UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 4 April 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA): AFSPA was enacted to address public order issues in disturbed areas. AFSPA is applicable in all northeastern states of India. The law permits armed forces to open fire after due warning if laws are contravened. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 2 is incorrect. About AFSPA: Enactment:Passed by the Parliament in 1958. AFSPA grants special powers to armed forces in disturbed areas to maintain public order. Application: Applied after an area is declared “disturbed” under Section 2 of the Act, due to issues like ethnic, religious, or communal tensions. Declaration of Disturbed Areas: The Central Government, State Governor, or UT Administrator can declare an area as disturbed. Special Powers Under AFSPA: Armed forces can: Prohibit gatherings of five or more people. Use force or open fire after due warning if laws are contravened. Arrest individuals or search premises without warrants on reasonable suspicion. Seize firearms and ban their possession. Hand over arrested persons to local police with a detailed report. Immunity Clause: Armed forces personnel are protected from prosecution unless sanctioned by the Union Government. Current Enforcement: Enforced in Jammu & Kashmir, Assam, Nagaland, parts of Manipur (excluding Imphal), and parts of Arunachal Pradesh. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 2 is incorrect. About AFSPA: Enactment:Passed by the Parliament in 1958. AFSPA grants special powers to armed forces in disturbed areas to maintain public order. Application: Applied after an area is declared “disturbed” under Section 2 of the Act, due to issues like ethnic, religious, or communal tensions. Declaration of Disturbed Areas: The Central Government, State Governor, or UT Administrator can declare an area as disturbed. Special Powers Under AFSPA: Armed forces can: Prohibit gatherings of five or more people. Use force or open fire after due warning if laws are contravened. Arrest individuals or search premises without warrants on reasonable suspicion. Seize firearms and ban their possession. Hand over arrested persons to local police with a detailed report. Immunity Clause: Armed forces personnel are protected from prosecution unless sanctioned by the Union Government. Current Enforcement: Enforced in Jammu & Kashmir, Assam, Nagaland, parts of Manipur (excluding Imphal), and parts of Arunachal Pradesh.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA):

• AFSPA was enacted to address public order issues in disturbed areas.

• AFSPA is applicable in all northeastern states of India.

• The law permits armed forces to open fire after due warning if laws are contravened.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Statement 2 is incorrect.

About AFSPA:

• Enactment:Passed by the Parliament in 1958.

• AFSPA grants special powers to armed forces in disturbed areas to maintain public order.

• Application: Applied after an area is declared “disturbed” under Section 2 of the Act, due to issues like ethnic, religious, or communal tensions.

• Applied after an area is declared “disturbed” under Section 2 of the Act, due to issues like ethnic, religious, or communal tensions.

• Declaration of Disturbed Areas: The Central Government, State Governor, or UT Administrator can declare an area as disturbed.

• The Central Government, State Governor, or UT Administrator can declare an area as disturbed.

Special Powers Under AFSPA:

• Armed forces can: Prohibit gatherings of five or more people. Use force or open fire after due warning if laws are contravened. Arrest individuals or search premises without warrants on reasonable suspicion. Seize firearms and ban their possession. Hand over arrested persons to local police with a detailed report.

• Prohibit gatherings of five or more people.

• Use force or open fire after due warning if laws are contravened.

• Arrest individuals or search premises without warrants on reasonable suspicion.

• Seize firearms and ban their possession.

• Hand over arrested persons to local police with a detailed report.

• Immunity Clause: Armed forces personnel are protected from prosecution unless sanctioned by the Union Government.

• Armed forces personnel are protected from prosecution unless sanctioned by the Union Government.

• Current Enforcement: Enforced in Jammu & Kashmir, Assam, Nagaland, parts of Manipur (excluding Imphal), and parts of Arunachal Pradesh.

• Enforced in Jammu & Kashmir, Assam, Nagaland, parts of Manipur (excluding Imphal), and parts of Arunachal Pradesh.

Solution: a)

Statement 2 is incorrect.

About AFSPA:

• Enactment:Passed by the Parliament in 1958.

• AFSPA grants special powers to armed forces in disturbed areas to maintain public order.

• Application: Applied after an area is declared “disturbed” under Section 2 of the Act, due to issues like ethnic, religious, or communal tensions.

• Applied after an area is declared “disturbed” under Section 2 of the Act, due to issues like ethnic, religious, or communal tensions.

• Declaration of Disturbed Areas: The Central Government, State Governor, or UT Administrator can declare an area as disturbed.

• The Central Government, State Governor, or UT Administrator can declare an area as disturbed.

Special Powers Under AFSPA:

• Prohibit gatherings of five or more people.

• Use force or open fire after due warning if laws are contravened.

• Arrest individuals or search premises without warrants on reasonable suspicion.

• Seize firearms and ban their possession.

• Hand over arrested persons to local police with a detailed report.

• Immunity Clause: Armed forces personnel are protected from prosecution unless sanctioned by the Union Government.

• Armed forces personnel are protected from prosecution unless sanctioned by the Union Government.

• Current Enforcement: Enforced in Jammu & Kashmir, Assam, Nagaland, parts of Manipur (excluding Imphal), and parts of Arunachal Pradesh.

• Enforced in Jammu & Kashmir, Assam, Nagaland, parts of Manipur (excluding Imphal), and parts of Arunachal Pradesh.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the role of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) in non-proliferation: It conducts regular inspections of nuclear facilities globally. It supervises nuclear weapon disarmament initiatives. It ensures compliance with all nuclear-related UN Security Council resolutions. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: a) The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) plays a crucial role in nuclear non-proliferation by ensuring that nuclear materials are used exclusively for peaceful purposes. Statement 1 is correct, as the IAEA conducts regular inspections of nuclear facilities worldwide under its safeguards agreements. These inspections verify that states comply with their obligations under the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and other treaties. Statement 2 is incorrect, as the IAEA does not supervise nuclear weapon disarmament initiatives. Disarmament is primarily overseen by bodies like the UN Office for Disarmament Affairs (UNODA) and other international frameworks. Statement 3 is incorrect, as the IAEA’s mandate is specific to ensuring the peaceful use of nuclear energy and verifying non-proliferation. It does not have the authority to enforce compliance with all nuclear-related UN Security Council resolutions, though it provides technical expertise when required. Incorrect Solution: a) The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) plays a crucial role in nuclear non-proliferation by ensuring that nuclear materials are used exclusively for peaceful purposes. Statement 1 is correct, as the IAEA conducts regular inspections of nuclear facilities worldwide under its safeguards agreements. These inspections verify that states comply with their obligations under the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and other treaties. Statement 2 is incorrect, as the IAEA does not supervise nuclear weapon disarmament initiatives. Disarmament is primarily overseen by bodies like the UN Office for Disarmament Affairs (UNODA) and other international frameworks. Statement 3 is incorrect, as the IAEA’s mandate is specific to ensuring the peaceful use of nuclear energy and verifying non-proliferation. It does not have the authority to enforce compliance with all nuclear-related UN Security Council resolutions, though it provides technical expertise when required.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the role of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) in non-proliferation:

• It conducts regular inspections of nuclear facilities globally.

• It supervises nuclear weapon disarmament initiatives.

• It ensures compliance with all nuclear-related UN Security Council resolutions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a)

The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) plays a crucial role in nuclear non-proliferation by ensuring that nuclear materials are used exclusively for peaceful purposes.

Statement 1 is correct, as the IAEA conducts regular inspections of nuclear facilities worldwide under its safeguards agreements. These inspections verify that states comply with their obligations under the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and other treaties.

Statement 2 is incorrect, as the IAEA does not supervise nuclear weapon disarmament initiatives. Disarmament is primarily overseen by bodies like the UN Office for Disarmament Affairs (UNODA) and other international frameworks.

Statement 3 is incorrect, as the IAEA’s mandate is specific to ensuring the peaceful use of nuclear energy and verifying non-proliferation. It does not have the authority to enforce compliance with all nuclear-related UN Security Council resolutions, though it provides technical expertise when required.

Solution: a)

The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) plays a crucial role in nuclear non-proliferation by ensuring that nuclear materials are used exclusively for peaceful purposes.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which of the following species is endemic to the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve? a) Bengal Tiger b) Olive Ridley Turtle c) Great Indian Bustard d) Star-eyed Bush Frog Correct Solution: d) The star-eyed bush frog (Raorchestes signatus) is an amphibian species endemic to the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, located in the Western Ghats. This reserve is renowned for its rich biodiversity and high levels of endemism, housing a variety of unique flora and fauna. The star-eyed bush frog is one of the region’s exclusive species, adapted to the cool, moist forest conditions. It is typically found in montane forests and grasslands, making its survival intrinsically linked to the Nilgiri ecosystem. Other species mentioned, like the Great Indian Bustard, Olive Ridley Turtle, and Bengal Tiger, are not endemic to the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve but are found in diverse habitats across India. Incorrect Solution: d) The star-eyed bush frog (Raorchestes signatus) is an amphibian species endemic to the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, located in the Western Ghats. This reserve is renowned for its rich biodiversity and high levels of endemism, housing a variety of unique flora and fauna. The star-eyed bush frog is one of the region’s exclusive species, adapted to the cool, moist forest conditions. It is typically found in montane forests and grasslands, making its survival intrinsically linked to the Nilgiri ecosystem. Other species mentioned, like the Great Indian Bustard, Olive Ridley Turtle, and Bengal Tiger, are not endemic to the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve but are found in diverse habitats across India.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following species is endemic to the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve?

• a) Bengal Tiger

• b) Olive Ridley Turtle

• c) Great Indian Bustard

• d) Star-eyed Bush Frog

Solution: d)

The star-eyed bush frog (Raorchestes signatus) is an amphibian species endemic to the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, located in the Western Ghats. This reserve is renowned for its rich biodiversity and high levels of endemism, housing a variety of unique flora and fauna. The star-eyed bush frog is one of the region’s exclusive species, adapted to the cool, moist forest conditions. It is typically found in montane forests and grasslands, making its survival intrinsically linked to the Nilgiri ecosystem.

Other species mentioned, like the Great Indian Bustard, Olive Ridley Turtle, and Bengal Tiger, are not endemic to the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve but are found in diverse habitats across India.

Solution: d)

Other species mentioned, like the Great Indian Bustard, Olive Ridley Turtle, and Bengal Tiger, are not endemic to the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve but are found in diverse habitats across India.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the impact of pathogen spillover: Managed honey bees are unaffected by pathogen spillover in shared habitats. Pathogen spillover improves the biodiversity of wild pollinator species by natural selection. Pathogen spillback from wild pollinators often results in the eradication of diseases in managed honey bees. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: d) Pathogen spillover refers to the transmission of diseases from one species (often managed populations like honey bees) to another (such as wild pollinators) in shared environments, leading to significant ecological consequences. Statement 1 is incorrect because managed honey bees are affected by pathogen spillback. This occurs when pathogens, having infected wild pollinators, return to managed honey bee populations, often in more virulent forms, exacerbating disease impacts. Statement 2 is incorrect as pathogen spillover typically reduces biodiversity. Wild pollinator species, which often lack immunity to introduced pathogens, can experience severe population declines, threatening ecosystems dependent on pollination. Statement 3 is incorrect because pathogen spillback does not eradicate diseases in managed honey bees. Instead, it tends to increase the prevalence and severity of infections, making disease management more challenging. Incorrect Solution: d) Pathogen spillover refers to the transmission of diseases from one species (often managed populations like honey bees) to another (such as wild pollinators) in shared environments, leading to significant ecological consequences. Statement 1 is incorrect because managed honey bees are affected by pathogen spillback. This occurs when pathogens, having infected wild pollinators, return to managed honey bee populations, often in more virulent forms, exacerbating disease impacts. Statement 2 is incorrect as pathogen spillover typically reduces biodiversity. Wild pollinator species, which often lack immunity to introduced pathogens, can experience severe population declines, threatening ecosystems dependent on pollination. Statement 3 is incorrect because pathogen spillback does not eradicate diseases in managed honey bees. Instead, it tends to increase the prevalence and severity of infections, making disease management more challenging.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about the impact of pathogen spillover:

• Managed honey bees are unaffected by pathogen spillover in shared habitats.

• Pathogen spillover improves the biodiversity of wild pollinator species by natural selection.

• Pathogen spillback from wild pollinators often results in the eradication of diseases in managed honey bees.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: d)

Pathogen spillover refers to the transmission of diseases from one species (often managed populations like honey bees) to another (such as wild pollinators) in shared environments, leading to significant ecological consequences.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because managed honey bees are affected by pathogen spillback. This occurs when pathogens, having infected wild pollinators, return to managed honey bee populations, often in more virulent forms, exacerbating disease impacts.

• Statement 2 is incorrect as pathogen spillover typically reduces biodiversity. Wild pollinator species, which often lack immunity to introduced pathogens, can experience severe population declines, threatening ecosystems dependent on pollination.

• Statement 3 is incorrect because pathogen spillback does not eradicate diseases in managed honey bees. Instead, it tends to increase the prevalence and severity of infections, making disease management more challenging.

Solution: d)

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding International Energy Efficiency Hub (IEEH): It succeeded the International Partnership for Energy Efficiency Cooperation (IPEEC). It focuses exclusively on financing energy efficiency projects for developing countries. India’s participation in IEEH is facilitated by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE). Joining the IEEH aligns India’s national initiatives with global energy efficiency efforts. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 3, and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: b) India has recently joined the International Energy Efficiency Hub (IEEH) following approval from the Union Cabinet. About IEEH: o Global Platform: Established in 2020 as a successor to the International Partnership for Energy Efficiency Cooperation (IPEEC), the IEEH fosters global collaboration on energy efficiency. o Membership: Comprises 16 members, including countries such as the USA, UK, China, Germany, and Japan, along with international organizations and private entities. o Mission: Promotes knowledge sharing, innovation, and best practices to advance energy efficiency globally. India’s Role: o Represented by Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), the statutory body facilitating participation and alignment with national goals. o Enhances India’s domestic energy efficiency initiatives through access to global expertise and resources. Incorrect Solution: b) India has recently joined the International Energy Efficiency Hub (IEEH) following approval from the Union Cabinet. About IEEH: o Global Platform: Established in 2020 as a successor to the International Partnership for Energy Efficiency Cooperation (IPEEC), the IEEH fosters global collaboration on energy efficiency. o Membership: Comprises 16 members, including countries such as the USA, UK, China, Germany, and Japan, along with international organizations and private entities. o Mission: Promotes knowledge sharing, innovation, and best practices to advance energy efficiency globally. India’s Role: o Represented by Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), the statutory body facilitating participation and alignment with national goals. o Enhances India’s domestic energy efficiency initiatives through access to global expertise and resources.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding International Energy Efficiency Hub (IEEH):

• It succeeded the International Partnership for Energy Efficiency Cooperation (IPEEC).

• It focuses exclusively on financing energy efficiency projects for developing countries.

• India’s participation in IEEH is facilitated by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).

• Joining the IEEH aligns India’s national initiatives with global energy efficiency efforts.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 1, 3, and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: b)

India has recently joined the International Energy Efficiency Hub (IEEH) following approval from the Union Cabinet.

About IEEH:

o Global Platform: Established in 2020 as a successor to the International Partnership for Energy Efficiency Cooperation (IPEEC), the IEEH fosters global collaboration on energy efficiency.

o Membership: Comprises 16 members, including countries such as the USA, UK, China, Germany, and Japan, along with international organizations and private entities.

o Mission: Promotes knowledge sharing, innovation, and best practices to advance energy efficiency globally.

India’s Role:

o Represented by Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), the statutory body facilitating participation and alignment with national goals.

o Enhances India’s domestic energy efficiency initiatives through access to global expertise and resources.

Solution: b)

India has recently joined the International Energy Efficiency Hub (IEEH) following approval from the Union Cabinet.

About IEEH:

o Global Platform: Established in 2020 as a successor to the International Partnership for Energy Efficiency Cooperation (IPEEC), the IEEH fosters global collaboration on energy efficiency.

o Membership: Comprises 16 members, including countries such as the USA, UK, China, Germany, and Japan, along with international organizations and private entities.

o Mission: Promotes knowledge sharing, innovation, and best practices to advance energy efficiency globally.

India’s Role:

o Represented by Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), the statutory body facilitating participation and alignment with national goals.

o Enhances India’s domestic energy efficiency initiatives through access to global expertise and resources.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following characteristics makes hypersonic missiles difficult to intercept? a) Conventional propulsion systems b) High payload capacity c) Subsonic speeds d) Mid-flight manoeuvrability Correct Solution: d) Hypersonic missiles are exceptionally difficult to intercept due to their combination of mid-flight maneuverability and extremely high speeds (exceeding Mach 5). Unlike traditional ballistic missiles, which follow a predictable trajectory, hypersonic missiles can alter their path mid-flight, making it nearly impossible for missile defense systems to predict their exact course. This capability enables them to evade radar tracking and intercept attempts. Incorrect Solution: d) Hypersonic missiles are exceptionally difficult to intercept due to their combination of mid-flight maneuverability and extremely high speeds (exceeding Mach 5). Unlike traditional ballistic missiles, which follow a predictable trajectory, hypersonic missiles can alter their path mid-flight, making it nearly impossible for missile defense systems to predict their exact course. This capability enables them to evade radar tracking and intercept attempts.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following characteristics makes hypersonic missiles difficult to intercept?

• a) Conventional propulsion systems

• b) High payload capacity

• c) Subsonic speeds

• d) Mid-flight manoeuvrability

Solution: d)

Hypersonic missiles are exceptionally difficult to intercept due to their combination of mid-flight maneuverability and extremely high speeds (exceeding Mach 5). Unlike traditional ballistic missiles, which follow a predictable trajectory, hypersonic missiles can alter their path mid-flight, making it nearly impossible for missile defense systems to predict their exact course. This capability enables them to evade radar tracking and intercept attempts.

Solution: d)

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of the Oriental Pied Hornbill: It is the largest hornbill species found in Asia. It is highly adaptable and widespread across its range. It is known as a ‘forest engineer’ due to its role in seed dispersal. It primarily inhabits subtropical and tropical moist lowland forests. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: c) Statement 1: Incorrect. The Oriental Pied Hornbill is not the largest hornbill species in Asia; it is, in fact, the smallest and one of the most common hornbill species found in the region. Larger species like the Great Hornbill hold the title for size. Statement 2: Correct. The Oriental Pied Hornbill is highly adaptable and thrives in various environments across its range, including forests, plantations, and even human-altered landscapes. Statement 3: Correct. Known as a ‘forest engineer,’ it plays a crucial ecological role by dispersing seeds over large areas, aiding in forest regeneration and biodiversity conservation. Statement 4: Correct. Its primary habitat includes subtropical and tropical moist lowland forests, although its adaptability allows it to survive in secondary forests and other habitats as well. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1: Incorrect. The Oriental Pied Hornbill is not the largest hornbill species in Asia; it is, in fact, the smallest and one of the most common hornbill species found in the region. Larger species like the Great Hornbill hold the title for size. Statement 2: Correct. The Oriental Pied Hornbill is highly adaptable and thrives in various environments across its range, including forests, plantations, and even human-altered landscapes. Statement 3: Correct. Known as a ‘forest engineer,’ it plays a crucial ecological role by dispersing seeds over large areas, aiding in forest regeneration and biodiversity conservation. Statement 4: Correct. Its primary habitat includes subtropical and tropical moist lowland forests, although its adaptability allows it to survive in secondary forests and other habitats as well.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of the Oriental Pied Hornbill:

• It is the largest hornbill species found in Asia.

• It is highly adaptable and widespread across its range.

• It is known as a ‘forest engineer’ due to its role in seed dispersal.

• It primarily inhabits subtropical and tropical moist lowland forests.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: c)

Statement 1: Incorrect. The Oriental Pied Hornbill is not the largest hornbill species in Asia; it is, in fact, the smallest and one of the most common hornbill species found in the region. Larger species like the Great Hornbill hold the title for size.

Statement 2: Correct. The Oriental Pied Hornbill is highly adaptable and thrives in various environments across its range, including forests, plantations, and even human-altered landscapes.

Statement 3: Correct. Known as a ‘forest engineer,’ it plays a crucial ecological role by dispersing seeds over large areas, aiding in forest regeneration and biodiversity conservation.

Statement 4: Correct. Its primary habitat includes subtropical and tropical moist lowland forests, although its adaptability allows it to survive in secondary forests and other habitats as well.

Solution: c)

Statement 2: Correct. The Oriental Pied Hornbill is highly adaptable and thrives in various environments across its range, including forests, plantations, and even human-altered landscapes.

Statement 3: Correct. Known as a ‘forest engineer,’ it plays a crucial ecological role by dispersing seeds over large areas, aiding in forest regeneration and biodiversity conservation.

Statement 4: Correct. Its primary habitat includes subtropical and tropical moist lowland forests, although its adaptability allows it to survive in secondary forests and other habitats as well.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the borrowing powers of the Union and State governments: The Union government can borrow funds without any restriction on the source of borrowing. The State government can borrow within the territory of India but needs prior consent from the Centre if it owes outstanding loans to the Union. The borrowing powers of both the Union and States are subject to laws enacted by their respective legislatures. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1: Incorrect. While the Union government has the power to borrow under Article 292, this borrowing must be secured against the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence, the Union does not have unrestricted borrowing powers. Statement 2: Correct. Under Article 293(3), a State government can borrow within Indian territory. However, if the State owes outstanding loans to the Union government, it must seek the Centre’s consent before borrowing further. This ensures fiscal discipline and avoids excessive indebtedness. Statement 3: Correct. Both Union and State borrowing powers are subject to legislative control under Articles 292 and 293, allowing respective legislatures to enact laws that regulate borrowing limits and procedures. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1: Incorrect. While the Union government has the power to borrow under Article 292, this borrowing must be secured against the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence, the Union does not have unrestricted borrowing powers. Statement 2: Correct. Under Article 293(3), a State government can borrow within Indian territory. However, if the State owes outstanding loans to the Union government, it must seek the Centre’s consent before borrowing further. This ensures fiscal discipline and avoids excessive indebtedness. Statement 3: Correct. Both Union and State borrowing powers are subject to legislative control under Articles 292 and 293, allowing respective legislatures to enact laws that regulate borrowing limits and procedures.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the borrowing powers of the Union and State governments:

• The Union government can borrow funds without any restriction on the source of borrowing.

• The State government can borrow within the territory of India but needs prior consent from the Centre if it owes outstanding loans to the Union.

• The borrowing powers of both the Union and States are subject to laws enacted by their respective legislatures.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Statement 1: Incorrect. While the Union government has the power to borrow under Article 292, this borrowing must be secured against the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence, the Union does not have unrestricted borrowing powers.

Statement 2: Correct. Under Article 293(3), a State government can borrow within Indian territory. However, if the State owes outstanding loans to the Union government, it must seek the Centre’s consent before borrowing further. This ensures fiscal discipline and avoids excessive indebtedness.

Statement 3: Correct. Both Union and State borrowing powers are subject to legislative control under Articles 292 and 293, allowing respective legislatures to enact laws that regulate borrowing limits and procedures.

Solution: a)

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for notification of tiger reserves in India: Only the NTCA can notify a tiger reserve under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The core zone of a tiger reserve allows sustainable human habitation and activities. The state government submits the proposal to the NTCA for evaluation and approval. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: a) Statement 1: Incorrect. Under Section 38V of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, the state government, not the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), has the authority to notify an area as a tiger reserve. The NTCA evaluates and approves proposals submitted by the state governments but does not directly notify reserves. Statement 2: Incorrect. The core zone of a tiger reserve, also known as the critical tiger habitat, is a strictly protected area where human habitation and activities are prohibited to ensure the safety and preservation of tigers and their ecosystems. Sustainable human activities are allowed only in the buffer zone, which surrounds the core area. Statement 3: Correct. The process involves the state government identifying potential tiger habitats and submitting proposals to the NTCA for evaluation and approval. Once approved, the state government officially notifies the tiger reserve. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1: Incorrect. Under Section 38V of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, the state government, not the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), has the authority to notify an area as a tiger reserve. The NTCA evaluates and approves proposals submitted by the state governments but does not directly notify reserves. Statement 2: Incorrect. The core zone of a tiger reserve, also known as the critical tiger habitat, is a strictly protected area where human habitation and activities are prohibited to ensure the safety and preservation of tigers and their ecosystems. Sustainable human activities are allowed only in the buffer zone, which surrounds the core area. Statement 3: Correct. The process involves the state government identifying potential tiger habitats and submitting proposals to the NTCA for evaluation and approval. Once approved, the state government officially notifies the tiger reserve.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for notification of tiger reserves in India:

• Only the NTCA can notify a tiger reserve under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

• The core zone of a tiger reserve allows sustainable human habitation and activities.

• The state government submits the proposal to the NTCA for evaluation and approval.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a)

Statement 1: Incorrect. Under Section 38V of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, the state government, not the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), has the authority to notify an area as a tiger reserve. The NTCA evaluates and approves proposals submitted by the state governments but does not directly notify reserves.

Statement 2: Incorrect. The core zone of a tiger reserve, also known as the critical tiger habitat, is a strictly protected area where human habitation and activities are prohibited to ensure the safety and preservation of tigers and their ecosystems. Sustainable human activities are allowed only in the buffer zone, which surrounds the core area.

Statement 3: Correct. The process involves the state government identifying potential tiger habitats and submitting proposals to the NTCA for evaluation and approval. Once approved, the state government officially notifies the tiger reserve.

Solution: a)

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA): WADA is funded entirely by the International Olympic Committee (IOC). The World Anti-Doping Code standardizes anti-doping rules globally. WADA focuses solely on conducting doping tests during international sporting events. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution: c) Statement 1: The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) is jointly funded by governments and the sports community, including the International Olympic Committee (IOC). The funding is shared equally between these stakeholders, ensuring a balanced representation in anti-doping governance. Statement 2: The World Anti-Doping Code is WADA’s central framework, harmonizing anti-doping policies, rules, and regulations across all sports and countries. It ensures a standardized approach to detecting and penalizing doping globally. Statement 3: WADA’s mandate extends beyond conducting doping tests. It focuses on scientific research, education, capacity-building programs, and collaboration with anti-doping organizations and national authorities. WADA plays a strategic role in developing anti-doping standards and monitoring compliance rather than conducting tests during events. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1: The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) is jointly funded by governments and the sports community, including the International Olympic Committee (IOC). The funding is shared equally between these stakeholders, ensuring a balanced representation in anti-doping governance. Statement 2: The World Anti-Doping Code is WADA’s central framework, harmonizing anti-doping policies, rules, and regulations across all sports and countries. It ensures a standardized approach to detecting and penalizing doping globally. Statement 3: WADA’s mandate extends beyond conducting doping tests. It focuses on scientific research, education, capacity-building programs, and collaboration with anti-doping organizations and national authorities. WADA plays a strategic role in developing anti-doping standards and monitoring compliance rather than conducting tests during events.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA):

• WADA is funded entirely by the International Olympic Committee (IOC).

• The World Anti-Doping Code standardizes anti-doping rules globally.

• WADA focuses solely on conducting doping tests during international sporting events.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 only

• (d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: c)

• Statement 1: The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) is jointly funded by governments and the sports community, including the International Olympic Committee (IOC). The funding is shared equally between these stakeholders, ensuring a balanced representation in anti-doping governance.

• Statement 2: The World Anti-Doping Code is WADA’s central framework, harmonizing anti-doping policies, rules, and regulations across all sports and countries. It ensures a standardized approach to detecting and penalizing doping globally.

• Statement 3: WADA’s mandate extends beyond conducting doping tests. It focuses on scientific research, education, capacity-building programs, and collaboration with anti-doping organizations and national authorities. WADA plays a strategic role in developing anti-doping standards and monitoring compliance rather than conducting tests during events.

Solution: c)

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