UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 4 December 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to ‘Solar Flares’, consider the following statements: They are sudden explosions of energy caused by the rapid release of magnetic energy stored in twisted magnetic fields near sunspots. A solar flare is always accompanied by a Coronal Mass Ejection (CME). X-class flares can cause global radio blackouts and expose astronauts to damaging radiation. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct: Solar flares are defined as intense bursts of radiation coming from the release of magnetic energy associated with sunspots. The magnetic fields become twisted and stressed (magnetic reconnection), releasing massive energy. Statement 2 is incorrect: While solar flares and Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) often occur together, they are distinct phenomena. A solar flare can erupt alone without a corresponding CME. A flare is a flash of light/radiation, while a CME is a massive cloud of plasma. Solar flares are classified (A, B, C, M, X) based on their peak X-ray brightness (intensity/flux) measured in watts per square meter. Each letter represents a tenfold increase in energy output. Statement 3 is correct: X-class flares are the most intense. They can trigger radio blackouts (R-scale), disrupt navigation systems (GPS), and pose significant radiation risks to satellites and astronauts in space. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct: Solar flares are defined as intense bursts of radiation coming from the release of magnetic energy associated with sunspots. The magnetic fields become twisted and stressed (magnetic reconnection), releasing massive energy. Statement 2 is incorrect: While solar flares and Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) often occur together, they are distinct phenomena. A solar flare can erupt alone without a corresponding CME. A flare is a flash of light/radiation, while a CME is a massive cloud of plasma. Solar flares are classified (A, B, C, M, X) based on their peak X-ray brightness (intensity/flux) measured in watts per square meter. Each letter represents a tenfold increase in energy output. Statement 3 is correct: X-class flares are the most intense. They can trigger radio blackouts (R-scale), disrupt navigation systems (GPS), and pose significant radiation risks to satellites and astronauts in space.

#### 1. Question

With reference to ‘Solar Flares’, consider the following statements:

• They are sudden explosions of energy caused by the rapid release of magnetic energy stored in twisted magnetic fields near sunspots.

• A solar flare is always accompanied by a Coronal Mass Ejection (CME).

• X-class flares can cause global radio blackouts and expose astronauts to damaging radiation.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct: Solar flares are defined as intense bursts of radiation coming from the release of magnetic energy associated with sunspots. The magnetic fields become twisted and stressed (magnetic reconnection), releasing massive energy.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: While solar flares and Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) often occur together, they are distinct phenomena. A solar flare can erupt alone without a corresponding CME. A flare is a flash of light/radiation, while a CME is a massive cloud of plasma.

Solar flares are classified (A, B, C, M, X) based on their peak X-ray brightness (intensity/flux) measured in watts per square meter. Each letter represents a tenfold increase in energy output.

• Statement 3 is correct: X-class flares are the most intense. They can trigger radio blackouts (R-scale), disrupt navigation systems (GPS), and pose significant radiation risks to satellites and astronauts in space.

Solution: A

Solar flares are classified (A, B, C, M, X) based on their peak X-ray brightness (intensity/flux) measured in watts per square meter. Each letter represents a tenfold increase in energy output.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding ‘Opium Poppy Cultivation’ in India: India is the only country in the world that produces licit opium gum for pharmaceutical use. The cultivation of opium poppy is regulated under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985. Opium poppy is a Kharif crop that requires high humidity and waterlogged soil conditions for latex production. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: Globally, most legal opium production utilizes the Concentrate of Poppy Straw (CPS) method. India holds a unique status as the only country that legally produces and exports opium gum (latex) extracted manually for pharmaceutical purposes under strict UN supervision. Statement 2 is correct: All activities related to the cultivation, production, and manufacturing of opium in India are strictly regulated by the Central Government under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985. Licenses are issued to farmers in specific tracts of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh. Statement 3 is incorrect: Opium poppy (Papaver somniferum) is a winter (Rabi) crop, not a Kharif crop. It requires cool, dry regions with low humidity and well-drained soils. High humidity or waterlogging is detrimental to the crop and the quality of latex. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: Globally, most legal opium production utilizes the Concentrate of Poppy Straw (CPS) method. India holds a unique status as the only country that legally produces and exports opium gum (latex) extracted manually for pharmaceutical purposes under strict UN supervision. Statement 2 is correct: All activities related to the cultivation, production, and manufacturing of opium in India are strictly regulated by the Central Government under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985. Licenses are issued to farmers in specific tracts of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh. Statement 3 is incorrect: Opium poppy (Papaver somniferum) is a winter (Rabi) crop, not a Kharif crop. It requires cool, dry regions with low humidity and well-drained soils. High humidity or waterlogging is detrimental to the crop and the quality of latex.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Opium Poppy Cultivation’ in India:

• India is the only country in the world that produces licit opium gum for pharmaceutical use.

• The cultivation of opium poppy is regulated under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985.

• Opium poppy is a Kharif crop that requires high humidity and waterlogged soil conditions for latex production.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct: Globally, most legal opium production utilizes the Concentrate of Poppy Straw (CPS) method. India holds a unique status as the only country that legally produces and exports opium gum (latex) extracted manually for pharmaceutical purposes under strict UN supervision.

• Statement 2 is correct: All activities related to the cultivation, production, and manufacturing of opium in India are strictly regulated by the Central Government under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985. Licenses are issued to farmers in specific tracts of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: Opium poppy (Papaver somniferum) is a winter (Rabi) crop, not a Kharif crop. It requires cool, dry regions with low humidity and well-drained soils. High humidity or waterlogging is detrimental to the crop and the quality of latex.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which one of the following best describes the ‘Afar Triple Junction’? (a) A strategic naval chokepoint between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. (b) A tri-junction point of borders between Ethiopia, Kenya, and Somalia known for piracy. (c) A region in the Himalayas where the Eurasian, Indian, and Burmese plates converge. (d) A meeting point of three tectonic rifts: the Red Sea, Gulf of Aden, and East African rifts. Correct Solution: D Option (d) is correct: The Afar Triple Junction is a geological feature located in the Afar Triangle (Horn of Africa). It is the junction where three divergent plate boundaries meet: the Red Sea Rift, the Gulf of Aden Rift, and the East African Rift. It acts as a central point for the breakup of the African continent. The dynamics here involve the spreading of plates in three different directions, making it one of the most tectonically active and significant regions for studying continental breakup and ocean basin formation. Incorrect Solution: D Option (d) is correct: The Afar Triple Junction is a geological feature located in the Afar Triangle (Horn of Africa). It is the junction where three divergent plate boundaries meet: the Red Sea Rift, the Gulf of Aden Rift, and the East African Rift. It acts as a central point for the breakup of the African continent. The dynamics here involve the spreading of plates in three different directions, making it one of the most tectonically active and significant regions for studying continental breakup and ocean basin formation.

#### 3. Question

Which one of the following best describes the ‘Afar Triple Junction’?

• (a) A strategic naval chokepoint between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman.

• (b) A tri-junction point of borders between Ethiopia, Kenya, and Somalia known for piracy.

• (c) A region in the Himalayas where the Eurasian, Indian, and Burmese plates converge.

• (d) A meeting point of three tectonic rifts: the Red Sea, Gulf of Aden, and East African rifts.

Solution: D

• Option (d) is correct: The Afar Triple Junction is a geological feature located in the Afar Triangle (Horn of Africa). It is the junction where three divergent plate boundaries meet: the Red Sea Rift, the Gulf of Aden Rift, and the East African Rift.

• It acts as a central point for the breakup of the African continent. The dynamics here involve the spreading of plates in three different directions, making it one of the most tectonically active and significant regions for studying continental breakup and ocean basin formation.

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Match the following locations/islands with their geographical features: Column A (Location) Column B (Feature/Description) A. Bitra Island 1. Smallest inhabited island of Lakshadweep B. Lake Tanganyika 2. Formed by crustal subsidence in Western Rift C. Byramgore Reef 3. Located northwest of Bitra in Arabian Sea D. Erta Ale 4. Active volcano in the Eastern Rift Select the correct matching using the codes given below: (a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (c) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 (d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 Correct Solution: A A-1 (Bitra Island): Bitra is the smallest inhabited island of the Lakshadweep archipelago (Amindivi subgroup). B-2 (Lake Tanganyika): Lake Tanganyika is a deep lake formed by subsiding crust in the Western Rift. C-3 (Byramgore Reef): Bitra lies southeast of Byramgore Reef; thus Byramgore is to the northwest/north region relative to Bitra in the Arabian Sea. D-4 (Erta Ale): It is an active volcano located in the volcanic-rich Eastern Rift branch. Incorrect Solution: A A-1 (Bitra Island): Bitra is the smallest inhabited island of the Lakshadweep archipelago (Amindivi subgroup). B-2 (Lake Tanganyika): Lake Tanganyika is a deep lake formed by subsiding crust in the Western Rift. C-3 (Byramgore Reef): Bitra lies southeast of Byramgore Reef; thus Byramgore is to the northwest/north region relative to Bitra in the Arabian Sea. D-4 (Erta Ale): It is an active volcano located in the volcanic-rich Eastern Rift branch.

#### 4. Question

Match the following locations/islands with their geographical features:

| Column A (Location) | Column B (Feature/Description)

A. | Bitra Island | 1. Smallest inhabited island of Lakshadweep

B. | Lake Tanganyika | 2. Formed by crustal subsidence in Western Rift

C. | Byramgore Reef | 3. Located northwest of Bitra in Arabian Sea

D. | Erta Ale | 4. Active volcano in the Eastern Rift

Select the correct matching using the codes given below:

• (a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

• (b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

• (c) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

• (d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Solution: A

• A-1 (Bitra Island): Bitra is the smallest inhabited island of the Lakshadweep archipelago (Amindivi subgroup).

• B-2 (Lake Tanganyika): Lake Tanganyika is a deep lake formed by subsiding crust in the Western Rift.

• C-3 (Byramgore Reef): Bitra lies southeast of Byramgore Reef; thus Byramgore is to the northwest/north region relative to Bitra in the Arabian Sea.

• D-4 (Erta Ale): It is an active volcano located in the volcanic-rich Eastern Rift branch.

Solution: A

• A-1 (Bitra Island): Bitra is the smallest inhabited island of the Lakshadweep archipelago (Amindivi subgroup).

• B-2 (Lake Tanganyika): Lake Tanganyika is a deep lake formed by subsiding crust in the Western Rift.

• C-3 (Byramgore Reef): Bitra lies southeast of Byramgore Reef; thus Byramgore is to the northwest/north region relative to Bitra in the Arabian Sea.

• D-4 (Erta Ale): It is an active volcano located in the volcanic-rich Eastern Rift branch.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the ‘Somali and Nubian Plates’: They are tectonic blocks resulting from the splitting of the African Plate. The divergence between them is causing the formation of the East African Rift. If the current geological processes continue, the Somali plate will eventually fuse with the Arabian plate. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: The African Plate is splitting into two: the larger Nubian Plate (often just called the African Plate) and the smaller Somali Plate. Statement 2 is correct: The driving force of the East African Rift is the divergence (moving apart) of these two plates at a rate of millimeters per year. Statement 3 is incorrect: The progressive divergence may rupture the crust entirely, allowing seafloor spreading to create a new ocean basin, effectively separating the Somali plate from the mainland. It does not suggest fusion with the Arabian plate; rather, the Afar Triple Junction dynamics imply these plates are all moving away from each other (diverging). Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: The African Plate is splitting into two: the larger Nubian Plate (often just called the African Plate) and the smaller Somali Plate. Statement 2 is correct: The driving force of the East African Rift is the divergence (moving apart) of these two plates at a rate of millimeters per year. Statement 3 is incorrect: The progressive divergence may rupture the crust entirely, allowing seafloor spreading to create a new ocean basin, effectively separating the Somali plate from the mainland. It does not suggest fusion with the Arabian plate; rather, the Afar Triple Junction dynamics imply these plates are all moving away from each other (diverging).

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the ‘Somali and Nubian Plates’:

• They are tectonic blocks resulting from the splitting of the African Plate.

• The divergence between them is causing the formation of the East African Rift.

• If the current geological processes continue, the Somali plate will eventually fuse with the Arabian plate.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct: The African Plate is splitting into two: the larger Nubian Plate (often just called the African Plate) and the smaller Somali Plate.

• Statement 2 is correct: The driving force of the East African Rift is the divergence (moving apart) of these two plates at a rate of millimeters per year.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The progressive divergence may rupture the crust entirely, allowing seafloor spreading to create a new ocean basin, effectively separating the Somali plate from the mainland. It does not suggest fusion with the Arabian plate; rather, the Afar Triple Junction dynamics imply these plates are all moving away from each other (diverging).

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct: The African Plate is splitting into two: the larger Nubian Plate (often just called the African Plate) and the smaller Somali Plate.

• Statement 2 is correct: The driving force of the East African Rift is the divergence (moving apart) of these two plates at a rate of millimeters per year.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to the medicinal use of GLP-1 receptor agonists, which of the following statements is incorrect? (a) They were originally developed for the treatment of type-2 diabetes. (b) They are included in the WHO Essential Medicines List for diabetes management. (c) They work solely by increasing the burning of calories in the body without affecting appetite. (d) Their use helps in improving cardiovascular outcomes and kidney complications. Correct Solution: C Option (c) is the incorrect statement: GLP-1 receptor agonists do not work solely by burning calories. Their primary mechanisms are reducing appetite, slowing stomach emptying (which lowers calorie intake), and increasing insulin secretion. Option (a) is correct: They were originally diabetes drugs. Option (b) is correct: They are on the WHO Essential Medicines List. Option (d) is correct: They improve metabolic health, including cardiovascular and kidney issues. Incorrect Solution: C Option (c) is the incorrect statement: GLP-1 receptor agonists do not work solely by burning calories. Their primary mechanisms are reducing appetite, slowing stomach emptying (which lowers calorie intake), and increasing insulin secretion. Option (a) is correct: They were originally diabetes drugs. Option (b) is correct: They are on the WHO Essential Medicines List. Option (d) is correct: They improve metabolic health, including cardiovascular and kidney issues.

#### 6. Question

With reference to the medicinal use of GLP-1 receptor agonists, which of the following statements is incorrect?

• (a) They were originally developed for the treatment of type-2 diabetes.

• (b) They are included in the WHO Essential Medicines List for diabetes management.

• (c) They work solely by increasing the burning of calories in the body without affecting appetite.

• (d) Their use helps in improving cardiovascular outcomes and kidney complications.

Solution: C

• Option (c) is the incorrect statement: GLP-1 receptor agonists do not work solely by burning calories. Their primary mechanisms are reducing appetite, slowing stomach emptying (which lowers calorie intake), and increasing insulin secretion.

• Option (a) is correct: They were originally diabetes drugs.

• Option (b) is correct: They are on the WHO Essential Medicines List.

• Option (d) is correct: They improve metabolic health, including cardiovascular and kidney issues.

Solution: C

• Option (a) is correct: They were originally diabetes drugs.

• Option (b) is correct: They are on the WHO Essential Medicines List.

• Option (d) is correct: They improve metabolic health, including cardiovascular and kidney issues.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the impact of Solar Flares: They can deform Earth’s magnetic field if accompanied by a Coronal Mass Ejection (CME). They can cause drag on low-Earth orbit satellites due to the heating and expansion of the Earth’s atmosphere. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Solar flares themselves emit high-energy radiation, but when they occur along with a Coronal Mass Ejection (CME), the associated plasma cloud and magnetic fields can significantly disturb Earth’s magnetosphere. This leads to geomagnetic storms, deformation of the magnetosphere, and disruptions such as auroras at lower latitudes. This combined effect, rather than radiation alone, is responsible for the strongest geomagnetic disturbances observed on Earth. Statement 2 is correct. Increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares heats the upper atmosphere, causing it to expand. This expansion increases atmospheric density in low-Earth orbit, enhancing aerodynamic drag on satellites. The increased drag can degrade satellite orbits, requiring additional fuel for orbit correction and sometimes leading to premature re-entry of smaller objects. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Solar flares themselves emit high-energy radiation, but when they occur along with a Coronal Mass Ejection (CME), the associated plasma cloud and magnetic fields can significantly disturb Earth’s magnetosphere. This leads to geomagnetic storms, deformation of the magnetosphere, and disruptions such as auroras at lower latitudes. This combined effect, rather than radiation alone, is responsible for the strongest geomagnetic disturbances observed on Earth. Statement 2 is correct. Increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares heats the upper atmosphere, causing it to expand. This expansion increases atmospheric density in low-Earth orbit, enhancing aerodynamic drag on satellites. The increased drag can degrade satellite orbits, requiring additional fuel for orbit correction and sometimes leading to premature re-entry of smaller objects.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about the impact of Solar Flares:

• They can deform Earth’s magnetic field if accompanied by a Coronal Mass Ejection (CME).

• They can cause drag on low-Earth orbit satellites due to the heating and expansion of the Earth’s atmosphere.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Solar flares themselves emit high-energy radiation, but when they occur along with a Coronal Mass Ejection (CME), the associated plasma cloud and magnetic fields can significantly disturb Earth’s magnetosphere. This leads to geomagnetic storms, deformation of the magnetosphere, and disruptions such as auroras at lower latitudes. This combined effect, rather than radiation alone, is responsible for the strongest geomagnetic disturbances observed on Earth.

• Statement 2 is correct. Increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares heats the upper atmosphere, causing it to expand. This expansion increases atmospheric density in low-Earth orbit, enhancing aerodynamic drag on satellites. The increased drag can degrade satellite orbits, requiring additional fuel for orbit correction and sometimes leading to premature re-entry of smaller objects.

Solution: C

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the geography of Indonesia: It is the world’s largest island country, situated between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean. The archipelago is tectonically stable due to its location on the interior of the Eurasian plate. It hosts the Java Trench, which is a deep ocean trench located near the island of Java. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Indonesia is the world’s largest island country (>17,500 islands) and straddles the Equator between the Indian and Pacific Oceans. Statement 2 is incorrect. Indonesia is located on the Pacific Ring of Fire and is one of the most tectonically active zones on Earth, featuring plate collision zones and nearly 130 active volcanoes. It is not stable. Statement 3 is correct. The region hosts deep ocean trenches, specifically the Java Trench (7,450 m), which is associated with the subduction zone near Java. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Indonesia is the world’s largest island country (>17,500 islands) and straddles the Equator between the Indian and Pacific Oceans. Statement 2 is incorrect. Indonesia is located on the Pacific Ring of Fire and is one of the most tectonically active zones on Earth, featuring plate collision zones and nearly 130 active volcanoes. It is not stable. Statement 3 is correct. The region hosts deep ocean trenches, specifically the Java Trench (7,450 m), which is associated with the subduction zone near Java.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the geography of Indonesia:

• It is the world’s largest island country, situated between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean.

• The archipelago is tectonically stable due to its location on the interior of the Eurasian plate.

• It hosts the Java Trench, which is a deep ocean trench located near the island of Java.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Indonesia is the world’s largest island country (>17,500 islands) and straddles the Equator between the Indian and Pacific Oceans.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Indonesia is located on the Pacific Ring of Fire and is one of the most tectonically active zones on Earth, featuring plate collision zones and nearly 130 active volcanoes. It is not stable.

• Statement 3 is correct. The region hosts deep ocean trenches, specifically the Java Trench (7,450 m), which is associated with the subduction zone near Java.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Indonesia is the world’s largest island country (>17,500 islands) and straddles the Equator between the Indian and Pacific Oceans.

• Statement 3 is correct. The region hosts deep ocean trenches, specifically the Java Trench (7,450 m), which is associated with the subduction zone near Java.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to the development of waterways in the Northeast, the “Indo-Bangladesh Protocol (IBP) Routes” are primarily significant for: (a) Defining the maritime boundary between India and Bangladesh in the Bay of Bengal. (b) Diverting water from the Teesta river to the dry regions of Northern Bengal. (c) Providing exclusive fishing rights to indigenous communities in the Brahmaputra delta. (d) Linking the Northeast region with Bangladesh ports to enable trade access to Southeast Asia. Correct Solution: D Indo-Bangladesh Protocol (IBP) Routes are identified routes that link the Northeast with Bangladesh ports. The primary significance is that this connectivity enables trade access to Southeast Asia, reducing the isolation of the Northeast and promoting logistics efficiency. Incorrect Solution: D Indo-Bangladesh Protocol (IBP) Routes are identified routes that link the Northeast with Bangladesh ports. The primary significance is that this connectivity enables trade access to Southeast Asia, reducing the isolation of the Northeast and promoting logistics efficiency.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the development of waterways in the Northeast, the “Indo-Bangladesh Protocol (IBP) Routes” are primarily significant for:

• (a) Defining the maritime boundary between India and Bangladesh in the Bay of Bengal.

• (b) Diverting water from the Teesta river to the dry regions of Northern Bengal.

• (c) Providing exclusive fishing rights to indigenous communities in the Brahmaputra delta.

• (d) Linking the Northeast region with Bangladesh ports to enable trade access to Southeast Asia.

Solution: D

Indo-Bangladesh Protocol (IBP) Routes are identified routes that link the Northeast with Bangladesh ports. The primary significance is that this connectivity enables trade access to Southeast Asia, reducing the isolation of the Northeast and promoting logistics efficiency.

Solution: D

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which one of the following best describes the ‘PEMA Method’ mentioned in the context of the revised Earthquake Design Code 2025? (a) A technique to measure the magnitude of earthquakes using satellite imagery. (b) A construction methodology for retrofitting ancient monuments in seismic zones. (c) An assessment integrating population density, infrastructure, and socioeconomic vulnerability with geological hazard. (d) A protocol for rapid deployment of disaster relief forces during high-intensity tremors. Correct Solution: C The PEMA Method refers to Exposure Mapping incorporated in the revised code. It moves beyond just looking at physical ground shaking. It integrates Population density, Exposure of infrastructure, and socioeconomic vulnerability (likely standing for Population-Exposure-Modelling-Assessment or similar derivation in the code context) with the geological hazard. This ensures that regions with high population or critical infrastructure (like hospitals/power plants) in moderate seismic zones are designed with higher safety standards than uninhabited areas with similar seismic activity. Incorrect Solution: C The PEMA Method refers to Exposure Mapping incorporated in the revised code. It moves beyond just looking at physical ground shaking. It integrates Population density, Exposure of infrastructure, and socioeconomic vulnerability (likely standing for Population-Exposure-Modelling-Assessment or similar derivation in the code context) with the geological hazard. This ensures that regions with high population or critical infrastructure (like hospitals/power plants) in moderate seismic zones are designed with higher safety standards than uninhabited areas with similar seismic activity.

#### 10. Question

Which one of the following best describes the ‘PEMA Method’ mentioned in the context of the revised Earthquake Design Code 2025?

• (a) A technique to measure the magnitude of earthquakes using satellite imagery.

• (b) A construction methodology for retrofitting ancient monuments in seismic zones.

• (c) An assessment integrating population density, infrastructure, and socioeconomic vulnerability with geological hazard.

• (d) A protocol for rapid deployment of disaster relief forces during high-intensity tremors.

Solution: C

The PEMA Method refers to Exposure Mapping incorporated in the revised code. It moves beyond just looking at physical ground shaking. It integrates Population density, Exposure of infrastructure, and socioeconomic vulnerability (likely standing for Population-Exposure-Modelling-Assessment or similar derivation in the code context) with the geological hazard. This ensures that regions with high population or critical infrastructure (like hospitals/power plants) in moderate seismic zones are designed with higher safety standards than uninhabited areas with similar seismic activity.

Solution: C

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