell death observed in Parkinson’s disease. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect Mitochondria are dynamic structures, constantly changing in size, number, and location within the cell to meet cellular energy demands. Imbalances in this dynamic process, particularly excessive mitochondrial fragmentation, have been linked to neurodegenerative disorders such as Parkinson’s disease. Mitochondrial dysfunction, including impaired energy production, is a key factor in the death of neurons in Parkinson’s, contributing to the progressive nature of the disease. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect Mitochondria are dynamic structures, constantly changing in size, number, and location within the cell to meet cellular energy demands. Imbalances in this dynamic process, particularly excessive mitochondrial fragmentation, have been linked to neurodegenerative disorders such as Parkinson’s disease. Mitochondrial dysfunction, including impaired energy production, is a key factor in the death of neurons in Parkinson’s, contributing to the progressive nature of the disease.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding mitochondrial dynamics in Parkinson’s disease:

• Mitochondria are static structures that maintain a fixed size and location in the cell.

• Imbalances in mitochondrial dynamics are linked to neurodegenerative diseases, including Parkinson’s disease.

• Mitochondrial dysfunction is considered one of the underlying causes of the cell death observed in Parkinson’s disease.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect

Mitochondria are dynamic structures, constantly changing in size, number, and location within the cell to meet cellular energy demands. Imbalances in this dynamic process, particularly excessive mitochondrial fragmentation, have been linked to neurodegenerative disorders such as Parkinson’s disease. Mitochondrial dysfunction, including impaired energy production, is a key factor in the death of neurons in Parkinson’s, contributing to the progressive nature of the disease.

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the legal and regulatory frameworks for groundwater management in India: Article 21 of the Indian Constitution recognizes the fundamental right to clean water as part of the right to life. The Model Groundwater Bills empower state boards to manage water resources by creating laws at the state level. The Polluter Pays Principle is used to mandate that the government, not the polluter, bears the cost of groundwater contamination cleanup. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct as Article 21 of the Indian Constitution recognizes the right to clean water as part of the right to life, making access to clean water a fundamental right. Statement 2 is also correct; the Model Groundwater Bills have been revised multiple times to empower state boards to manage water resources effectively by creating state-specific laws. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Polluter Pays Principle mandates that the polluter, not the government, bears the cost of cleaning up groundwater contamination. This principle ensures accountability and encourages the prevention of environmental damage by placing the financial burden on those responsible for pollution. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct as Article 21 of the Indian Constitution recognizes the right to clean water as part of the right to life, making access to clean water a fundamental right. Statement 2 is also correct; the Model Groundwater Bills have been revised multiple times to empower state boards to manage water resources effectively by creating state-specific laws. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Polluter Pays Principle mandates that the polluter, not the government, bears the cost of cleaning up groundwater contamination. This principle ensures accountability and encourages the prevention of environmental damage by placing the financial burden on those responsible for pollution.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the legal and regulatory frameworks for groundwater management in India:

• Article 21 of the Indian Constitution recognizes the fundamental right to clean water as part of the right to life.

• The Model Groundwater Bills empower state boards to manage water resources by creating laws at the state level.

• The Polluter Pays Principle is used to mandate that the government, not the polluter, bears the cost of groundwater contamination cleanup.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct as Article 21 of the Indian Constitution recognizes the right to clean water as part of the right to life, making access to clean water a fundamental right.

Statement 2 is also correct; the Model Groundwater Bills have been revised multiple times to empower state boards to manage water resources effectively by creating state-specific laws.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the Polluter Pays Principle mandates that the polluter, not the government, bears the cost of cleaning up groundwater contamination. This principle ensures accountability and encourages the prevention of environmental damage by placing the financial burden on those responsible for pollution.

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct as Article 21 of the Indian Constitution recognizes the right to clean water as part of the right to life, making access to clean water a fundamental right.

Statement 2 is also correct; the Model Groundwater Bills have been revised multiple times to empower state boards to manage water resources effectively by creating state-specific laws.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which of the following characteristics distinguishes the Asiatic cheetah from the African cheetah? a) Larger body size b) Darker coat c) Presence of red eyes d) Stronger bite force Correct Solution: c) The Asiatic cheetah, which is critically endangered with only about 40-50 individuals surviving in Iran, is distinguished by its ‘red eyes’. This feature differentiates it from the African cheetah, which is generally larger in size and has a darker coat. The reintroduction project in India focuses on African cheetahs, as the Asiatic cheetah is nearly extinct and has a very limited population confined to Iran. Incorrect Solution: c) The Asiatic cheetah, which is critically endangered with only about 40-50 individuals surviving in Iran, is distinguished by its ‘red eyes’. This feature differentiates it from the African cheetah, which is generally larger in size and has a darker coat. The reintroduction project in India focuses on African cheetahs, as the Asiatic cheetah is nearly extinct and has a very limited population confined to Iran.

#### 10. Question

Which of the following characteristics distinguishes the Asiatic cheetah from the African cheetah?

• a) Larger body size

• b) Darker coat

• c) Presence of red eyes

• d) Stronger bite force

Solution: c)

The Asiatic cheetah, which is critically endangered with only about 40-50 individuals surviving in Iran, is distinguished by its ‘red eyes’. This feature differentiates it from the African cheetah, which is generally larger in size and has a darker coat. The reintroduction project in India focuses on African cheetahs, as the Asiatic cheetah is nearly extinct and has a very limited population confined to Iran.

Solution: c)

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