UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 4 November 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 10 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 10 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following correctly describes the LVM3 launch vehicle? (a) It is India's heaviest rocket, capable of launching 4,000 kg to Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO), and utilizes an indigenous cryogenic upper stage. (b) It is a four-stage rocket that uses solid propellants in all its stages. (c) It successfully launched CMS-03, India's lightest-ever communication satellite. (d) It is primarily used for launching satellites into Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and cannot perform multi-satellite deployments. Correct Solution: A Option (a) is the most accurate description. The Launch Vehicle Mark-III (LVM3) is India’s most powerful and heaviest launch vehicle. It is a three-stage rocket, not four. The stages are: two S200 solid boosters, one L110 liquid stage, and crucially, the C25 cryogenic upper stage, which is indigenously developed. Its primary capability is placing heavy satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO), with a capacity of 4,000 kg (4 tonnes). It can also launch up to 8,000 kg to Low Earth Orbit (LEO). Incorrect Solution: A Option (a) is the most accurate description. The Launch Vehicle Mark-III (LVM3) is India’s most powerful and heaviest launch vehicle. It is a three-stage rocket, not four. The stages are: two S200 solid boosters, one L110 liquid stage, and crucially, the C25 cryogenic upper stage, which is indigenously developed. Its primary capability is placing heavy satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO), with a capacity of 4,000 kg (4 tonnes). It can also launch up to 8,000 kg to Low Earth Orbit (LEO).

#### 1. Question

Which of the following correctly describes the LVM3 launch vehicle?

• (a) It is India's heaviest rocket, capable of launching 4,000 kg to Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO), and utilizes an indigenous cryogenic upper stage.

• (b) It is a four-stage rocket that uses solid propellants in all its stages.

• (c) It successfully launched CMS-03, India's lightest-ever communication satellite.

• (d) It is primarily used for launching satellites into Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and cannot perform multi-satellite deployments.

Solution: A

• Option (a) is the most accurate description. The Launch Vehicle Mark-III (LVM3) is India’s most powerful and heaviest launch vehicle. It is a three-stage rocket, not four.

• The stages are: two S200 solid boosters, one L110 liquid stage, and crucially, the C25 cryogenic upper stage, which is indigenously developed. Its primary capability is placing heavy satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO), with a capacity of 4,000 kg (4 tonnes). It can also launch up to 8,000 kg to Low Earth Orbit (LEO).

Solution: A

• Option (a) is the most accurate description. The Launch Vehicle Mark-III (LVM3) is India’s most powerful and heaviest launch vehicle. It is a three-stage rocket, not four.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Match the Indian city with its designated field under the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN): List I (City) List II (Field) A. Kozhikode 1. Gastronomy B. Gwalior 2. Literature C. Lucknow 3. Crafts and Folk Arts D. Srinagar 4. Music Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 (c) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 (d) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 Correct Solution: A Kozhikode (2023) was designated in the field of Literature, becoming India’s first city with this recognition. Gwalior (2023) was designated in the field of Music, joining Chennai and Varanasi in this category. Lucknow (2025) is the most recent addition, designated in the field of Gastronomy for its rich Awadhi cuisine, following Hyderabad (2019). Srinagar (2021) was designated in the field of Crafts and Folk Arts, joining Jaipur in this category. Incorrect Solution: A Kozhikode (2023) was designated in the field of Literature, becoming India’s first city with this recognition. Gwalior (2023) was designated in the field of Music, joining Chennai and Varanasi in this category. Lucknow (2025) is the most recent addition, designated in the field of Gastronomy for its rich Awadhi cuisine, following Hyderabad (2019). Srinagar (2021) was designated in the field of Crafts and Folk Arts, joining Jaipur in this category.

#### 2. Question

Match the Indian city with its designated field under the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN):

List I (City) | List II (Field)

A. Kozhikode | 1. Gastronomy

B. Gwalior | 2. Literature

C. Lucknow | 3. Crafts and Folk Arts

D. Srinagar | 4. Music

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

• (b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

• (c) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

• (d) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

Solution: A

• Kozhikode (2023) was designated in the field of Literature, becoming India’s first city with this recognition.

• Gwalior (2023) was designated in the field of Music, joining Chennai and Varanasi in this category.

• Lucknow (2025) is the most recent addition, designated in the field of Gastronomy for its rich Awadhi cuisine, following Hyderabad (2019).

• Srinagar (2021) was designated in the field of Crafts and Folk Arts, joining Jaipur in this category.

Solution: A

• Kozhikode (2023) was designated in the field of Literature, becoming India’s first city with this recognition.

• Gwalior (2023) was designated in the field of Music, joining Chennai and Varanasi in this category.

• Lucknow (2025) is the most recent addition, designated in the field of Gastronomy for its rich Awadhi cuisine, following Hyderabad (2019).

• Srinagar (2021) was designated in the field of Crafts and Folk Arts, joining Jaipur in this category.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ICC Women’s Cricket World Cup 2025: The 2025 ICC Women’s Cricket World Cup was the first edition of the tournament to be hosted by India. The Women’s Cricket World Cup tournament started in same year that of Men’s World Cup started. In the final, India defeated the reigning champions, Australia, to win their maiden title. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. India has hosted the tournament multiple times before 2025. It previously hosted in 1978, 1997, and 2013. The 2025 edition was the fourth time India served as a host. Statement 2 is incorrect. The first ICC Women’s Cricket World Cup was held in 1973 in England. This was, in fact, two years *before the first Men’s Cricket World Cup, which took place in 1975. Statement 3 is incorrect. While India did win its maiden title in 2025, the runner-up was South Africa, not Australia. India defeated South Africa by 52 runs in the final held in Navi Mumbai. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. India has hosted the tournament multiple times before 2025. It previously hosted in 1978, 1997, and 2013. The 2025 edition was the fourth time India served as a host. Statement 2 is incorrect. The first ICC Women’s Cricket World Cup was held in 1973 in England. This was, in fact, two years before* the first Men’s Cricket World Cup, which took place in 1975. Statement 3 is incorrect. While India did win its maiden title in 2025, the runner-up was South Africa**, not Australia. India defeated South Africa by 52 runs in the final held in Navi Mumbai.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ICC Women’s Cricket World Cup 2025:

• The 2025 ICC Women’s Cricket World Cup was the first edition of the tournament to be hosted by India.

• The Women’s Cricket World Cup tournament started in same year that of Men’s World Cup started.

• In the final, India defeated the reigning champions, Australia, to win their maiden title.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. India has hosted the tournament multiple times before 2025. It previously hosted in 1978, 1997, and 2013. The 2025 edition was the fourth time India served as a host.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The first ICC Women’s Cricket World Cup was held in 1973 in England. This was, in fact, two years *before* the first Men’s Cricket World Cup, which took place in 1975.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While India did win its maiden title in 2025, the runner-up was South Africa, not Australia. India defeated South Africa by 52 runs in the final held in Navi Mumbai.

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Rowmari–Donduwa wetland complex: It is located within the core area of Kaziranga National Park. The complex is an interconnected floodplain–marsh ecosystem. It has been officially designated as a Ramsar site due to its high bird diversity. It serves as an ecological corridor between the Kaziranga and Orang National Parks. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The wetland complex is located within the Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary. This sanctuary, along with Burhachapori WLS, functions as a buffer zone of the Kaziranga Tiger Reserve, but it is not part of the core area of Kaziranga National Park itself. Statement 2 is correct. The complex is described as an interconnected floodplain–marsh ecosystem, typical of the Brahmaputra river basin. Statement 3 is incorrect. The complex has not yet been designated as a Ramsar site. Experts and officials are actively seeking Ramsar status for it. The basis for this application is its high biodiversity (meeting 8 of 9 Ramsar criteria) and higher bird counts than existing Ramsar sites in the region, but the designation itself is not final. Statement 4 is correct. The complex is strategically located and serves as a crucial ecological and migratory corridor connecting the Kaziranga Tiger Reserve (and its buffers) with the Orang National Park. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The wetland complex is located within the Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary. This sanctuary, along with Burhachapori WLS, functions as a buffer zone of the Kaziranga Tiger Reserve, but it is not part of the core area of Kaziranga National Park itself. Statement 2 is correct. The complex is described as an interconnected floodplain–marsh ecosystem, typical of the Brahmaputra river basin. Statement 3 is incorrect. The complex has not yet been designated as a Ramsar site. Experts and officials are actively seeking Ramsar status for it. The basis for this application is its high biodiversity (meeting 8 of 9 Ramsar criteria) and higher bird counts than existing Ramsar sites in the region, but the designation itself is not final. Statement 4 is correct. The complex is strategically located and serves as a crucial ecological and migratory corridor connecting the Kaziranga Tiger Reserve (and its buffers) with the Orang National Park.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Rowmari–Donduwa wetland complex:

• It is located within the core area of Kaziranga National Park.

• The complex is an interconnected floodplain–marsh ecosystem.

• It has been officially designated as a Ramsar site due to its high bird diversity.

• It serves as an ecological corridor between the Kaziranga and Orang National Parks.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The wetland complex is located within the Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary. This sanctuary, along with Burhachapori WLS, functions as a buffer zone of the Kaziranga Tiger Reserve, but it is not part of the core area of Kaziranga National Park itself.

• Statement 2 is correct. The complex is described as an interconnected floodplain–marsh ecosystem, typical of the Brahmaputra river basin.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The complex has not yet been designated as a Ramsar site. Experts and officials are actively seeking Ramsar status for it. The basis for this application is its high biodiversity (meeting 8 of 9 Ramsar criteria) and higher bird counts than existing Ramsar sites in the region, but the designation itself is not final.

• Statement 4 is correct. The complex is strategically located and serves as a crucial ecological and migratory corridor connecting the Kaziranga Tiger Reserve (and its buffers) with the Orang National Park.

Solution: B

• Statement 2 is correct. The complex is described as an interconnected floodplain–marsh ecosystem, typical of the Brahmaputra river basin.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following groups of countries all share a land border with Sudan? (a) Egypt, Libya, Niger, and Ethiopia (b) South Sudan, Chad, Eritrea, and Kenya (c) Libya, Chad, Central African Republic, and South Sudan (d) Egypt, Eritrea, Somalia, and Djibouti Correct Solution: C Sudan is located in Northeast Africa and has a Red Sea coastline. It shares borders with seven countries. North: Egypt Northwest: Libya West: Chad Southwest: Central African Republic South: South Sudan Southeast: Ethiopia and Eritrea Additionally, Sudan has a coastline along the Red Sea to the northeast. Incorrect Solution: C Sudan is located in Northeast Africa and has a Red Sea coastline. It shares borders with seven countries. North: Egypt Northwest: Libya West: Chad Southwest: Central African Republic South: South Sudan Southeast: Ethiopia and Eritrea Additionally, Sudan has a coastline along the Red Sea to the northeast.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following groups of countries all share a land border with Sudan?

• (a) Egypt, Libya, Niger, and Ethiopia

• (b) South Sudan, Chad, Eritrea, and Kenya

• (c) Libya, Chad, Central African Republic, and South Sudan

• (d) Egypt, Eritrea, Somalia, and Djibouti

Solution: C

Sudan is located in Northeast Africa and has a Red Sea coastline. It shares borders with seven countries.

• North: Egypt

• Northwest: Libya

• West: Chad

• Southwest: Central African Republic

• South: South Sudan

• Southeast: Ethiopia and Eritrea

Additionally, Sudan has a coastline along the Red Sea to the northeast.

Solution: C

Sudan is located in Northeast Africa and has a Red Sea coastline. It shares borders with seven countries.

• North: Egypt

• Northwest: Libya

• West: Chad

• Southwest: Central African Republic

• South: South Sudan

• Southeast: Ethiopia and Eritrea

Additionally, Sudan has a coastline along the Red Sea to the northeast.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following two statements regarding Model Youth Gram Sabha (MYGS) Initiative: Statement-I: The Model Youth Gram Sabha (MYGS) Initiative is designed to provide students with hands-on experience in grassroots democracy. Statement-II: The initiative plans to extend its model to urban areas through Model Ward Sabhas, indicating an objective to bridge the gap between rural and urban civic education. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: B Statement-I is correct. The core concept of the MYGS is to have students simulate the functioning of real Gram Sabhas. This is a classic example of experiential or “learning by doing” pedagogy, providing direct, hands-on experience in how grassroots democracy and participatory governance function. Statement-II is correct. There are plans to extend the model to urban areas through Model Ward Sabhas. This demonstrates a wider vision for the program beyond its initial rural focus, aiming to provide similar civic education to city students. Both statements are factually correct. However, Statement-II (about future plans for urban areas) does not explain Statement-I (the initiative’s core design). Incorrect Solution: B Statement-I is correct. The core concept of the MYGS is to have students simulate the functioning of real Gram Sabhas. This is a classic example of experiential or “learning by doing” pedagogy, providing direct, hands-on experience in how grassroots democracy and participatory governance function. Statement-II is correct. There are plans to extend the model to urban areas through Model Ward Sabhas. This demonstrates a wider vision for the program beyond its initial rural focus, aiming to provide similar civic education to city students. Both statements are factually correct. However, Statement-II (about future plans for urban areas) does not explain Statement-I (the initiative’s core design).

#### 6. Question

Consider the following two statements regarding Model Youth Gram Sabha (MYGS) Initiative:

Statement-I: The Model Youth Gram Sabha (MYGS) Initiative is designed to provide students with hands-on experience in grassroots democracy.

Statement-II: The initiative plans to extend its model to urban areas through Model Ward Sabhas, indicating an objective to bridge the gap between rural and urban civic education.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: B

• Statement-I is correct. The core concept of the MYGS is to have students simulate the functioning of real Gram Sabhas. This is a classic example of experiential or “learning by doing” pedagogy, providing direct, hands-on experience in how grassroots democracy and participatory governance function.

• Statement-II is correct. There are plans to extend the model to urban areas through Model Ward Sabhas. This demonstrates a wider vision for the program beyond its initial rural focus, aiming to provide similar civic education to city students.

• Both statements are factually correct. However, Statement-II (about future plans for urban areas) does not explain Statement-I (the initiative’s core design).

Solution: B

• Both statements are factually correct. However, Statement-II (about future plans for urban areas) does not explain Statement-I (the initiative’s core design).

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Marine Fisheries Census 2025: Statement I: The census incorporates drone-based aerial enumeration of fishing crafts. Statement II: The VYAS app ecosystem, which powers the census, enables GPS-tagged entries for precise spatial mapping. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: B Statement-I is correct. The census explicitly features the use of drones for the aerial enumeration of fishing crafts. This is a key modernization feature aimed at achieving greater accuracy and transparency in counting physical assets, which can be difficult to track manually. Statement-II is correct. The VYAS app suite is fundamentally built on geo-referencing. It enables GPS-tagged entries, allowing for the precise spatial mapping of households, infrastructure, villages, and harbours. While both statements are correct and relate to the digital nature of the census, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: B Statement-I is correct. The census explicitly features the use of drones for the aerial enumeration of fishing crafts. This is a key modernization feature aimed at achieving greater accuracy and transparency in counting physical assets, which can be difficult to track manually. Statement-II is correct. The VYAS app suite is fundamentally built on geo-referencing. It enables GPS-tagged entries, allowing for the precise spatial mapping of households, infrastructure, villages, and harbours. While both statements are correct and relate to the digital nature of the census, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Marine Fisheries Census 2025:

Statement I: The census incorporates drone-based aerial enumeration of fishing crafts.

Statement II: The VYAS app ecosystem, which powers the census, enables GPS-tagged entries for precise spatial mapping.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: B

• Statement-I is correct. The census explicitly features the use of drones for the aerial enumeration of fishing crafts. This is a key modernization feature aimed at achieving greater accuracy and transparency in counting physical assets, which can be difficult to track manually.

• Statement-II is correct. The VYAS app suite is fundamentally built on geo-referencing. It enables GPS-tagged entries, allowing for the precise spatial mapping of households, infrastructure, villages, and harbours.

• While both statements are correct and relate to the digital nature of the census, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

Solution: B

• While both statements are correct and relate to the digital nature of the census, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following countries: Kenya South Sudan Mozambique Rwanda Malawi How many of the above countries share a land border with Tanzania? (a) Only two countries (b) Only three countries (c) Only four countries (d) All five countries Correct Solution: C Kenya: Yes, Tanzania shares a major border with Kenya to the north. South Sudan: No. South Sudan borders Uganda and Kenya, but not Tanzania directly. Mozambique: Yes, Tanzania shares a border with Mozambique to the south. Rwanda: Yes, Tanzania shares a border with Rwanda to the west (along with Burundi). Malawi: Yes, Tanzania shares a border with Malawi to the southwest, partially running through Lake Nyasa (also called Lake Malawi). The other bordering countries not listed are Uganda (north), Burundi (west), and Zambia (southwest). Incorrect Solution: C Kenya: Yes, Tanzania shares a major border with Kenya to the north. South Sudan: No. South Sudan borders Uganda and Kenya, but not Tanzania directly. Mozambique: Yes, Tanzania shares a border with Mozambique to the south. Rwanda: Yes, Tanzania shares a border with Rwanda to the west (along with Burundi). Malawi: Yes, Tanzania shares a border with Malawi to the southwest, partially running through Lake Nyasa (also called Lake Malawi). The other bordering countries not listed are Uganda (north), Burundi (west), and Zambia (southwest).

#### 8. Question

Consider the following countries:

• South Sudan

• Mozambique

How many of the above countries share a land border with Tanzania?

• (a) Only two countries

• (b) Only three countries

• (c) Only four countries

• (d) All five countries

Solution: C

• Kenya: Yes, Tanzania shares a major border with Kenya to the north.

• South Sudan: No. South Sudan borders Uganda and Kenya, but not Tanzania directly.

• Mozambique: Yes, Tanzania shares a border with Mozambique to the south.

• Rwanda: Yes, Tanzania shares a border with Rwanda to the west (along with Burundi).

• Malawi: Yes, Tanzania shares a border with Malawi to the southwest, partially running through Lake Nyasa (also called Lake Malawi).

The other bordering countries not listed are Uganda (north), Burundi (west), and Zambia (southwest).

Solution: C

• Kenya: Yes, Tanzania shares a major border with Kenya to the north.

• South Sudan: No. South Sudan borders Uganda and Kenya, but not Tanzania directly.

• Mozambique: Yes, Tanzania shares a border with Mozambique to the south.

• Rwanda: Yes, Tanzania shares a border with Rwanda to the west (along with Burundi).

• Malawi: Yes, Tanzania shares a border with Malawi to the southwest, partially running through Lake Nyasa (also called Lake Malawi).

The other bordering countries not listed are Uganda (north), Burundi (west), and Zambia (southwest).

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Match the following military exercises with the participating countries: List-I (Exercise) List-II (Countries) A. Konkan-25 1. India and Bangladesh B. Mitra Shakti 2. India and United Kingdom C. Sampriti 3. India and Sri Lanka Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) A-2, B-3, C-1 (b) A-1, B-2, C-3 (c) A-2, B-1, C-3 (c) A-2, B-1, C-3 Correct Solution: A Konkan-25: The Konkan series of exercises are bilateral maritime exercises conducted between the navies of India and the United Kingdom. The 2025 edition involved the carrier strike groups of both nations, led by INS Vikrant and HMS Prince of Wales respectively. This matches with 2. Mitra Shakti: This is a joint military exercise between the armies of India and Sri Lanka. The name ‘Mitra Shakti’ (Friendship Power) reflects the close defense ties between the two nations. Sampriti: This is a joint military exercise between the armies of India and Bangladesh. The 2023 edition was held in Pune. This matches with 1. Incorrect Solution: A Konkan-25: The Konkan series of exercises are bilateral maritime exercises conducted between the navies of India and the United Kingdom. The 2025 edition involved the carrier strike groups of both nations, led by INS Vikrant and HMS Prince of Wales respectively. This matches with 2. Mitra Shakti: This is a joint military exercise between the armies of India and Sri Lanka. The name ‘Mitra Shakti’ (Friendship Power) reflects the close defense ties between the two nations. Sampriti: This is a joint military exercise between the armies of India and Bangladesh. The 2023 edition was held in Pune. This matches with 1.

#### 9. Question

Match the following military exercises with the participating countries:

List-I (Exercise) | List-II (Countries)

A. Konkan-25 | 1. India and Bangladesh

B. Mitra Shakti | 2. India and United Kingdom

C. Sampriti | 3. India and Sri Lanka

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) A-2, B-3, C-1

• (b) A-1, B-2, C-3

• (c) A-2, B-1, C-3

Solution: A

• Konkan-25: The Konkan series of exercises are bilateral maritime exercises conducted between the navies of India and the United Kingdom. The 2025 edition involved the carrier strike groups of both nations, led by INS Vikrant and HMS Prince of Wales respectively. This matches with 2.

• Mitra Shakti: This is a joint military exercise between the armies of India and Sri Lanka. The name ‘Mitra Shakti’ (Friendship Power) reflects the close defense ties between the two nations.

• Sampriti: This is a joint military exercise between the armies of India and Bangladesh. The 2023 edition was held in Pune. This matches with 1.

Solution: A

• Sampriti: This is a joint military exercise between the armies of India and Bangladesh. The 2023 edition was held in Pune. This matches with 1.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points With reference to the Indian economy, which of the following are considered components of the ‘money multiplier’? The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR). The banking habit of the people. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D The money multiplier represents the maximum amount of broad money that could be created by commercial banks for a given unit of central bank money. Its value is determined by the reserve requirements and the public’s preference for holding cash versus depositing it in banks. 1. The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): This is a direct component. A higher CRR means banks must hold more reserves and can lend out less, which decreases the money multiplier. 2. The banking habit of the people: This is represented by the currency-deposit ratio. A stronger banking habit means people deposit more of their money in banks rather than holding cash. This increases the amount of funds available for banks to lend, thereby increasing the money multiplier. 3. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): This also affects the multiplier. A higher SLR requires banks to hold more of their funds in specified liquid assets, reducing their capacity to lend to the commercial sector and thus decreasing the money multiplier. All three factors are crucial determinants of the money multiplier. Incorrect Solution: D The money multiplier represents the maximum amount of broad money that could be created by commercial banks for a given unit of central bank money. Its value is determined by the reserve requirements and the public’s preference for holding cash versus depositing it in banks. 1. The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): This is a direct component. A higher CRR means banks must hold more reserves and can lend out less, which decreases the money multiplier. 2. The banking habit of the people: This is represented by the currency-deposit ratio. A stronger banking habit means people deposit more of their money in banks rather than holding cash. This increases the amount of funds available for banks to lend, thereby increasing the money multiplier. 3. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): This also affects the multiplier. A higher SLR requires banks to hold more of their funds in specified liquid assets, reducing their capacity to lend to the commercial sector and thus decreasing the money multiplier. All three factors are crucial determinants of the money multiplier.

#### 10. Question

With reference to the Indian economy, which of the following are considered components of the ‘money multiplier’?

• The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR).

• The banking habit of the people.

• The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

The money multiplier represents the maximum amount of broad money that could be created by commercial banks for a given unit of central bank money. Its value is determined by the reserve requirements and the public’s preference for holding cash versus depositing it in banks.

• 1. The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): This is a direct component. A higher CRR means banks must hold more reserves and can lend out less, which decreases the money multiplier.

• 2. The banking habit of the people: This is represented by the currency-deposit ratio. A stronger banking habit means people deposit more of their money in banks rather than holding cash. This increases the amount of funds available for banks to lend, thereby increasing the money multiplier.

• 3. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): This also affects the multiplier. A higher SLR requires banks to hold more of their funds in specified liquid assets, reducing their capacity to lend to the commercial sector and thus decreasing the money multiplier. All three factors are crucial determinants of the money multiplier.

Solution: D

• 1. The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): This is a direct component. A higher CRR means banks must hold more reserves and can lend out less, which decreases the money multiplier.

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates for

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE