UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 4 March 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Central Warehousing Corporation (CWC): It is a Central Public Sector Enterprise operating under the administrative control of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The corporation provides logistics support for a wide range of commodities including foodgrains, sugar, and fertilizers. Its origins are linked to the wartime food administration established during the 1940s. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Central Warehousing Corporation (CWC) is a premier statutory body, but it operates under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, not the Ministry of Agriculture. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. It was established to provide scientific storage and logistics for a diverse array of goods. As mentioned in statement 2, its functional mandate includes handling foodgrains, sugar, and fertilizers, alongside providing Inland Container Depots (ICDs) and Custom Bonded Warehousing to facilitate international trade. The historical evolution of CWC, as noted in statement 3, traces back to the Second World War. In 1942, a separate Food Department was created to manage food administration during the war. Post-independence, specifically between 1947 and 1958, the warehousing functions were restructured, eventually leading to the enactment of the Warehousing Corporations Act. The CWC was formally established in 1957. Today, it plays a pivotal role in maintaining India’s food security by managing buffer stocks and supporting the Public Distribution System (PDS). By improving storage efficiency, the CWC contributes significantly to the national goal of reducing logistics costs and minimizing post-harvest losses in the agricultural value chain. Incorrect Solution: B The Central Warehousing Corporation (CWC) is a premier statutory body, but it operates under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, not the Ministry of Agriculture. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. It was established to provide scientific storage and logistics for a diverse array of goods. As mentioned in statement 2, its functional mandate includes handling foodgrains, sugar, and fertilizers, alongside providing Inland Container Depots (ICDs) and Custom Bonded Warehousing to facilitate international trade. The historical evolution of CWC, as noted in statement 3, traces back to the Second World War. In 1942, a separate Food Department was created to manage food administration during the war. Post-independence, specifically between 1947 and 1958, the warehousing functions were restructured, eventually leading to the enactment of the Warehousing Corporations Act. The CWC was formally established in 1957. Today, it plays a pivotal role in maintaining India’s food security by managing buffer stocks and supporting the Public Distribution System (PDS). By improving storage efficiency, the CWC contributes significantly to the national goal of reducing logistics costs and minimizing post-harvest losses in the agricultural value chain.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Central Warehousing Corporation (CWC):

• It is a Central Public Sector Enterprise operating under the administrative control of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

• The corporation provides logistics support for a wide range of commodities including foodgrains, sugar, and fertilizers.

• Its origins are linked to the wartime food administration established during the 1940s.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Central Warehousing Corporation (CWC) is a premier statutory body, but it operates under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, not the Ministry of Agriculture. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

• It was established to provide scientific storage and logistics for a diverse array of goods. As mentioned in statement 2, its functional mandate includes handling foodgrains, sugar, and fertilizers, alongside providing Inland Container Depots (ICDs) and Custom Bonded Warehousing to facilitate international trade.

• The historical evolution of CWC, as noted in statement 3, traces back to the Second World War. In 1942, a separate Food Department was created to manage food administration during the war. Post-independence, specifically between 1947 and 1958, the warehousing functions were restructured, eventually leading to the enactment of the Warehousing Corporations Act. The CWC was formally established in 1957.

• Today, it plays a pivotal role in maintaining India’s food security by managing buffer stocks and supporting the Public Distribution System (PDS). By improving storage efficiency, the CWC contributes significantly to the national goal of reducing logistics costs and minimizing post-harvest losses in the agricultural value chain.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With reference to “Oleum”, which of the following statements is correct? (a) It is produced by directly dissolving sulfur dioxide in water to prevent acid mist. (b) It is less corrosive than diluted sulfuric acid when it comes into contact with human tissue. (c) It consists of sulfur trioxide dissolved in concentrated sulfuric acid. (d) It is primarily used as a cooling agent in nuclear reactors due to its high freezing point. Correct Solution: C Oleum, also called fuming sulfuric acid, is a chemical compound formed by dissolving sulfur trioxide (SO₃) in concentrated sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄). Its general composition can be represented as H₂SO₄·xSO₃. Oleum is widely used in the industrial production of sulfuric acid, particularly in the Contact Process, where sulfur trioxide cannot be directly absorbed in water because it forms a fine acid mist that is difficult to condense. Instead, sulfur trioxide is absorbed in concentrated sulfuric acid to produce oleum, which can later be diluted with water to obtain sulfuric acid safely. Statement (a) is incorrect because sulfur dioxide is not dissolved in water to produce oleum; it involves sulfur trioxide and sulfuric acid. Statement (b) is incorrect because oleum is extremely corrosive and highly reactive, often more dangerous than diluted sulfuric acid due to its strong dehydrating and oxidizing properties. Statement (d) is incorrect since oleum has no role as a coolant in nuclear reactors. Nuclear reactors typically use water, heavy water, liquid sodium, or gases as coolants. Incorrect Solution: C Oleum, also called fuming sulfuric acid, is a chemical compound formed by dissolving sulfur trioxide (SO₃) in concentrated sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄). Its general composition can be represented as H₂SO₄·xSO₃. Oleum is widely used in the industrial production of sulfuric acid, particularly in the Contact Process, where sulfur trioxide cannot be directly absorbed in water because it forms a fine acid mist that is difficult to condense. Instead, sulfur trioxide is absorbed in concentrated sulfuric acid to produce oleum, which can later be diluted with water to obtain sulfuric acid safely. Statement (a) is incorrect because sulfur dioxide is not dissolved in water to produce oleum; it involves sulfur trioxide and sulfuric acid. Statement (b) is incorrect because oleum is extremely corrosive and highly reactive, often more dangerous than diluted sulfuric acid due to its strong dehydrating and oxidizing properties. Statement (d) is incorrect since oleum has no role as a coolant in nuclear reactors. Nuclear reactors typically use water, heavy water, liquid sodium, or gases as coolants.

#### 2. Question

With reference to “Oleum”, which of the following statements is correct?

• (a) It is produced by directly dissolving sulfur dioxide in water to prevent acid mist.

• (b) It is less corrosive than diluted sulfuric acid when it comes into contact with human tissue.

• (c) It consists of sulfur trioxide dissolved in concentrated sulfuric acid.

• (d) It is primarily used as a cooling agent in nuclear reactors due to its high freezing point.

Solution: C

• Oleum, also called fuming sulfuric acid, is a chemical compound formed by dissolving sulfur trioxide (SO₃) in concentrated sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄). Its general composition can be represented as H₂SO₄·xSO₃. Oleum is widely used in the industrial production of sulfuric acid, particularly in the Contact Process, where sulfur trioxide cannot be directly absorbed in water because it forms a fine acid mist that is difficult to condense. Instead, sulfur trioxide is absorbed in concentrated sulfuric acid to produce oleum, which can later be diluted with water to obtain sulfuric acid safely.

• Statement (a) is incorrect because sulfur dioxide is not dissolved in water to produce oleum; it involves sulfur trioxide and sulfuric acid.

• Statement (b) is incorrect because oleum is extremely corrosive and highly reactive, often more dangerous than diluted sulfuric acid due to its strong dehydrating and oxidizing properties.

• Statement (d) is incorrect since oleum has no role as a coolant in nuclear reactors. Nuclear reactors typically use water, heavy water, liquid sodium, or gases as coolants.

Solution: C

• Statement (a) is incorrect because sulfur dioxide is not dissolved in water to produce oleum; it involves sulfur trioxide and sulfuric acid.

• Statement (b) is incorrect because oleum is extremely corrosive and highly reactive, often more dangerous than diluted sulfuric acid due to its strong dehydrating and oxidizing properties.

• Statement (d) is incorrect since oleum has no role as a coolant in nuclear reactors. Nuclear reactors typically use water, heavy water, liquid sodium, or gases as coolants.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Karbi Anglong Ginger: It has been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag. It is cultivated primarily using the traditional Jhum and Tila methods. The variety is characterized by low essential oil content and a mild aroma. The Singhasan Hills in Assam serve as a major cultivation hub for this ginger. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Karbi Anglong Ginger is a high-quality agricultural product from Assam that has received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag. Statement 2 is incorrect. It is renowned for its strong pungency and distinct aroma, which stems from its high essential oil content. The ginger is highly sought after in the pharmaceutical and culinary industries precisely because of these potent chemical properties. Statements 2 and 4 are correct. The cultivation is concentrated in the Karbi Anglong district, particularly within the Singhasan Hills. Farmers in this region largely adhere to organic and traditional farming practices, such as Jhum (shifting cultivation) and Tila cultivation. These age-old methods are credited with maintaining the natural quality and medicinal value of the ginger. The recent trial export of this ginger to London signifies a major step in India’s strategy to promote region-specific, value-added agricultural exports. By leveraging the GI tag, local farmers can ensure better price realization in international markets, highlighting the role of traditional knowledge in modern global trade. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Karbi Anglong Ginger is a high-quality agricultural product from Assam that has received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag. Statement 2 is incorrect. It is renowned for its strong pungency and distinct aroma, which stems from its high essential oil content. The ginger is highly sought after in the pharmaceutical and culinary industries precisely because of these potent chemical properties. Statements 2 and 4 are correct. The cultivation is concentrated in the Karbi Anglong district, particularly within the Singhasan Hills. Farmers in this region largely adhere to organic and traditional farming practices, such as Jhum (shifting cultivation) and Tila cultivation. These age-old methods are credited with maintaining the natural quality and medicinal value of the ginger. The recent trial export of this ginger to London signifies a major step in India’s strategy to promote region-specific, value-added agricultural exports. By leveraging the GI tag, local farmers can ensure better price realization in international markets, highlighting the role of traditional knowledge in modern global trade.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Karbi Anglong Ginger:

• It has been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.

• It is cultivated primarily using the traditional Jhum and Tila methods.

• The variety is characterized by low essential oil content and a mild aroma.

• The Singhasan Hills in Assam serve as a major cultivation hub for this ginger.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Karbi Anglong Ginger is a high-quality agricultural product from Assam that has received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. It is renowned for its strong pungency and distinct aroma, which stems from its high essential oil content. The ginger is highly sought after in the pharmaceutical and culinary industries precisely because of these potent chemical properties.

• Statements 2 and 4 are correct. The cultivation is concentrated in the Karbi Anglong district, particularly within the Singhasan Hills. Farmers in this region largely adhere to organic and traditional farming practices, such as Jhum (shifting cultivation) and Tila cultivation. These age-old methods are credited with maintaining the natural quality and medicinal value of the ginger.

• The recent trial export of this ginger to London signifies a major step in India’s strategy to promote region-specific, value-added agricultural exports. By leveraging the GI tag, local farmers can ensure better price realization in international markets, highlighting the role of traditional knowledge in modern global trade.

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Karbi Anglong Ginger is a high-quality agricultural product from Assam that has received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Durand Line. Statement-I: The Durand Line remains a significant source of diplomatic and military friction between Pakistan and Afghanistan. Statement-II: Afghanistan has historically refused to formally recognize the Durand Line as a legitimate international boundary since the creation of Pakistan in 1947. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A The Durand Line is a 2,600-km border established in 1893 through an agreement between Sir Mortimer Durand of British India and Emir Abdur Rahman Khan of Afghanistan. Statement-I is correct because the border is a flashpoint for military clashes and political tension. Statement-II is also correct and provides the underlying reason for this friction. When Pakistan was created in 1947, it inherited the border based on the principle of uti possidetis juris (as you possess under law). However, Afghanistan argued that the original treaty was with the British and expired upon their departure. The refusal to recognize the line stems from the fact that it bisects the Pashtun and Baloch ethnic homelands, splitting families and tribes between two different sovereign states. This ethnic division has fueled cross-border militancy and “Greater Pashtunistan” sentiments. Recent years have seen increased tension as Pakistan began fencing the border to control movement, a move strongly opposed by authorities in Kabul. Thus, the lack of formal recognition (Statement-II) is the direct cause of the ongoing bilateral disputes and security challenges (Statement-I) along this rugged, mountainous frontier. Incorrect Solution: A The Durand Line is a 2,600-km border established in 1893 through an agreement between Sir Mortimer Durand of British India and Emir Abdur Rahman Khan of Afghanistan. Statement-I is correct because the border is a flashpoint for military clashes and political tension. Statement-II is also correct and provides the underlying reason for this friction. When Pakistan was created in 1947, it inherited the border based on the principle of uti possidetis juris (as you possess under law). However, Afghanistan argued that the original treaty was with the British and expired upon their departure. The refusal to recognize the line stems from the fact that it bisects the Pashtun and Baloch ethnic homelands, splitting families and tribes between two different sovereign states. This ethnic division has fueled cross-border militancy and “Greater Pashtunistan” sentiments. Recent years have seen increased tension as Pakistan began fencing the border to control movement, a move strongly opposed by authorities in Kabul. Thus, the lack of formal recognition (Statement-II) is the direct cause of the ongoing bilateral disputes and security challenges (Statement-I) along this rugged, mountainous frontier.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Durand Line.

Statement-I: The Durand Line remains a significant source of diplomatic and military friction between Pakistan and Afghanistan.

Statement-II: Afghanistan has historically refused to formally recognize the Durand Line as a legitimate international boundary since the creation of Pakistan in 1947.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• The Durand Line is a 2,600-km border established in 1893 through an agreement between Sir Mortimer Durand of British India and Emir Abdur Rahman Khan of Afghanistan.

• Statement-I is correct because the border is a flashpoint for military clashes and political tension.

• Statement-II is also correct and provides the underlying reason for this friction. When Pakistan was created in 1947, it inherited the border based on the principle of uti possidetis juris (as you possess under law). However, Afghanistan argued that the original treaty was with the British and expired upon their departure.

• The refusal to recognize the line stems from the fact that it bisects the Pashtun and Baloch ethnic homelands, splitting families and tribes between two different sovereign states. This ethnic division has fueled cross-border militancy and “Greater Pashtunistan” sentiments. Recent years have seen increased tension as Pakistan began fencing the border to control movement, a move strongly opposed by authorities in Kabul.

• Thus, the lack of formal recognition (Statement-II) is the direct cause of the ongoing bilateral disputes and security challenges (Statement-I) along this rugged, mountainous frontier.

Solution: A

• The Durand Line is a 2,600-km border established in 1893 through an agreement between Sir Mortimer Durand of British India and Emir Abdur Rahman Khan of Afghanistan.

• Statement-I is correct because the border is a flashpoint for military clashes and political tension.

• Thus, the lack of formal recognition (Statement-II) is the direct cause of the ongoing bilateral disputes and security challenges (Statement-I) along this rugged, mountainous frontier.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz: It serves as the primary maritime link between the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden. It is situated between the coastlines of Saudi Arabia to the south and Iran to the north. It is currently the busiest oil transit chokepoint in the world, surpassing the Strait of Malacca. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect because the strait connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea, not the Red Sea. Statement 2 is incorrect because the waterway lies between Iran (to the north) and Oman (to the south). Specifically, the Musandam Peninsula of Oman forms the southern coast of the strait. Saudi Arabia does not share a coastline with the Strait of Hormuz. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while it is a critical energy corridor carrying roughly 20% of the world’s oil supply, it is technically ranked as the second-busiest oil transit chokepoint, with the Strait of Malacca usually seeing higher total volumes of oil and commercial traffic. However, its strategic importance is unparalleled because there are limited pipeline alternatives for the oil and LNG produced by Gulf nations like Qatar and Kuwait. At its narrowest, the shipping lanes are only about 3 km wide in each direction, making it a highly vulnerable “global chokepoint.” Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect because the strait connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea, not the Red Sea. Statement 2 is incorrect because the waterway lies between Iran (to the north) and Oman (to the south). Specifically, the Musandam Peninsula of Oman forms the southern coast of the strait. Saudi Arabia does not share a coastline with the Strait of Hormuz. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while it is a critical energy corridor carrying roughly 20% of the world’s oil supply, it is technically ranked as the second-busiest oil transit chokepoint, with the Strait of Malacca usually seeing higher total volumes of oil and commercial traffic. However, its strategic importance is unparalleled because there are limited pipeline alternatives for the oil and LNG produced by Gulf nations like Qatar and Kuwait. At its narrowest, the shipping lanes are only about 3 km wide in each direction, making it a highly vulnerable “global chokepoint.”

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz:

• It serves as the primary maritime link between the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden.

• It is situated between the coastlines of Saudi Arabia to the south and Iran to the north.

• It is currently the busiest oil transit chokepoint in the world, surpassing the Strait of Malacca.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the strait connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea, not the Red Sea.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because the waterway lies between Iran (to the north) and Oman (to the south). Specifically, the Musandam Peninsula of Oman forms the southern coast of the strait. Saudi Arabia does not share a coastline with the Strait of Hormuz.

• Statement 3 is incorrect because, while it is a critical energy corridor carrying roughly 20% of the world’s oil supply, it is technically ranked as the second-busiest oil transit chokepoint, with the Strait of Malacca usually seeing higher total volumes of oil and commercial traffic.

• However, its strategic importance is unparalleled because there are limited pipeline alternatives for the oil and LNG produced by Gulf nations like Qatar and Kuwait. At its narrowest, the shipping lanes are only about 3 km wide in each direction, making it a highly vulnerable “global chokepoint.”

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the strait connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea, not the Red Sea.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points The “Brahminy Duck”, recently seen in the news for its community-led protection in Ladakh, is the common name for: (a) Bar-headed Goose (b) Ruddy Shelduck (c) Black-necked Crane (d) Great Crested Grebe Correct Solution: B The Ruddy Shelduck is widely known in the Indian subcontinent as the Brahminy duck. This species has gained recent attention due to the conservation efforts of the residents of Mudh village in Ladakh. For over twenty years, the villagers have protected these birds, particularly during the breeding season. Since the ducks nest in high-altitude areas, the villagers help “escort” the young fledglings safely to the Indus River to protect them from predators and ensure their survival. This bird is easily identifiable by its distinctive orange-brown (ruddy) plumage and its creamy white head. It is a large waterfowl that belongs to the family Anatidae. Although it is a migratory bird that winters in various parts of South Asia, Ladakh is its primary and only known breeding site within India. Its presence in high-altitude wetlands makes it an important indicator of ecosystem health. The bird also holds significant spiritual value in the region, appearing frequently in folklore and being protected due to its status as a symbol of fidelity in Buddhist traditions. Incorrect Solution: B The Ruddy Shelduck is widely known in the Indian subcontinent as the Brahminy duck. This species has gained recent attention due to the conservation efforts of the residents of Mudh village in Ladakh. For over twenty years, the villagers have protected these birds, particularly during the breeding season. Since the ducks nest in high-altitude areas, the villagers help “escort” the young fledglings safely to the Indus River to protect them from predators and ensure their survival. This bird is easily identifiable by its distinctive orange-brown (ruddy) plumage and its creamy white head. It is a large waterfowl that belongs to the family Anatidae. Although it is a migratory bird that winters in various parts of South Asia, Ladakh is its primary and only known breeding site within India. Its presence in high-altitude wetlands makes it an important indicator of ecosystem health. The bird also holds significant spiritual value in the region, appearing frequently in folklore and being protected due to its status as a symbol of fidelity in Buddhist traditions.

#### 6. Question

The “Brahminy Duck”, recently seen in the news for its community-led protection in Ladakh, is the common name for:

• (a) Bar-headed Goose

• (b) Ruddy Shelduck

• (c) Black-necked Crane

• (d) Great Crested Grebe

Solution: B

• The Ruddy Shelduck is widely known in the Indian subcontinent as the Brahminy duck. This species has gained recent attention due to the conservation efforts of the residents of Mudh village in Ladakh. For over twenty years, the villagers have protected these birds, particularly during the breeding season. Since the ducks nest in high-altitude areas, the villagers help “escort” the young fledglings safely to the Indus River to protect them from predators and ensure their survival.

• This bird is easily identifiable by its distinctive orange-brown (ruddy) plumage and its creamy white head. It is a large waterfowl that belongs to the family Anatidae. Although it is a migratory bird that winters in various parts of South Asia, Ladakh is its primary and only known breeding site within India. Its presence in high-altitude wetlands makes it an important indicator of ecosystem health. The bird also holds significant spiritual value in the region, appearing frequently in folklore and being protected due to its status as a symbol of fidelity in Buddhist traditions.

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Central Warehousing Corporation (CWC): Statement I: The CWC functions as a statutory body established to support the integrated supply chain management of foodgrains. Statement II: It has the authority to acquire and lease land for the expansion of warehousing infrastructure across various states. Statement III: Its role is limited to the storage of agricultural produce and does not extend to industrial logistics or container freight. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: C Statement I is a correct general description of CWC’s mission. Statement II is correct; CWC has the mandate to expand its network by acquiring or leasing land to build godowns and logistics hubs. Statement III is incorrect because CWC’s role is not limited to agricultural produce. It is heavily involved in industrial logistics, operating Inland Container Depots (ICDs), Container Freight Stations (CFSs), and Custom Bonded Warehouses for a variety of manufactured and imported goods. Statement II provides a functional explanation for how CWC achieves the goal mentioned in Statement I (integrated supply chain management requires physical infrastructure). Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is a correct general description of CWC’s mission. Statement II is correct; CWC has the mandate to expand its network by acquiring or leasing land to build godowns and logistics hubs. Statement III is incorrect because CWC’s role is not limited to agricultural produce. It is heavily involved in industrial logistics, operating Inland Container Depots (ICDs), Container Freight Stations (CFSs), and Custom Bonded Warehouses for a variety of manufactured and imported goods. Statement II provides a functional explanation for how CWC achieves the goal mentioned in Statement I (integrated supply chain management requires physical infrastructure).

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about the Central Warehousing Corporation (CWC):

Statement I: The CWC functions as a statutory body established to support the integrated supply chain management of foodgrains.

Statement II: It has the authority to acquire and lease land for the expansion of warehousing infrastructure across various states.

Statement III: Its role is limited to the storage of agricultural produce and does not extend to industrial logistics or container freight.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: C

• Statement I is a correct general description of CWC’s mission.

• Statement II is correct; CWC has the mandate to expand its network by acquiring or leasing land to build godowns and logistics hubs.

• Statement III is incorrect because CWC’s role is not limited to agricultural produce. It is heavily involved in industrial logistics, operating Inland Container Depots (ICDs), Container Freight Stations (CFSs), and Custom Bonded Warehouses for a variety of manufactured and imported goods.

• Statement II provides a functional explanation for how CWC achieves the goal mentioned in Statement I (integrated supply chain management requires physical infrastructure).

Solution: C

• Statement I is a correct general description of CWC’s mission.

• Statement II is correct; CWC has the mandate to expand its network by acquiring or leasing land to build godowns and logistics hubs.

• Statement II provides a functional explanation for how CWC achieves the goal mentioned in Statement I (integrated supply chain management requires physical infrastructure).

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following: Statement I: MPs enjoy absolute immunity under Article 105(2) for anything said inside the Parliament. Statement II: The Union Government can move a privilege notice against a member for making misleading statements. Statement III: Courts are barred from questioning the validity of any proceedings in Parliament on the grounds of procedural irregularity. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: B Statement I is a core fact: Article 105(2) provides that no MP shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given in Parliament. Statement II is correct; while members are immune from courts, they are not immune from the House itself. If a member (like the LoP) makes baseless or misleading statements, the government or any other member can move a Privilege Notice. This ensures internal accountability. Statement III is correct; Article 122 protects the “sanctity of the house” by preventing judicial interference in internal proceedings. Regarding the explanation: Statement III explains Statement I because the immunity from courts is bolstered by the fact that courts cannot even look into “procedural irregularities” within the House. Incorrect Solution: B Statement I is a core fact: Article 105(2) provides that no MP shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given in Parliament. Statement II is correct; while members are immune from courts, they are not immune from the House itself. If a member (like the LoP) makes baseless or misleading statements, the government or any other member can move a Privilege Notice. This ensures internal accountability. Statement III is correct; Article 122 protects the “sanctity of the house” by preventing judicial interference in internal proceedings. Regarding the explanation: Statement III explains Statement I because the immunity from courts is bolstered by the fact that courts cannot even look into “procedural irregularities” within the House.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following:

Statement I: MPs enjoy absolute immunity under Article 105(2) for anything said inside the Parliament.

Statement II: The Union Government can move a privilege notice against a member for making misleading statements.

Statement III: Courts are barred from questioning the validity of any proceedings in Parliament on the grounds of procedural irregularity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: B

• Statement I is a core fact: Article 105(2) provides that no MP shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given in Parliament.

• Statement II is correct; while members are immune from courts, they are not immune from the House itself. If a member (like the LoP) makes baseless or misleading statements, the government or any other member can move a Privilege Notice. This ensures internal accountability.

• Statement III is correct; Article 122 protects the “sanctity of the house” by preventing judicial interference in internal proceedings. Regarding the explanation: Statement III explains Statement I because the immunity from courts is bolstered by the fact that courts cannot even look into “procedural irregularities” within the House.

Solution: B

• Statement I is a core fact: Article 105(2) provides that no MP shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given in Parliament.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Prahaar’ Anti-Terror Policy: It marks India’s transition to a reactive policing model for handling internal security threats. It represents India’s first-ever integrated national counter-terrorism doctrine and strategy. The policy is executed through a centralized mechanism that excludes the participation of state-level security agencies. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Prahaar Anti-Terror Policy represents a landmark shift in India’s internal security architecture. Statement 1 is incorrect because the policy specifically marks a doctrinal shift from reactive policing to a proactive, intelligence-led model. Instead of simply responding to attacks after they occur, Prahaar focuses on pre-emptive disruption of terror networks. Statement 2 is correct; it is indeed India’s first integrated national counter-terrorism policy, formalizing a unified framework for prevention, response, and recovery. Statement 3 is incorrect because the policy adopts a whole-of-government approach, which necessitates seamless coordination between central, state, and even district-level security agencies. The significance of Prahaar lies in its Seven-Pillar (PRAHAAR) framework, which addresses the entire lifecycle of terrorism, from radicalization and recruitment to financing and recovery. By targeting the terror ecosystem (logistics, cyber networks, and dark web), the policy acknowledges that modern terrorism is a hybrid threat. It integrates human rights-based processes with technology-centric security to ensure that the rule of law is maintained while neutralizing sophisticated threats like crypto-financing and drone warfare. This integrated strategy ensures that India’s response is no longer fragmented but structured under a single national doctrine. Incorrect Solution: A The Prahaar Anti-Terror Policy represents a landmark shift in India’s internal security architecture. Statement 1 is incorrect because the policy specifically marks a doctrinal shift from reactive policing to a proactive, intelligence-led model. Instead of simply responding to attacks after they occur, Prahaar focuses on pre-emptive disruption of terror networks. Statement 2 is correct; it is indeed India’s first integrated national counter-terrorism policy, formalizing a unified framework for prevention, response, and recovery. Statement 3 is incorrect because the policy adopts a whole-of-government approach, which necessitates seamless coordination between central, state, and even district-level security agencies. The significance of Prahaar lies in its Seven-Pillar (PRAHAAR) framework, which addresses the entire lifecycle of terrorism, from radicalization and recruitment to financing and recovery. By targeting the terror ecosystem (logistics, cyber networks, and dark web), the policy acknowledges that modern terrorism is a hybrid threat. It integrates human rights-based processes with technology-centric security to ensure that the rule of law is maintained while neutralizing sophisticated threats like crypto-financing and drone warfare. This integrated strategy ensures that India’s response is no longer fragmented but structured under a single national doctrine.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Prahaar’ Anti-Terror Policy:

• It marks India’s transition to a reactive policing model for handling internal security threats.

• It represents India’s first-ever integrated national counter-terrorism doctrine and strategy.

• The policy is executed through a centralized mechanism that excludes the participation of state-level security agencies.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The Prahaar Anti-Terror Policy represents a landmark shift in India’s internal security architecture.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the policy specifically marks a doctrinal shift from reactive policing to a proactive, intelligence-led model. Instead of simply responding to attacks after they occur, Prahaar focuses on pre-emptive disruption of terror networks.

• Statement 2 is correct; it is indeed India’s first integrated national counter-terrorism policy, formalizing a unified framework for prevention, response, and recovery.

• Statement 3 is incorrect because the policy adopts a whole-of-government approach, which necessitates seamless coordination between central, state, and even district-level security agencies.

• The significance of Prahaar lies in its Seven-Pillar (PRAHAAR) framework, which addresses the entire lifecycle of terrorism, from radicalization and recruitment to financing and recovery. By targeting the terror ecosystem (logistics, cyber networks, and dark web), the policy acknowledges that modern terrorism is a hybrid threat. It integrates human rights-based processes with technology-centric security to ensure that the rule of law is maintained while neutralizing sophisticated threats like crypto-financing and drone warfare.

• This integrated strategy ensures that India’s response is no longer fragmented but structured under a single national doctrine.

Solution: A

• The Prahaar Anti-Terror Policy represents a landmark shift in India’s internal security architecture.

• Statement 2 is correct; it is indeed India’s first integrated national counter-terrorism policy, formalizing a unified framework for prevention, response, and recovery.

• This integrated strategy ensures that India’s response is no longer fragmented but structured under a single national doctrine.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The National Monetisation Pipeline 2.0 (NMP 2.0) primarily targets the divestment of equity in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) to meet fiscal targets. Statement-II: Asset recycling under NMP 2.0 aims to unlock value from operational brownfield assets to finance fresh infrastructure creation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect because the National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP) 2.0 is fundamentally different from disinvestment or privatization. While disinvestment involves selling government equity in PSUs, NMP focuses on monetising operational public infrastructure assets without transferring ownership. The government retains the title to the assets, while the private sector is given the right to operate them for a fixed period through models like InvITs (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) or PPP concessions. Statement-II is correct and represents the core philosophy of the NMP: Asset Recycling. The objective is to unlock the “idle” capital tied up in brownfield assets (existing, operational projects like highways or power plants) and reinvest those proceeds into greenfield projects (new infrastructure). This mechanism allows the government to accelerate capital expenditure (CAPEX) without significantly increasing the fiscal deficit or direct budgetary burden. By providing a medium-term roadmap (FY 2026–2030), NMP 2.0 offers visibility to global and domestic investors, strengthening the overall PPP ecosystem. The focus is on transferring the “operating risk” to the private sector, which is often more efficient in managing such assets, while the public sector focuses on building new core infrastructure for the nation. Incorrect Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect because the National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP) 2.0 is fundamentally different from disinvestment or privatization. While disinvestment involves selling government equity in PSUs, NMP focuses on monetising operational public infrastructure assets without transferring ownership. The government retains the title to the assets, while the private sector is given the right to operate them for a fixed period through models like InvITs (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) or PPP concessions. Statement-II is correct and represents the core philosophy of the NMP: Asset Recycling. The objective is to unlock the “idle” capital tied up in brownfield assets (existing, operational projects like highways or power plants) and reinvest those proceeds into greenfield projects (new infrastructure). This mechanism allows the government to accelerate capital expenditure (CAPEX) without significantly increasing the fiscal deficit or direct budgetary burden. By providing a medium-term roadmap (FY 2026–2030), NMP 2.0 offers visibility to global and domestic investors, strengthening the overall PPP ecosystem. The focus is on transferring the “operating risk” to the private sector, which is often more efficient in managing such assets, while the public sector focuses on building new core infrastructure for the nation.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The National Monetisation Pipeline 2.0 (NMP 2.0) primarily targets the divestment of equity in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) to meet fiscal targets.

Statement-II: Asset recycling under NMP 2.0 aims to unlock value from operational brownfield assets to finance fresh infrastructure creation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: D

• Statement-I is incorrect because the National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP) 2.0 is fundamentally different from disinvestment or privatization. While disinvestment involves selling government equity in PSUs, NMP focuses on monetising operational public infrastructure assets without transferring ownership. The government retains the title to the assets, while the private sector is given the right to operate them for a fixed period through models like InvITs (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) or PPP concessions.

• Statement-II is correct and represents the core philosophy of the NMP: Asset Recycling. The objective is to unlock the “idle” capital tied up in brownfield assets (existing, operational projects like highways or power plants) and reinvest those proceeds into greenfield projects (new infrastructure). This mechanism allows the government to accelerate capital expenditure (CAPEX) without significantly increasing the fiscal deficit or direct budgetary burden.

• By providing a medium-term roadmap (FY 2026–2030), NMP 2.0 offers visibility to global and domestic investors, strengthening the overall PPP ecosystem. The focus is on transferring the “operating risk” to the private sector, which is often more efficient in managing such assets, while the public sector focuses on building new core infrastructure for the nation.

Solution: D

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