UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 4 February 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points In the context of the Indian economy and Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs), which one of the following is the primary objective of granting ‘Miniratna’ status to companies like Yantra India Limited? (a) To prepare the CPSE for immediate privatization through strategic disinvestment. (b) To mandate the inclusion of at least five Cabinet Ministers on the Board of Directors. (c) To ensure that the CPSE receives 100% of its capital expenditure from the Union Budget. (d) To provide enhanced financial and operational autonomy for better global competitiveness. Correct Solution: D The ‘Miniratna’ scheme was introduced by the Government of India in 1997 to identify and empower efficient and profit-making CPSEs. The primary objective (Option d) is to decentralize decision-making and provide these enterprises with greater financial and operational autonomy. This allows them to respond more effectively to market signals and compete both domestically and internationally without seeking government approval for every capital investment. Granting Miniratna Category-I status to Yantra India Limited (YIL) signifies that the government recognizes its potential for growth. For a CPSE to be eligible, it must have made profits continuously for the last three years and have a positive net worth. Furthermore, it must not depend on budgetary support or government guarantees for its operations. By granting this status, the board is empowered to incur capital expenditure on new projects or modernization up to ₹500 crore or their net worth, whichever is less. This shift from centralized control to board-level empowerment is a hallmark of India’s public sector reforms aimed at improving the efficiency of state-owned assets. Incorrect Solution: D The ‘Miniratna’ scheme was introduced by the Government of India in 1997 to identify and empower efficient and profit-making CPSEs. The primary objective (Option d) is to decentralize decision-making and provide these enterprises with greater financial and operational autonomy. This allows them to respond more effectively to market signals and compete both domestically and internationally without seeking government approval for every capital investment. Granting Miniratna Category-I status to Yantra India Limited (YIL) signifies that the government recognizes its potential for growth. For a CPSE to be eligible, it must have made profits continuously for the last three years and have a positive net worth. Furthermore, it must not depend on budgetary support or government guarantees for its operations. By granting this status, the board is empowered to incur capital expenditure on new projects or modernization up to ₹500 crore or their net worth, whichever is less. This shift from centralized control to board-level empowerment is a hallmark of India’s public sector reforms aimed at improving the efficiency of state-owned assets.

#### 1. Question

In the context of the Indian economy and Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs), which one of the following is the primary objective of granting ‘Miniratna’ status to companies like Yantra India Limited?

• (a) To prepare the CPSE for immediate privatization through strategic disinvestment.

• (b) To mandate the inclusion of at least five Cabinet Ministers on the Board of Directors.

• (c) To ensure that the CPSE receives 100% of its capital expenditure from the Union Budget.

• (d) To provide enhanced financial and operational autonomy for better global competitiveness.

Solution: D

• The ‘Miniratna’ scheme was introduced by the Government of India in 1997 to identify and empower efficient and profit-making CPSEs. The primary objective (Option d) is to decentralize decision-making and provide these enterprises with greater financial and operational autonomy. This allows them to respond more effectively to market signals and compete both domestically and internationally without seeking government approval for every capital investment.

• Granting Miniratna Category-I status to Yantra India Limited (YIL) signifies that the government recognizes its potential for growth. For a CPSE to be eligible, it must have made profits continuously for the last three years and have a positive net worth. Furthermore, it must not depend on budgetary support or government guarantees for its operations.

• By granting this status, the board is empowered to incur capital expenditure on new projects or modernization up to ₹500 crore or their net worth, whichever is less. This shift from centralized control to board-level empowerment is a hallmark of India’s public sector reforms aimed at improving the efficiency of state-owned assets.

Solution: D

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Motion of Thanks’ to the President’s Address in the Indian Parliament: The President’s Address is a constitutional requirement under Article 87(1) at the beginning of every session of Parliament. The Motion of Thanks provides an opportunity for the Parliament to discuss the government’s policies and programs. If the Motion of Thanks is defeated in the Lok Sabha, it amounts to a defeat of the government. Any amendment to the Motion of Thanks passed in the Rajya Sabha requires the immediate resignation of the Prime Minister. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B The Motion of Thanks is a vital instrument of parliamentary accountability. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Special Address under Article 87(1) is mandated only at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the commencement of the first session of every year (the Budget Session), not “every session.” Statement 2 is correct as the debate on the Motion of Thanks is wide-ranging, allowing members to critique or support the government’s roadmap presented in the address. Statement 3 is correct. Since the address is prepared by the Council of Ministers, the passage of the Motion of Thanks is seen as a vote of confidence. Its defeat in the Lok Sabha signifies that the government has lost the majority, leading to its collapse. Statement 4 is incorrect. Amendments have been passed in the Rajya Sabha five times (most recently in 2015 and 2016). Since the government is not collectively responsible to the Rajya Sabha, such amendments express the House’s dissent but do not necessitate the Prime Minister’s resignation. However, in the Lok Sabha, no amendment has ever been carried, as it would imply a loss of confidence. Incorrect Solution: B The Motion of Thanks is a vital instrument of parliamentary accountability. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Special Address under Article 87(1) is mandated only at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the commencement of the first session of every year (the Budget Session), not “every session.” Statement 2 is correct as the debate on the Motion of Thanks is wide-ranging, allowing members to critique or support the government’s roadmap presented in the address. Statement 3 is correct. Since the address is prepared by the Council of Ministers, the passage of the Motion of Thanks is seen as a vote of confidence. Its defeat in the Lok Sabha signifies that the government has lost the majority, leading to its collapse. Statement 4 is incorrect. Amendments have been passed in the Rajya Sabha five times (most recently in 2015 and 2016). Since the government is not collectively responsible to the Rajya Sabha, such amendments express the House’s dissent but do not necessitate the Prime Minister’s resignation. However, in the Lok Sabha, no amendment has ever been carried, as it would imply a loss of confidence.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Motion of Thanks’ to the President’s Address in the Indian Parliament:

• The President’s Address is a constitutional requirement under Article 87(1) at the beginning of every session of Parliament.

• The Motion of Thanks provides an opportunity for the Parliament to discuss the government’s policies and programs.

• If the Motion of Thanks is defeated in the Lok Sabha, it amounts to a defeat of the government.

• Any amendment to the Motion of Thanks passed in the Rajya Sabha requires the immediate resignation of the Prime Minister.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• The Motion of Thanks is a vital instrument of parliamentary accountability.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the Special Address under Article 87(1) is mandated only at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the commencement of the first session of every year (the Budget Session), not “every session.”

• Statement 2 is correct as the debate on the Motion of Thanks is wide-ranging, allowing members to critique or support the government’s roadmap presented in the address.

• Statement 3 is correct. Since the address is prepared by the Council of Ministers, the passage of the Motion of Thanks is seen as a vote of confidence. Its defeat in the Lok Sabha signifies that the government has lost the majority, leading to its collapse.

Statement 4 is incorrect. Amendments have been passed in the Rajya Sabha five times (most recently in 2015 and 2016). Since the government is not collectively responsible to the Rajya Sabha, such amendments express the House’s dissent but do not necessitate the Prime Minister’s resignation. However, in the Lok Sabha, no amendment has ever been carried, as it would imply a loss of confidence.

Solution: B

• The Motion of Thanks is a vital instrument of parliamentary accountability.

• Statement 2 is correct as the debate on the Motion of Thanks is wide-ranging, allowing members to critique or support the government’s roadmap presented in the address.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider List-I (Tributary) and List-II (Main River): List-I (Tributary) List-II (Main River) A. Markandeya 1. Pennaiyar B. Bhavani 2. Cauvery C. Pambar 3. Pennaiyar How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Markandeya (A) is a major tributary of the Pennaiyar River (1). It is currently at the heart of the inter-state water dispute between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, specifically regarding the construction of dams. Bhavani (B) is a well-known tributary of the Cauvery (2), often confused with Pennaiyar because they share the same geographical region of Southern India. Pambar (C) is another significant tributary of the Pennaiyar (3). The Pennaiyar (also known as Thenpennai or Dakshina Pinakini) originates in the Nandi Hills of Karnataka and flows through Tamil Nadu into the Bay of Bengal. It is a seasonal river, and its water security is crucial for districts like Krishnagiri and Cuddalore. Incorrect Solution: C Markandeya (A) is a major tributary of the Pennaiyar River (1). It is currently at the heart of the inter-state water dispute between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, specifically regarding the construction of dams. Bhavani (B) is a well-known tributary of the Cauvery (2), often confused with Pennaiyar because they share the same geographical region of Southern India. Pambar (C) is another significant tributary of the Pennaiyar (3). The Pennaiyar (also known as Thenpennai or Dakshina Pinakini) originates in the Nandi Hills of Karnataka and flows through Tamil Nadu into the Bay of Bengal. It is a seasonal river, and its water security is crucial for districts like Krishnagiri and Cuddalore.

#### 3. Question

Consider List-I (Tributary) and List-II (Main River):

List-I (Tributary) | List-II (Main River)

A. Markandeya | 1. Pennaiyar

B. Bhavani | 2. Cauvery

C. Pambar | 3. Pennaiyar

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Markandeya (A) is a major tributary of the Pennaiyar River (1). It is currently at the heart of the inter-state water dispute between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, specifically regarding the construction of dams.

• Bhavani (B) is a well-known tributary of the Cauvery (2), often confused with Pennaiyar because they share the same geographical region of Southern India.

• Pambar (C) is another significant tributary of the Pennaiyar (3).

The Pennaiyar (also known as Thenpennai or Dakshina Pinakini) originates in the Nandi Hills of Karnataka and flows through Tamil Nadu into the Bay of Bengal. It is a seasonal river, and its water security is crucial for districts like Krishnagiri and Cuddalore.

Solution: C

• Bhavani (B) is a well-known tributary of the Cauvery (2), often confused with Pennaiyar because they share the same geographical region of Southern India.

• Pambar (C) is another significant tributary of the Pennaiyar (3).

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points The State Bank of India (SBI) recently launched ‘CHAKRA’. Which of the following best describes its purpose? (a) A dedicated cell for the recovery of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) from the textile sector. (b) A global initiative to facilitate cross-border payments in Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC). (c) A digital platform for the instant disbursement of Mudra loans to MSMEs. (d) A Centre of Excellence to strengthen knowledge-led financing for sunrise sectors. Correct Solution: D SBI’s ‘CHAKRA’ (Option d) is a specialized Centre of Excellence (CoE) designed to bridge the gap between traditional banking and the complex financing needs of sunrise sectors. Sunrise sectors are high-growth industries that are often technology-intensive and capital-heavy, such as Green Hydrogen, Semiconductors, and Electric Mobility. The ‘CHAKRA’ initiative is knowledge-led, meaning it doesn’t just provide loans but also conducts deep sectoral research, publishes white papers, and develops advanced risk assessment frameworks tailored to these emerging industries. These sectors are expected to require an estimated investment of ₹100 lakh crore by 2030. By creating CHAKRA, SBI aims to build internal expertise to better evaluate the risks and potentials of technologies like Advanced Cell Chemistry or Smart Infrastructure. This allows for the creation of innovative financing models that align with government policies like the PLI schemes, thereby strengthening India’s green transition and technological self-reliance. Incorrect Solution: D SBI’s ‘CHAKRA’ (Option d) is a specialized Centre of Excellence (CoE) designed to bridge the gap between traditional banking and the complex financing needs of sunrise sectors. Sunrise sectors are high-growth industries that are often technology-intensive and capital-heavy, such as Green Hydrogen, Semiconductors, and Electric Mobility. The ‘CHAKRA’ initiative is knowledge-led, meaning it doesn’t just provide loans but also conducts deep sectoral research, publishes white papers, and develops advanced risk assessment frameworks tailored to these emerging industries. These sectors are expected to require an estimated investment of ₹100 lakh crore by 2030. By creating CHAKRA, SBI aims to build internal expertise to better evaluate the risks and potentials of technologies like Advanced Cell Chemistry or Smart Infrastructure. This allows for the creation of innovative financing models that align with government policies like the PLI schemes, thereby strengthening India’s green transition and technological self-reliance.

#### 4. Question

The State Bank of India (SBI) recently launched ‘CHAKRA’. Which of the following best describes its purpose?

• (a) A dedicated cell for the recovery of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) from the textile sector.

• (b) A global initiative to facilitate cross-border payments in Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC).

• (c) A digital platform for the instant disbursement of Mudra loans to MSMEs.

• (d) A Centre of Excellence to strengthen knowledge-led financing for sunrise sectors.

Solution: D

• SBI’s ‘CHAKRA’ (Option d) is a specialized Centre of Excellence (CoE) designed to bridge the gap between traditional banking and the complex financing needs of sunrise sectors. Sunrise sectors are high-growth industries that are often technology-intensive and capital-heavy, such as Green Hydrogen, Semiconductors, and Electric Mobility.

• The ‘CHAKRA’ initiative is knowledge-led, meaning it doesn’t just provide loans but also conducts deep sectoral research, publishes white papers, and develops advanced risk assessment frameworks tailored to these emerging industries.

• These sectors are expected to require an estimated investment of ₹100 lakh crore by 2030. By creating CHAKRA, SBI aims to build internal expertise to better evaluate the risks and potentials of technologies like Advanced Cell Chemistry or Smart Infrastructure.

• This allows for the creation of innovative financing models that align with government policies like the PLI schemes, thereby strengthening India’s green transition and technological self-reliance.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Motion of Thanks to the President’s Address is considered a “policy debate” rather than a mere ceremonial event. Statement II: Failure to pass the Motion of Thanks in the Lok Sabha is seen as a lack of confidence in the Council of Ministers. Statement III: The Prime Minister traditionally replies to the debate on the Motion of Thanks before it is put to vote. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct because the Motion of Thanks is the first major opportunity each year for the House to scrutinize the government’s performance and future goals. Statement II is correct; since the address is a statement of government policy, its rejection by the popularly elected Lok Sabha is equivalent to a No-Confidence Motion, necessitating the government’s resignation. This accountability mechanism is what transforms the address from a ceremony into a high-stakes policy debate. Statement III is correct; the Prime Minister’s reply serves as the government’s final defense and clarification of the points raised during the discussion. Both Statements II and III explain Statement I because the severe consequence of defeat (Statement II) and the high-level response by the head of government (Statement III) are exactly what imbue the Motion with its political and policy significance. Without these elements, the “Thanks” would be a mere formality. Therefore, they collectively justify why the event is categorized as a substantive policy debate. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct because the Motion of Thanks is the first major opportunity each year for the House to scrutinize the government’s performance and future goals. Statement II is correct; since the address is a statement of government policy, its rejection by the popularly elected Lok Sabha is equivalent to a No-Confidence Motion, necessitating the government’s resignation. This accountability mechanism is what transforms the address from a ceremony into a high-stakes policy debate. Statement III is correct; the Prime Minister’s reply serves as the government’s final defense and clarification of the points raised during the discussion. Both Statements II and III explain Statement I because the severe consequence of defeat (Statement II) and the high-level response by the head of government (Statement III) are exactly what imbue the Motion with its political and policy significance. Without these elements, the “Thanks” would be a mere formality. Therefore, they collectively justify why the event is categorized as a substantive policy debate.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Motion of Thanks to the President’s Address is considered a “policy debate” rather than a mere ceremonial event.

Statement II: Failure to pass the Motion of Thanks in the Lok Sabha is seen as a lack of confidence in the Council of Ministers.

Statement III: The Prime Minister traditionally replies to the debate on the Motion of Thanks before it is put to vote.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct because the Motion of Thanks is the first major opportunity each year for the House to scrutinize the government’s performance and future goals.

• Statement II is correct; since the address is a statement of government policy, its rejection by the popularly elected Lok Sabha is equivalent to a No-Confidence Motion, necessitating the government’s resignation. This accountability mechanism is what transforms the address from a ceremony into a high-stakes policy debate.

• Statement III is correct; the Prime Minister’s reply serves as the government’s final defense and clarification of the points raised during the discussion.

Both Statements II and III explain Statement I because the severe consequence of defeat (Statement II) and the high-level response by the head of government (Statement III) are exactly what imbue the Motion with its political and policy significance. Without these elements, the “Thanks” would be a mere formality. Therefore, they collectively justify why the event is categorized as a substantive policy debate.

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct because the Motion of Thanks is the first major opportunity each year for the House to scrutinize the government’s performance and future goals.

• Statement III is correct; the Prime Minister’s reply serves as the government’s final defense and clarification of the points raised during the discussion.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points The Supreme Court recently directed the constitution of a tribunal for the Pennaiyar River water dispute. Which provision of the Constitution allows a state to file a suit in the Supreme Court for such inter-state disputes? (a) Article 123 (b) Article 131 (c) Article 262 (d) Article 356 Correct Solution: B Article 131 (Option b) provides the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, allowing it to hear disputes between the Government of India and one or more States, or between two or more States. Tamil Nadu invoked this article to seek the constitution of a tribunal. However, one must distinguish this from Article 262, which specifically deals with the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers. Under Article 262, Parliament enacted the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, which allows for the creation of specific Tribunals. While Article 131 is the “door” to the Supreme Court for states, the Court often directs the government to act under the 1956 Act (as seen in the Pennaiyar case). Article 123 relates to the President’s power to promulgate ordinances, and Article 356 relates to President’s Rule. The Pennaiyar dispute, centered on the Markandeya River (a tributary), illustrates how Article 131 remains a critical tool for states to resolve federal conflicts. Incorrect Solution: B Article 131 (Option b) provides the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, allowing it to hear disputes between the Government of India and one or more States, or between two or more States. Tamil Nadu invoked this article to seek the constitution of a tribunal. However, one must distinguish this from Article 262, which specifically deals with the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers. Under Article 262, Parliament enacted the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, which allows for the creation of specific Tribunals. While Article 131 is the “door” to the Supreme Court for states, the Court often directs the government to act under the 1956 Act (as seen in the Pennaiyar case). Article 123 relates to the President’s power to promulgate ordinances, and Article 356 relates to President’s Rule. The Pennaiyar dispute, centered on the Markandeya River (a tributary), illustrates how Article 131 remains a critical tool for states to resolve federal conflicts.

#### 6. Question

The Supreme Court recently directed the constitution of a tribunal for the Pennaiyar River water dispute. Which provision of the Constitution allows a state to file a suit in the Supreme Court for such inter-state disputes?

• (a) Article 123

• (b) Article 131

• (c) Article 262

• (d) Article 356

Solution: B

• Article 131 (Option b) provides the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, allowing it to hear disputes between the Government of India and one or more States, or between two or more States. Tamil Nadu invoked this article to seek the constitution of a tribunal.

• However, one must distinguish this from Article 262, which specifically deals with the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers. Under Article 262, Parliament enacted the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, which allows for the creation of specific Tribunals.

• While Article 131 is the “door” to the Supreme Court for states, the Court often directs the government to act under the 1956 Act (as seen in the Pennaiyar case).

• Article 123 relates to the President’s power to promulgate ordinances, and Article 356 relates to President’s Rule.

• The Pennaiyar dispute, centered on the Markandeya River (a tributary), illustrates how Article 131 remains a critical tool for states to resolve federal conflicts.

Solution: B

• While Article 131 is the “door” to the Supreme Court for states, the Court often directs the government to act under the 1956 Act (as seen in the Pennaiyar case).

• Article 123 relates to the President’s power to promulgate ordinances, and Article 356 relates to President’s Rule.

• The Pennaiyar dispute, centered on the Markandeya River (a tributary), illustrates how Article 131 remains a critical tool for states to resolve federal conflicts.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: Living Root Bridges are considered more resilient than modern steel bridges in the Meghalayan plateau. Statement II: Living Root Bridges can withstand extreme floods and storms that would typically destroy conventional infrastructure. Statement III: The bridges take approximately 10 to 15 years to become functional but can last for centuries. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. In the context of the Meghalayan plateau, which experiences some of the highest rainfall in the world, traditional wooden or modern steel structures are prone to rotting or being swept away by flash floods. Living Root Bridges are recognized as being more resilient. Statement II is correct and explains Statement I. The biological nature of the bridge allows it to be deeply anchored in the soil on both banks. Because the roots are alive and flexible, they can absorb the impact of extreme floods and storms without breaking. This resilience is what makes them superior to “dead” infrastructure in this specific high-moisture environment. Statement III is also correct and explains Statement I. The durability of these bridges is a key factor in their resilience. While a modern bridge has a finite lifespan and requires constant maintenance to prevent rust or decay, a root bridge takes 10-15 years to grow but then lasts for centuries (some are over 500 years old). The fact that they “mature” and “strengthen” over time rather than weakening makes them a more stable long-term infrastructure solution for the tribal communities. Therefore, both their immediate ability to withstand storms (II) and their long-term structural integrity (III) explain why they are considered more resilient (I). Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. In the context of the Meghalayan plateau, which experiences some of the highest rainfall in the world, traditional wooden or modern steel structures are prone to rotting or being swept away by flash floods. Living Root Bridges are recognized as being more resilient. Statement II is correct and explains Statement I. The biological nature of the bridge allows it to be deeply anchored in the soil on both banks. Because the roots are alive and flexible, they can absorb the impact of extreme floods and storms without breaking. This resilience is what makes them superior to “dead” infrastructure in this specific high-moisture environment. Statement III is also correct and explains Statement I. The durability of these bridges is a key factor in their resilience. While a modern bridge has a finite lifespan and requires constant maintenance to prevent rust or decay, a root bridge takes 10-15 years to grow but then lasts for centuries (some are over 500 years old). The fact that they “mature” and “strengthen” over time rather than weakening makes them a more stable long-term infrastructure solution for the tribal communities. Therefore, both their immediate ability to withstand storms (II) and their long-term structural integrity (III) explain why they are considered more resilient (I).

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Living Root Bridges are considered more resilient than modern steel bridges in the Meghalayan plateau.

Statement II: Living Root Bridges can withstand extreme floods and storms that would typically destroy conventional infrastructure.

Statement III: The bridges take approximately 10 to 15 years to become functional but can last for centuries.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. In the context of the Meghalayan plateau, which experiences some of the highest rainfall in the world, traditional wooden or modern steel structures are prone to rotting or being swept away by flash floods. Living Root Bridges are recognized as being more resilient.

• Statement II is correct and explains Statement I. The biological nature of the bridge allows it to be deeply anchored in the soil on both banks. Because the roots are alive and flexible, they can absorb the impact of extreme floods and storms without breaking. This resilience is what makes them superior to “dead” infrastructure in this specific high-moisture environment.

• Statement III is also correct and explains Statement I. The durability of these bridges is a key factor in their resilience. While a modern bridge has a finite lifespan and requires constant maintenance to prevent rust or decay, a root bridge takes 10-15 years to grow but then lasts for centuries (some are over 500 years old).

• The fact that they “mature” and “strengthen” over time rather than weakening makes them a more stable long-term infrastructure solution for the tribal communities. Therefore, both their immediate ability to withstand storms (II) and their long-term structural integrity (III) explain why they are considered more resilient (I).

Solution: A

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following countries are members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)? Turkmenistan Islamic Republic of Iran Republic of Belarus Republic of Tajikistan Armenia Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 3 and 5 only Correct Solution: B The SCO currently has 10 member states. These include the five founding members (the “Shanghai Five” minus the name change): China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, and Tajikistan, plus Uzbekistan (joined in 2001). India and Pakistan joined simultaneously in 2017. More recently, the organization expanded to include the Islamic Republic of Iran (2023) and the Republic of Belarus (2024). It is important to note that Turkmenistan is not a member; it maintains a policy of “permanent neutrality” and typically participates as a guest or observer in some international forums but not as a formal member of the SCO. Armenia is a dialogue partner but not a full member. The SCO’s official languages are Russian and Chinese. The expansion of the SCO to include Iran and Belarus signifies a shift toward a more multi-polar regional security and economic architecture in Eurasia, aiming to foster “Mutual trust and mutual benefit” among its diverse member base. Incorrect Solution: B The SCO currently has 10 member states. These include the five founding members (the “Shanghai Five” minus the name change): China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, and Tajikistan, plus Uzbekistan (joined in 2001). India and Pakistan joined simultaneously in 2017. More recently, the organization expanded to include the Islamic Republic of Iran (2023) and the Republic of Belarus (2024). It is important to note that Turkmenistan is not a member; it maintains a policy of “permanent neutrality” and typically participates as a guest or observer in some international forums but not as a formal member of the SCO. Armenia is a dialogue partner but not a full member. The SCO’s official languages are Russian and Chinese. The expansion of the SCO to include Iran and Belarus signifies a shift toward a more multi-polar regional security and economic architecture in Eurasia, aiming to foster “Mutual trust and mutual benefit” among its diverse member base.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following countries are members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)?

• Turkmenistan

• Islamic Republic of Iran

• Republic of Belarus

• Republic of Tajikistan

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (c) 2, 4 and 5 only

• (d) 1, 3 and 5 only

Solution: B

• The SCO currently has 10 member states. These include the five founding members (the “Shanghai Five” minus the name change): China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, and Tajikistan, plus Uzbekistan (joined in 2001). India and Pakistan joined simultaneously in 2017. More recently, the organization expanded to include the Islamic Republic of Iran (2023) and the Republic of Belarus (2024).

• It is important to note that Turkmenistan is not a member; it maintains a policy of “permanent neutrality” and typically participates as a guest or observer in some international forums but not as a formal member of the SCO.

• Armenia is a dialogue partner but not a full member. The SCO’s official languages are Russian and Chinese. The expansion of the SCO to include Iran and Belarus signifies a shift toward a more multi-polar regional security and economic architecture in Eurasia, aiming to foster “Mutual trust and mutual benefit” among its diverse member base.

Solution: B

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to the Economic Survey of India, consider the following statements: The first Economic Survey was presented in the year 1947–48. It is prepared by the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance. Part B of the survey usually contains data-driven analysis of specific socio-economic issues like health and education. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect; the first Economic Survey was presented in 1950–51. Initially, it was part of the Budget documents. Statement 2 is also incorrect because the survey is prepared by the Economics Division of the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA), not the Department of Revenue. While both departments are under the Ministry of Finance, the DEA is specifically responsible for macroeconomic management and the preparation of the Budget and Survey. Statement 3 is correct. Historically, the Survey is divided into two volumes or parts. Part A focuses on the broader macroeconomic review and the outlook for the next fiscal year, while Part B provides a deeper, data-driven analysis of specific sectors like health, education, employment, and climate change. The Survey has significant academic and market value, acting as a blueprint for long-term reforms and a reliable indicator for investors regarding the country’s economic stability. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect; the first Economic Survey was presented in 1950–51. Initially, it was part of the Budget documents. Statement 2 is also incorrect because the survey is prepared by the Economics Division of the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA), not the Department of Revenue. While both departments are under the Ministry of Finance, the DEA is specifically responsible for macroeconomic management and the preparation of the Budget and Survey. Statement 3 is correct. Historically, the Survey is divided into two volumes or parts. Part A focuses on the broader macroeconomic review and the outlook for the next fiscal year, while Part B provides a deeper, data-driven analysis of specific sectors like health, education, employment, and climate change. The Survey has significant academic and market value, acting as a blueprint for long-term reforms and a reliable indicator for investors regarding the country’s economic stability.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the Economic Survey of India, consider the following statements:

• The first Economic Survey was presented in the year 1947–48.

• It is prepared by the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance.

• Part B of the survey usually contains data-driven analysis of specific socio-economic issues like health and education.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect; the first Economic Survey was presented in 1950–51. Initially, it was part of the Budget documents.

• Statement 2 is also incorrect because the survey is prepared by the Economics Division of the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA), not the Department of Revenue. While both departments are under the Ministry of Finance, the DEA is specifically responsible for macroeconomic management and the preparation of the Budget and Survey.

• Statement 3 is correct. Historically, the Survey is divided into two volumes or parts. Part A focuses on the broader macroeconomic review and the outlook for the next fiscal year, while Part B provides a deeper, data-driven analysis of specific sectors like health, education, employment, and climate change.

The Survey has significant academic and market value, acting as a blueprint for long-term reforms and a reliable indicator for investors regarding the country’s economic stability.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect; the first Economic Survey was presented in 1950–51. Initially, it was part of the Budget documents.

The Survey has significant academic and market value, acting as a blueprint for long-term reforms and a reliable indicator for investors regarding the country’s economic stability.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the “Shanghai Spirit”: It is the core philosophy of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO). It emphasizes mutual trust, mutual benefit, equality, and respect for the diversity of civilizations. It promotes the pursuit of common development. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C The “Shanghai Spirit” is the foundational ideological framework that distinguishes the SCO from other regional blocs. All three statements are correct. It is defined by the values of mutual trust, which aims to reduce military tensions; mutual benefit, focusing on economic integration; and equality, ensuring that large and small nations have an equal voice in decision-making (consensus-based). Furthermore, it explicitly calls for respect for the diversity of civilizations, acknowledging that the member states have vastly different political systems, religions, and cultural histories. The pursuit of common development focuses on non-interference and collective prosperity. This philosophy is intended to provide a model for international relations that moves away from Cold War-era “bloc thinking” and toward a multi-polar, cooperative security framework. Incorrect Solution: C The “Shanghai Spirit” is the foundational ideological framework that distinguishes the SCO from other regional blocs. All three statements are correct. It is defined by the values of mutual trust, which aims to reduce military tensions; mutual benefit, focusing on economic integration; and equality, ensuring that large and small nations have an equal voice in decision-making (consensus-based). Furthermore, it explicitly calls for respect for the diversity of civilizations, acknowledging that the member states have vastly different political systems, religions, and cultural histories. The pursuit of common development focuses on non-interference and collective prosperity. This philosophy is intended to provide a model for international relations that moves away from Cold War-era “bloc thinking” and toward a multi-polar, cooperative security framework.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the “Shanghai Spirit”:

• It is the core philosophy of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO).

• It emphasizes mutual trust, mutual benefit, equality, and respect for the diversity of civilizations.

• It promotes the pursuit of common development.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• The “Shanghai Spirit” is the foundational ideological framework that distinguishes the SCO from other regional blocs. All three statements are correct. It is defined by the values of mutual trust, which aims to reduce military tensions; mutual benefit, focusing on economic integration; and equality, ensuring that large and small nations have an equal voice in decision-making (consensus-based).

• Furthermore, it explicitly calls for respect for the diversity of civilizations, acknowledging that the member states have vastly different political systems, religions, and cultural histories. The pursuit of common development focuses on non-interference and collective prosperity. This philosophy is intended to provide a model for international relations that moves away from Cold War-era “bloc thinking” and toward a multi-polar, cooperative security framework.

Solution: C

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