UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 31 May 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 10 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 10 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement-I: Brazil’s first reported case of bird flu on a commercial poultry farm in May 2025 immediately triggered alarms regarding global poultry supply chains. Statement-II: Brazil accounts for approximately 5% of the global chicken export market, making its poultry industry a minor player in international trade. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. Brazil reported its first case of highly pathogenic avian influenza on a commercial poultry farm in May 2025. As Brazil is the world’s largest chicken exporter, this development indeed raised significant alarms over global poultry supply chains, with concerns about potential trade disruptions and economic impacts. Importing countries like China immediately reacted by banning imports from affected regions. Statement-II is incorrect. Brazil is not a minor player; it is the world’s largest chicken exporter, accounting for a substantial share (around 35%) of the global chicken trade. Its exports in 2024 were valued at $10 billion, supplying around 150 countries. Therefore, any disruption in its poultry sector has major implications for global supply, contradicting the claim that it accounts for only 5% and is a minor player. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. Brazil reported its first case of highly pathogenic avian influenza on a commercial poultry farm in May 2025. As Brazil is the world’s largest chicken exporter, this development indeed raised significant alarms over global poultry supply chains, with concerns about potential trade disruptions and economic impacts. Importing countries like China immediately reacted by banning imports from affected regions. Statement-II is incorrect. Brazil is not a minor player; it is the world’s largest chicken exporter, accounting for a substantial share (around 35%) of the global chicken trade. Its exports in 2024 were valued at $10 billion, supplying around 150 countries. Therefore, any disruption in its poultry sector has major implications for global supply, contradicting the claim that it accounts for only 5% and is a minor player.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: Brazil’s first reported case of bird flu on a commercial poultry farm in May 2025 immediately triggered alarms regarding global poultry supply chains.

Statement-II: Brazil accounts for approximately 5% of the global chicken export market, making its poultry industry a minor player in international trade.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: c)

• Statement-I is correct. Brazil reported its first case of highly pathogenic avian influenza on a commercial poultry farm in May 2025. As Brazil is the world’s largest chicken exporter, this development indeed raised significant alarms over global poultry supply chains, with concerns about potential trade disruptions and economic impacts. Importing countries like China immediately reacted by banning imports from affected regions.

• Statement-II is incorrect. Brazil is not a minor player; it is the world’s largest chicken exporter, accounting for a substantial share (around 35%) of the global chicken trade. Its exports in 2024 were valued at $10 billion, supplying around 150 countries. Therefore, any disruption in its poultry sector has major implications for global supply, contradicting the claim that it accounts for only 5% and is a minor player.

Solution: c)

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following discoveries attributed to NASA’s GRAIL mission regarding the Moon: The Moon’s farside crust is significantly thinner than its nearside crust, allowing for more extensive volcanic maria formation on the farside. The lunar nearside was found to be more volcanically active in the past due to higher concentrations of heat-producing elements like helium and argon. The GRAIL mission detected that the Moon’s nearside mantle is warmer by approximately 100-200°C compared to the farside mantle. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. Data from the GRAIL mission revealed the opposite: the nearside crust is thinner than the farside crust. This thinner nearside crust allowed magma from the Moon’s interior to erupt more easily, leading to the formation of the large, dark volcanic plains (mare) predominantly seen on the nearside. The farside has a thicker crust, which largely prevented such extensive volcanic activity. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the GRAIL mission confirmed that the Moon’s nearside was more volcanically active due to higher concentrations of heat-producing elements, these elements are primarily thorium and titanium, not helium and argon. These radioactive elements, concentrated in the nearside mantle, generated more heat, fueling volcanism. Statement 3 is correct. One of the key findings from the GRAIL mission and subsequent studies is the thermal asymmetry of the Moon’s mantle. The nearside mantle, enriched with heat-producing radioactive elements, is estimated to be significantly warmer than the farside mantle. This temperature difference is reported to be about 100-200°C (or 180-360°F) hotter on the nearside. This thermal imbalance has played a crucial role in the Moon’s geological evolution and the differences observed between its two hemispheres. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. Data from the GRAIL mission revealed the opposite: the nearside crust is thinner than the farside crust. This thinner nearside crust allowed magma from the Moon’s interior to erupt more easily, leading to the formation of the large, dark volcanic plains (mare) predominantly seen on the nearside. The farside has a thicker crust, which largely prevented such extensive volcanic activity. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the GRAIL mission confirmed that the Moon’s nearside was more volcanically active due to higher concentrations of heat-producing elements, these elements are primarily thorium and titanium, not helium and argon. These radioactive elements, concentrated in the nearside mantle, generated more heat, fueling volcanism. Statement 3 is correct. One of the key findings from the GRAIL mission and subsequent studies is the thermal asymmetry of the Moon’s mantle. The nearside mantle, enriched with heat-producing radioactive elements, is estimated to be significantly warmer than the farside mantle. This temperature difference is reported to be about 100-200°C (or 180-360°F) hotter on the nearside. This thermal imbalance has played a crucial role in the Moon’s geological evolution and the differences observed between its two hemispheres.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following discoveries attributed to NASA’s GRAIL mission regarding the Moon:

• The Moon’s farside crust is significantly thinner than its nearside crust, allowing for more extensive volcanic maria formation on the farside.

• The lunar nearside was found to be more volcanically active in the past due to higher concentrations of heat-producing elements like helium and argon.

• The GRAIL mission detected that the Moon’s nearside mantle is warmer by approximately 100-200°C compared to the farside mantle.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Data from the GRAIL mission revealed the opposite: the nearside crust is thinner than the farside crust. This thinner nearside crust allowed magma from the Moon’s interior to erupt more easily, leading to the formation of the large, dark volcanic plains (mare) predominantly seen on the nearside. The farside has a thicker crust, which largely prevented such extensive volcanic activity.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the GRAIL mission confirmed that the Moon’s nearside was more volcanically active due to higher concentrations of heat-producing elements, these elements are primarily thorium and titanium, not helium and argon. These radioactive elements, concentrated in the nearside mantle, generated more heat, fueling volcanism.

• Statement 3 is correct. One of the key findings from the GRAIL mission and subsequent studies is the thermal asymmetry of the Moon’s mantle. The nearside mantle, enriched with heat-producing radioactive elements, is estimated to be significantly warmer than the farside mantle. This temperature difference is reported to be about 100-200°C (or 180-360°F) hotter on the nearside. This thermal imbalance has played a crucial role in the Moon’s geological evolution and the differences observed between its two hemispheres.

Solution: b)

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which United Nations body is primarily responsible for mandating and establishing UN Peacekeeping operations? (a) The UN General Assembly (b) The UN Secretariat (c) The UN Security Council (d) The International Court of Justice Correct Solution: c) The United Nations Security Council holds the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security. As such, it is the UN body that mandates and establishes UN Peacekeeping operations through formal resolutions. While the UN General Assembly plays a crucial role in approving the budget and apportioning expenses for these operations, and the UN Secretariat, through the Department of Peace Operations (DPO), manages and provides executive direction to these missions, the authority to create, define the mandate of, and terminate peacekeeping operations rests with the Security Council. The International Court of Justice is the principal judicial organ of the UN, dealing with legal disputes between states, and is not involved in mandating peacekeeping operations. Incorrect Solution: c) The United Nations Security Council holds the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security. As such, it is the UN body that mandates and establishes UN Peacekeeping operations through formal resolutions. While the UN General Assembly plays a crucial role in approving the budget and apportioning expenses for these operations, and the UN Secretariat, through the Department of Peace Operations (DPO), manages and provides executive direction to these missions, the authority to create, define the mandate of, and terminate peacekeeping operations rests with the Security Council. The International Court of Justice is the principal judicial organ of the UN, dealing with legal disputes between states, and is not involved in mandating peacekeeping operations.

#### 3. Question

Which United Nations body is primarily responsible for mandating and establishing UN Peacekeeping operations?

• (a) The UN General Assembly

• (b) The UN Secretariat

• (c) The UN Security Council

• (d) The International Court of Justice

Solution: c)

• The United Nations Security Council holds the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security. As such, it is the UN body that mandates and establishes UN Peacekeeping operations through formal resolutions.

• While the UN General Assembly plays a crucial role in approving the budget and apportioning expenses for these operations, and the UN Secretariat, through the Department of Peace Operations (DPO), manages and provides executive direction to these missions, the authority to create, define the mandate of, and terminate peacekeeping operations rests with the Security Council.

• The International Court of Justice is the principal judicial organ of the UN, dealing with legal disputes between states, and is not involved in mandating peacekeeping operations.

Solution: c)

• The International Court of Justice is the principal judicial organ of the UN, dealing with legal disputes between states, and is not involved in mandating peacekeeping operations.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL). Statement-I: United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL) frequently encounters challenges in ensuring its freedom of movement within its designated area of operations in Southern Lebanon. Statement-II: UN Security Council Resolution 1701 mandates UNIFIL to operate independently of the Lebanese Armed Forces and to disarm all armed groups in Lebanon without requiring the consent of the Lebanese government. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. Reports and official statements indicate that UNIFIL faces ongoing challenges, including restrictions on its freedom of movement and access within its area of operations in Southern Lebanon. Incidents such as attacks on patrols or obstruction by various actors contribute to these challenges, despite its mandate guaranteeing freedom of movement. Statement-II is incorrect. UN Security Council Resolution 1701 mandates UNIFIL to accompany and support the Lebanese Armed Forces (LAF) as they deploy throughout the South and to coordinate its activities with the Government of Lebanon. It does not mandate UNIFIL to operate independently of the LAF in all aspects or to unilaterally disarm all armed groups without the consent or lead of the Lebanese government. The resolution calls for the disarmament of all armed groups so that there will be no weapons or authority in Lebanon other than that of the Lebanese State, emphasizing the sovereignty and responsibility of the Lebanese government, with UNIFIL assisting these efforts. The resolution emphasizes assisting the Government of Lebanon in ensuring the return of its effective authority. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. Reports and official statements indicate that UNIFIL faces ongoing challenges, including restrictions on its freedom of movement and access within its area of operations in Southern Lebanon. Incidents such as attacks on patrols or obstruction by various actors contribute to these challenges, despite its mandate guaranteeing freedom of movement. Statement-II is incorrect. UN Security Council Resolution 1701 mandates UNIFIL to accompany and support the Lebanese Armed Forces (LAF) as they deploy throughout the South and to coordinate its activities with the Government of Lebanon. It does not mandate UNIFIL to operate independently of the LAF in all aspects or to unilaterally disarm all armed groups without the consent or lead of the Lebanese government. The resolution calls for the disarmament of all armed groups so that there will be no weapons or authority in Lebanon other than that of the Lebanese State, emphasizing the sovereignty and responsibility of the Lebanese government, with UNIFIL assisting these efforts. The resolution emphasizes assisting the Government of Lebanon in ensuring the return of its effective authority.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL).

Statement-I: United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL) frequently encounters challenges in ensuring its freedom of movement within its designated area of operations in Southern Lebanon.

Statement-II: UN Security Council Resolution 1701 mandates UNIFIL to operate independently of the Lebanese Armed Forces and to disarm all armed groups in Lebanon without requiring the consent of the Lebanese government.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: c)

• Statement-I is correct. Reports and official statements indicate that UNIFIL faces ongoing challenges, including restrictions on its freedom of movement and access within its area of operations in Southern Lebanon. Incidents such as attacks on patrols or obstruction by various actors contribute to these challenges, despite its mandate guaranteeing freedom of movement.

• Statement-II is incorrect. UN Security Council Resolution 1701 mandates UNIFIL to accompany and support the Lebanese Armed Forces (LAF) as they deploy throughout the South and to coordinate its activities with the Government of Lebanon. It does not mandate UNIFIL to operate independently of the LAF in all aspects or to unilaterally disarm all armed groups without the consent or lead of the Lebanese government.

• The resolution calls for the disarmament of all armed groups so that there will be no weapons or authority in Lebanon other than that of the Lebanese State, emphasizing the sovereignty and responsibility of the Lebanese government, with UNIFIL assisting these efforts. The resolution emphasizes assisting the Government of Lebanon in ensuring the return of its effective authority.

Solution: c)

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding New Caledonia: New Caledonia is an independent sovereign nation located in the Southwestern Pacific Ocean. The indigenous Kanak people constitute the majority population and have consistently voted for maintaining close political ties with France. The New Caledonian Barrier Reef, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, encloses one of the world’s largest lagoons. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. New Caledonia is not an independent sovereign nation but a French overseas collectivity. It has administrative ties to France but enjoys a high degree of autonomy. Recent talks over its political status, including proposals for “sovereignty in partnership,” indicate its ongoing dependent status. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the indigenous Kanak people are a significant part of the population and have a strong independence movement (e.g., the Kanak-led FLNKS), they do not constitute an overall majority that has consistently voted for maintaining ties. In fact, referendums on independence (2018, 2020, 2021) were rejected, but the 2021 referendum saw a boycott by pro-independence Kanak groups, and unrest has revived demands for full independence. The political situation is complex, with significant divisions. Statement 3 is correct. New Caledonia is renowned for its New Caledonian Barrier Reef, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. This reef system encloses one of the world’s largest coral reef lagoons, highlighting its significant ecological value. About New Caledonia: Location: Situated in the Southwestern Pacific Ocean, about 1,500 km east of Australia. Capital city: Nouméa. Political Control: It is a French overseas collectively, with administrative ties to France but enjoys a high degree of autonomy. Geopolitical Neighbours: Surrounded by Australia to the west, Vanuatu to the north, and Fiji to the northeast. Historical Context: Colonised by France in 1853 as a penal colony. Indigenous Kanak people resisted colonisation, leading to civil strife in the 1980s. 1998 Nouméa Accord granted significant autonomy and promised referendums on independence (held in 2018, 2020, and 2021 — all rejected). Post-2021 unrest revived demands for full independence, especially after a disputed referendum boycott by the Kanak-led FLNKS. Geographical & Ecological Features: Topography: Main island: Grande Terre — 310 km long and 50 km wide. Rugged terrain with Mount Panié (1,628 m) as the highest point. Enclosed by one of the world’s largest coral reef lagoons (New Caledonian Barrier Reef – UNESCO World Heritage Site). Rivers & Climate Longest river: Diahot River (100 km). Subtropical climate: East coast receives over 3,000 mm rainfall/year and west coast is drier (1,000 mm/year). Biodiversity: Home to Amborella trichopoda, a rare evolutionary link in plant taxonomy. Hosts endemic birds like the kagu, but lacks native mammals and frogs. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. New Caledonia is not an independent sovereign nation but a French overseas collectivity. It has administrative ties to France but enjoys a high degree of autonomy. Recent talks over its political status, including proposals for “sovereignty in partnership,” indicate its ongoing dependent status. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the indigenous Kanak people are a significant part of the population and have a strong independence movement (e.g., the Kanak-led FLNKS), they do not constitute an overall majority that has consistently voted for maintaining ties. In fact, referendums on independence (2018, 2020, 2021) were rejected, but the 2021 referendum saw a boycott by pro-independence Kanak groups, and unrest has revived demands for full independence. The political situation is complex, with significant divisions. Statement 3 is correct. New Caledonia is renowned for its New Caledonian Barrier Reef, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. This reef system encloses one of the world’s largest coral reef lagoons, highlighting its significant ecological value. About New Caledonia: Location: Situated in the Southwestern Pacific Ocean, about 1,500 km east of Australia. Capital city: Nouméa. Political Control: It is a French overseas collectively, with administrative ties to France but enjoys a high degree of autonomy. Geopolitical Neighbours: Surrounded by Australia to the west, Vanuatu to the north, and Fiji to the northeast. Historical Context: Colonised by France in 1853 as a penal colony. Indigenous Kanak people resisted colonisation, leading to civil strife in the 1980s. 1998 Nouméa Accord granted significant autonomy and promised referendums on independence (held in 2018, 2020, and 2021 — all rejected). Post-2021 unrest revived demands for full independence, especially after a disputed referendum boycott by the Kanak-led FLNKS. Geographical & Ecological Features: Topography: Main island: Grande Terre — 310 km long and 50 km wide. Rugged terrain with Mount Panié (1,628 m) as the highest point. Enclosed by one of the world’s largest coral reef lagoons (New Caledonian Barrier Reef – UNESCO World Heritage Site). Rivers & Climate Longest river: Diahot River (100 km). Subtropical climate: East coast receives over 3,000 mm rainfall/year and west coast is drier (1,000 mm/year). Biodiversity: Home to Amborella trichopoda, a rare evolutionary link in plant taxonomy. Hosts endemic birds like the kagu, but lacks native mammals and frogs.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding New Caledonia:

• New Caledonia is an independent sovereign nation located in the Southwestern Pacific Ocean.

• The indigenous Kanak people constitute the majority population and have consistently voted for maintaining close political ties with France.

• The New Caledonian Barrier Reef, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, encloses one of the world’s largest lagoons.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. New Caledonia is not an independent sovereign nation but a French overseas collectivity. It has administrative ties to France but enjoys a high degree of autonomy. Recent talks over its political status, including proposals for “sovereignty in partnership,” indicate its ongoing dependent status.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the indigenous Kanak people are a significant part of the population and have a strong independence movement (e.g., the Kanak-led FLNKS), they do not constitute an overall majority that has consistently voted for maintaining ties. In fact, referendums on independence (2018, 2020, 2021) were rejected, but the 2021 referendum saw a boycott by pro-independence Kanak groups, and unrest has revived demands for full independence. The political situation is complex, with significant divisions.

• Statement 3 is correct. New Caledonia is renowned for its New Caledonian Barrier Reef, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. This reef system encloses one of the world’s largest coral reef lagoons, highlighting its significant ecological value.

About New Caledonia:

• Location: Situated in the Southwestern Pacific Ocean, about 1,500 km east of Australia.

• Capital city: Nouméa.

• Political Control: It is a French overseas collectively, with administrative ties to France but enjoys a high degree of autonomy.

• Geopolitical Neighbours: Surrounded by Australia to the west, Vanuatu to the north, and Fiji to the northeast.

• Historical Context: Colonised by France in 1853 as a penal colony. Indigenous Kanak people resisted colonisation, leading to civil strife in the 1980s. 1998 Nouméa Accord granted significant autonomy and promised referendums on independence (held in 2018, 2020, and 2021 — all rejected). Post-2021 unrest revived demands for full independence, especially after a disputed referendum boycott by the Kanak-led FLNKS.

• Colonised by France in 1853 as a penal colony.

• Indigenous Kanak people resisted colonisation, leading to civil strife in the 1980s.

• 1998 Nouméa Accord granted significant autonomy and promised referendums on independence (held in 2018, 2020, and 2021 — all rejected).

• Post-2021 unrest revived demands for full independence, especially after a disputed referendum boycott by the Kanak-led FLNKS.

• Geographical & Ecological Features:

• Topography: Main island: Grande Terre — 310 km long and 50 km wide. Rugged terrain with Mount Panié (1,628 m) as the highest point. Enclosed by one of the world’s largest coral reef lagoons (New Caledonian Barrier Reef – UNESCO World Heritage Site).

• Main island: Grande Terre — 310 km long and 50 km wide.

• Rugged terrain with Mount Panié (1,628 m) as the highest point.

• Enclosed by one of the world’s largest coral reef lagoons (New Caledonian Barrier Reef – UNESCO World Heritage Site).

• Rivers & Climate Longest river: Diahot River (100 km). Subtropical climate: East coast receives over 3,000 mm rainfall/year and west coast is drier (1,000 mm/year).

• Longest river: Diahot River (100 km).

• Subtropical climate: East coast receives over 3,000 mm rainfall/year and west coast is drier (1,000 mm/year).

• Biodiversity: Home to Amborella trichopoda, a rare evolutionary link in plant taxonomy. Hosts endemic birds like the kagu, but lacks native mammals and frogs.

• Home to Amborella trichopoda, a rare evolutionary link in plant taxonomy.

• Hosts endemic birds like the kagu, but lacks native mammals and frogs.

Solution: b)

About New Caledonia:

• Location: Situated in the Southwestern Pacific Ocean, about 1,500 km east of Australia.

• Capital city: Nouméa.

• Political Control: It is a French overseas collectively, with administrative ties to France but enjoys a high degree of autonomy.

• Geopolitical Neighbours: Surrounded by Australia to the west, Vanuatu to the north, and Fiji to the northeast.

• Colonised by France in 1853 as a penal colony.

• Indigenous Kanak people resisted colonisation, leading to civil strife in the 1980s.

• 1998 Nouméa Accord granted significant autonomy and promised referendums on independence (held in 2018, 2020, and 2021 — all rejected).

• Post-2021 unrest revived demands for full independence, especially after a disputed referendum boycott by the Kanak-led FLNKS.

• Geographical & Ecological Features:

• Main island: Grande Terre — 310 km long and 50 km wide.

• Rugged terrain with Mount Panié (1,628 m) as the highest point.

• Enclosed by one of the world’s largest coral reef lagoons (New Caledonian Barrier Reef – UNESCO World Heritage Site).

• Rivers & Climate Longest river: Diahot River (100 km). Subtropical climate: East coast receives over 3,000 mm rainfall/year and west coast is drier (1,000 mm/year).

• Longest river: Diahot River (100 km).

• Subtropical climate: East coast receives over 3,000 mm rainfall/year and west coast is drier (1,000 mm/year).

• Biodiversity: Home to Amborella trichopoda, a rare evolutionary link in plant taxonomy. Hosts endemic birds like the kagu, but lacks native mammals and frogs.

• Home to Amborella trichopoda, a rare evolutionary link in plant taxonomy.

• Hosts endemic birds like the kagu, but lacks native mammals and frogs.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Malabar Large-Spotted Civet: It is a herbivorous mammal, primarily feeding on fruits and leaves found in the Western Ghats. Its IUCN status is ‘Vulnerable’ due to increasing habitat fragmentation. The species is characterized by grey fur with dark spots. It is a diurnal and social animal, often found in large family groups. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Malabar Large-Spotted Civet is a carnivorous mammal. Its diet includes reptiles, birds, amphibians, fish, small mammals, eggs, and also fruits, making it more of an omnivore with a strong carnivorous preference, rather than primarily herbivorous. Statement 2 is incorrect. The IUCN status of the Malabar Large-Spotted Civet (Viverra civettina) is Critically Endangered (CR), not ‘Vulnerable’. This indicates a very high risk of extinction in the wild. Statement 3 is correct. The physical traits described are accurate: it features grey fur with dark spots, five white tail rings, and a distinct black dorsal crest. It weighs around 18–20 lbs and is estimated to be about 4 feet in length. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Malabar Large-Spotted Civet is nocturnal (active at night) and solitary in behavior, not diurnal (active during the day) and social. Females usually bear 2–3 offspring per litter. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Malabar Large-Spotted Civet is a carnivorous mammal. Its diet includes reptiles, birds, amphibians, fish, small mammals, eggs, and also fruits, making it more of an omnivore with a strong carnivorous preference, rather than primarily herbivorous. Statement 2 is incorrect. The IUCN status of the Malabar Large-Spotted Civet (Viverra civettina) is Critically Endangered (CR), not ‘Vulnerable’. This indicates a very high risk of extinction in the wild. Statement 3 is correct. The physical traits described are accurate: it features grey fur with dark spots, five white tail rings, and a distinct black dorsal crest. It weighs around 18–20 lbs and is estimated to be about 4 feet in length. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Malabar Large-Spotted Civet is nocturnal (active at night) and solitary in behavior, not diurnal (active during the day) and social. Females usually bear 2–3 offspring per litter.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Malabar Large-Spotted Civet:

• It is a herbivorous mammal, primarily feeding on fruits and leaves found in the Western Ghats.

• Its IUCN status is ‘Vulnerable’ due to increasing habitat fragmentation.

• The species is characterized by grey fur with dark spots.

• It is a diurnal and social animal, often found in large family groups.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Malabar Large-Spotted Civet is a carnivorous mammal. Its diet includes reptiles, birds, amphibians, fish, small mammals, eggs, and also fruits, making it more of an omnivore with a strong carnivorous preference, rather than primarily herbivorous.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The IUCN status of the Malabar Large-Spotted Civet (Viverra civettina) is Critically Endangered (CR), not ‘Vulnerable’. This indicates a very high risk of extinction in the wild.

• Statement 3 is correct. The physical traits described are accurate: it features grey fur with dark spots, five white tail rings, and a distinct black dorsal crest. It weighs around 18–20 lbs and is estimated to be about 4 feet in length.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The Malabar Large-Spotted Civet is nocturnal (active at night) and solitary in behavior, not diurnal (active during the day) and social. Females usually bear 2–3 offspring per litter.

Solution: a)

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement-I: Sikkim’s integration into India in 1975 was a result of a military annexation by India following the lapse of British paramountcy. Statement-II: Sikkim shares a border with West Bengal and is strategically important due to its proximity to the Doklam region. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: d) Statement-I is incorrect. Sikkim’s integration into India was not a military annexation. It occurred through a peaceful political process culminating in the 36th Constitutional Amendment in 1975. This followed a referendum in Sikkim where over 97% of the electorate voted in favour of abolishing the monarchy (the Chogyals) and joining India. Prior to this, Sikkim was an Indian protectorate under the 1950 Indo-Sikkim Treaty. Statement-II is correct. Sikkim shares a domestic border with the Indian state of West Bengal to its south. It also holds significant strategic importance for India, particularly due to its location acting as a buffer state with China and its proximity to sensitive areas like the Doklam tri-junction (near the India-China-Bhutan border), which has been a point of geopolitical tension. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement-I is incorrect. Sikkim’s integration into India was not a military annexation. It occurred through a peaceful political process culminating in the 36th Constitutional Amendment in 1975. This followed a referendum in Sikkim where over 97% of the electorate voted in favour of abolishing the monarchy (the Chogyals) and joining India. Prior to this, Sikkim was an Indian protectorate under the 1950 Indo-Sikkim Treaty. Statement-II is correct. Sikkim shares a domestic border with the Indian state of West Bengal to its south. It also holds significant strategic importance for India, particularly due to its location acting as a buffer state with China and its proximity to sensitive areas like the Doklam tri-junction (near the India-China-Bhutan border), which has been a point of geopolitical tension.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: Sikkim’s integration into India in 1975 was a result of a military annexation by India following the lapse of British paramountcy.

Statement-II: Sikkim shares a border with West Bengal and is strategically important due to its proximity to the Doklam region.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: d)

• Statement-I is incorrect. Sikkim’s integration into India was not a military annexation. It occurred through a peaceful political process culminating in the 36th Constitutional Amendment in 1975. This followed a referendum in Sikkim where over 97% of the electorate voted in favour of abolishing the monarchy (the Chogyals) and joining India. Prior to this, Sikkim was an Indian protectorate under the 1950 Indo-Sikkim Treaty.

• Statement-II is correct. Sikkim shares a domestic border with the Indian state of West Bengal to its south. It also holds significant strategic importance for India, particularly due to its location acting as a buffer state with China and its proximity to sensitive areas like the Doklam tri-junction (near the India-China-Bhutan border), which has been a point of geopolitical tension.

Solution: d)

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Official Secrets Act, 1923 (OSA): The Act exclusively criminalizes spying activities undertaken by foreign nationals on Indian soil. Wrongful communication of sensitive information under Section 5 of the OSA is punishable only if it is proven to be intentional. Prosecutions under the OSA must always be conducted in open court to ensure transparency. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Official Secrets Act, 1923, applies broadly to government officials, civilians, foreign nationals, or any individual in possession of classified information. It is not exclusive to foreign nationals; Indian citizens can also be prosecuted under it. Statement 2 is incorrect. Section 5, dealing with wrongful communication, covers situations where even unintentional or careless handling of sensitive information leads to its disclosure. Proof of intent to harm national security might affect the severity, but the act of wrongful communication itself, even if due to negligence, can be punishable. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Act allows for prosecutions under the OSA to be kept confidential (in-camera proceedings) if deemed necessary for national interest or safety. Public disclosure of all proceedings is not mandatory. About the Official Secrets Act, 1923 (OSA): Came into force: 1923 (British colonial era), modeled on the British OSA 1911. Objective: To protect the sovereignty, defence, and intelligence infrastructure of India from espionage and unauthorized disclosures. Key Features: Scope: Applies to government officials, civilians, foreign nationals, or any individual in possession of classified information. Secrecy Scope: Covers official codes, passwords, maps, documents, military locations, sketches, plans, and any sensitive government information. Wide Interpretation: Any action that may prejudice national safety or aid an enemy is considered an offence. Prohibited Acts under the Act: Spying (Section 3): Unauthorized collection, communication, or publication of secret data useful to enemies. Wrongful Communication (Section 5): Even unintentional or careless handling leading to disclosure is punishable. Other Acts: Wearing unauthorized uniforms (Section 6) Forgery of official documents Attempting or abetting any OSA offence (Section 9) Powers of Authorities: Search and Seizure: Officers have powers to raid premises and seize documents suspected of violating the Act. No Need for Public Disclosure: Prosecutions under OSA can be kept confidential for national interest. Penalty Provisions: Section 3 (Spying): Up to 14 years imprisonment for offences related to defence/armed forces. Up to 3 years in other cases. Section 5 (Wrongful Communication): Up to 3 years, or fine, or both. Section 9: Covers attempt, abetment, or incitement—treated as same offence. Additional Charge under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS): Section 152 – Act Endangering Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity Offence: Promoting secession, rebellion, or separatist activities through speech, media, or financial means. Punishment: Life imprisonment, or up to 7 years and fine. Exemption: Peaceful criticism of government actions for lawful reform is not punishable. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Official Secrets Act, 1923, applies broadly to government officials, civilians, foreign nationals, or any individual in possession of classified information. It is not exclusive to foreign nationals; Indian citizens can also be prosecuted under it. Statement 2 is incorrect. Section 5, dealing with wrongful communication, covers situations where even unintentional or careless handling of sensitive information leads to its disclosure. Proof of intent to harm national security might affect the severity, but the act of wrongful communication itself, even if due to negligence, can be punishable. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Act allows for prosecutions under the OSA to be kept confidential (in-camera proceedings) if deemed necessary for national interest or safety. Public disclosure of all proceedings is not mandatory. About the Official Secrets Act, 1923 (OSA): Came into force: 1923 (British colonial era), modeled on the British OSA 1911. Objective: To protect the sovereignty, defence, and intelligence infrastructure of India from espionage and unauthorized disclosures. Key Features: Scope: Applies to government officials, civilians, foreign nationals, or any individual in possession of classified information. Secrecy Scope: Covers official codes, passwords, maps, documents, military locations, sketches, plans, and any sensitive government information. Wide Interpretation: Any action that may prejudice national safety or aid an enemy is considered an offence. Prohibited Acts under the Act: Spying (Section 3): Unauthorized collection, communication, or publication of secret data useful to enemies. Wrongful Communication (Section 5): Even unintentional or careless handling leading to disclosure is punishable. Other Acts: Wearing unauthorized uniforms (Section 6) Forgery of official documents Attempting or abetting any OSA offence (Section 9) Powers of Authorities: Search and Seizure: Officers have powers to raid premises and seize documents suspected of violating the Act. No Need for Public Disclosure: Prosecutions under OSA can be kept confidential for national interest. Penalty Provisions: Section 3 (Spying): Up to 14 years imprisonment for offences related to defence/armed forces. Up to 3 years in other cases. Section 5 (Wrongful Communication): Up to 3 years, or fine, or both. Section 9: Covers attempt, abetment, or incitement—treated as same offence. Additional Charge under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS): Section 152 – Act Endangering Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity Offence: Promoting secession, rebellion, or separatist activities through speech, media, or financial means. Punishment: Life imprisonment, or up to 7 years and fine. Exemption: Peaceful criticism of government actions for lawful reform is not punishable.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Official Secrets Act, 1923 (OSA):

• The Act exclusively criminalizes spying activities undertaken by foreign nationals on Indian soil.

• Wrongful communication of sensitive information under Section 5 of the OSA is punishable only if it is proven to be intentional.

• Prosecutions under the OSA must always be conducted in open court to ensure transparency.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Official Secrets Act, 1923, applies broadly to government officials, civilians, foreign nationals, or any individual in possession of classified information. It is not exclusive to foreign nationals; Indian citizens can also be prosecuted under it.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Section 5, dealing with wrongful communication, covers situations where even unintentional or careless handling of sensitive information leads to its disclosure. Proof of intent to harm national security might affect the severity, but the act of wrongful communication itself, even if due to negligence, can be punishable.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Act allows for prosecutions under the OSA to be kept confidential (in-camera proceedings) if deemed necessary for national interest or safety. Public disclosure of all proceedings is not mandatory.

About the Official Secrets Act, 1923 (OSA):

• Came into force: 1923 (British colonial era), modeled on the British OSA 1911.

• Objective: To protect the sovereignty, defence, and intelligence infrastructure of India from espionage and unauthorized disclosures.

• Key Features:

• Scope: Applies to government officials, civilians, foreign nationals, or any individual in possession of classified information. Secrecy Scope: Covers official codes, passwords, maps, documents, military locations, sketches, plans, and any sensitive government information. Wide Interpretation: Any action that may prejudice national safety or aid an enemy is considered an offence.

• Scope: Applies to government officials, civilians, foreign nationals, or any individual in possession of classified information.

• Secrecy Scope: Covers official codes, passwords, maps, documents, military locations, sketches, plans, and any sensitive government information.

• Wide Interpretation: Any action that may prejudice national safety or aid an enemy is considered an offence.

• Prohibited Acts under the Act:

• Spying (Section 3): Unauthorized collection, communication, or publication of secret data useful to enemies. Wrongful Communication (Section 5): Even unintentional or careless handling leading to disclosure is punishable. Other Acts: Wearing unauthorized uniforms (Section 6) Forgery of official documents Attempting or abetting any OSA offence (Section 9)

• Spying (Section 3): Unauthorized collection, communication, or publication of secret data useful to enemies.

• Wrongful Communication (Section 5): Even unintentional or careless handling leading to disclosure is punishable.

• Other Acts: Wearing unauthorized uniforms (Section 6) Forgery of official documents Attempting or abetting any OSA offence (Section 9)

• Wearing unauthorized uniforms (Section 6)

• Forgery of official documents

• Attempting or abetting any OSA offence (Section 9)

• Powers of Authorities:

• Search and Seizure: Officers have powers to raid premises and seize documents suspected of violating the Act. No Need for Public Disclosure: Prosecutions under OSA can be kept confidential for national interest.

• Search and Seizure: Officers have powers to raid premises and seize documents suspected of violating the Act.

• No Need for Public Disclosure: Prosecutions under OSA can be kept confidential for national interest.

• Penalty Provisions:

• Section 3 (Spying): Up to 14 years imprisonment for offences related to defence/armed forces. Up to 3 years in other cases. Section 5 (Wrongful Communication): Up to 3 years, or fine, or both. Section 9: Covers attempt, abetment, or incitement—treated as same offence.

• Section 3 (Spying): Up to 14 years imprisonment for offences related to defence/armed forces. Up to 3 years in other cases.

• Up to 14 years imprisonment for offences related to defence/armed forces.

• Up to 3 years in other cases.

• Section 5 (Wrongful Communication): Up to 3 years, or fine, or both.

• Section 9: Covers attempt, abetment, or incitement—treated as same offence.

• Additional Charge under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS): Section 152 – Act Endangering Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity

• Section 152 – Act Endangering Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity

• Offence: Promoting secession, rebellion, or separatist activities through speech, media, or financial means. Punishment: Life imprisonment, or up to 7 years and fine. Exemption: Peaceful criticism of government actions for lawful reform is not punishable.

• Offence: Promoting secession, rebellion, or separatist activities through speech, media, or financial means.

• Punishment: Life imprisonment, or up to 7 years and fine.

• Exemption: Peaceful criticism of government actions for lawful reform is not punishable.

Solution: d)

About the Official Secrets Act, 1923 (OSA):

• Came into force: 1923 (British colonial era), modeled on the British OSA 1911.

• Objective: To protect the sovereignty, defence, and intelligence infrastructure of India from espionage and unauthorized disclosures.

• Key Features:

• Scope: Applies to government officials, civilians, foreign nationals, or any individual in possession of classified information.

• Secrecy Scope: Covers official codes, passwords, maps, documents, military locations, sketches, plans, and any sensitive government information.

• Wide Interpretation: Any action that may prejudice national safety or aid an enemy is considered an offence.

• Prohibited Acts under the Act:

• Spying (Section 3): Unauthorized collection, communication, or publication of secret data useful to enemies.

• Wrongful Communication (Section 5): Even unintentional or careless handling leading to disclosure is punishable.

• Other Acts: Wearing unauthorized uniforms (Section 6) Forgery of official documents Attempting or abetting any OSA offence (Section 9)

• Wearing unauthorized uniforms (Section 6)

• Forgery of official documents

• Attempting or abetting any OSA offence (Section 9)

• Powers of Authorities:

• Search and Seizure: Officers have powers to raid premises and seize documents suspected of violating the Act.

• No Need for Public Disclosure: Prosecutions under OSA can be kept confidential for national interest.

• Penalty Provisions:

• Section 3 (Spying): Up to 14 years imprisonment for offences related to defence/armed forces. Up to 3 years in other cases.

• Up to 14 years imprisonment for offences related to defence/armed forces.

• Up to 3 years in other cases.

• Section 5 (Wrongful Communication): Up to 3 years, or fine, or both.

• Section 9: Covers attempt, abetment, or incitement—treated as same offence.

• Additional Charge under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS): Section 152 – Act Endangering Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity

• Section 152 – Act Endangering Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity

• Offence: Promoting secession, rebellion, or separatist activities through speech, media, or financial means.

• Punishment: Life imprisonment, or up to 7 years and fine.

• Exemption: Peaceful criticism of government actions for lawful reform is not punishable.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Operation Olivia: It is a year-round initiative led by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to protect all species of sea turtles found in Indian waters. The operation primarily focuses on the Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary, the world’s largest rookery for Olive Ridley turtles. A key objective is to enforce the mandatory use of Turtle Excluder Devices (TEDs) by fishing trawlers operating along the Odisha coast during the turtle nesting season. The Indian Navy plays the lead role in surface and aerial surveillance for this operation. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Operation Olivia is a flagship marine conservation initiative launched annually by the Indian Coast Guard (ICG), not the MoEFCC, and it specifically runs from November to May. It is primarily focused on the protection of Olive Ridley turtles during their mass nesting season, not all sea turtle species year-round. Statement 2 is incorrect. While Gahirmatha is a critical nesting site, Operation Olivia’s efforts extend to other key nesting beaches in Odisha, including Rushikulya and Devi river mouths. It is not exclusively focused on Gahirmatha. Statement 3 is correct. A significant objective of Operation Olivia is to promote and enforce the use of Turtle Excluder Devices (TEDs) among fishing communities. This helps in reducing accidental turtle mortality in fishing nets. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) is the lead organization conducting surveillance through surface patrols and aerial missions for Operation Olivia, in collaboration with other agencies and communities. The Indian Navy is not the lead agency for this specific operation. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Operation Olivia is a flagship marine conservation initiative launched annually by the Indian Coast Guard (ICG), not the MoEFCC, and it specifically runs from November to May. It is primarily focused on the protection of Olive Ridley turtles during their mass nesting season, not all sea turtle species year-round. Statement 2 is incorrect. While Gahirmatha is a critical nesting site, Operation Olivia’s efforts extend to other key nesting beaches in Odisha, including Rushikulya and Devi river mouths. It is not exclusively focused on Gahirmatha. Statement 3 is correct. A significant objective of Operation Olivia is to promote and enforce the use of Turtle Excluder Devices (TEDs) among fishing communities. This helps in reducing accidental turtle mortality in fishing nets. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) is the lead organization conducting surveillance through surface patrols and aerial missions for Operation Olivia, in collaboration with other agencies and communities. The Indian Navy is not the lead agency for this specific operation.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Operation Olivia:

• It is a year-round initiative led by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to protect all species of sea turtles found in Indian waters.

• The operation primarily focuses on the Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary, the world’s largest rookery for Olive Ridley turtles.

• A key objective is to enforce the mandatory use of Turtle Excluder Devices (TEDs) by fishing trawlers operating along the Odisha coast during the turtle nesting season.

• The Indian Navy plays the lead role in surface and aerial surveillance for this operation.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Operation Olivia is a flagship marine conservation initiative launched annually by the Indian Coast Guard (ICG), not the MoEFCC, and it specifically runs from November to May. It is primarily focused on the protection of Olive Ridley turtles during their mass nesting season, not all sea turtle species year-round.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While Gahirmatha is a critical nesting site, Operation Olivia’s efforts extend to other key nesting beaches in Odisha, including Rushikulya and Devi river mouths. It is not exclusively focused on Gahirmatha.

• Statement 3 is correct. A significant objective of Operation Olivia is to promote and enforce the use of Turtle Excluder Devices (TEDs) among fishing communities. This helps in reducing accidental turtle mortality in fishing nets.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) is the lead organization conducting surveillance through surface patrols and aerial missions for Operation Olivia, in collaboration with other agencies and communities. The Indian Navy is not the lead agency for this specific operation.

Solution: a)

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points With reference to the Kandha tribe and their tradition of facial tattooing, consider the following statements: Statement-I: The practice of facial tattooing among Kandha women originated primarily as an aesthetic tradition to enhance marital eligibility and signify tribal identity. Statement-II: The decline in the facial tattooing tradition among younger Kandha women is largely attributed to increased education, awareness campaigns, and a shift in cultural perceptions of relevance and protection. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: d) Statement-I is incorrect. The tradition of facial tattooing among Kandha women did not originate primarily as an aesthetic practice or for marital eligibility. Its primary origin was a protective measure: women tattooed their faces with dark, geometric patterns to appear unattractive and thereby avoid sexual exploitation by local landlords and colonial forces. While it later evolved into a cultural identity marker and became linked to marital eligibility, its foundational purpose was protection through disfigurement. Statement-II is correct. The practice has practically vanished among women under 40. This decline is indeed attributed to various factors, including awareness campaigns against the painful ritual, increased educational attainment among tribal girls, and a consequent shift in cultural perceptions. Younger generations no longer see the practice as necessary for protection or as a relevant cultural marker in the contemporary context. These interventions gained momentum from the 1990s onwards. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement-I is incorrect. The tradition of facial tattooing among Kandha women did not originate primarily as an aesthetic practice or for marital eligibility. Its primary origin was a protective measure: women tattooed their faces with dark, geometric patterns to appear unattractive and thereby avoid sexual exploitation by local landlords and colonial forces. While it later evolved into a cultural identity marker and became linked to marital eligibility, its foundational purpose was protection through disfigurement. Statement-II is correct. The practice has practically vanished among women under 40. This decline is indeed attributed to various factors, including awareness campaigns against the painful ritual, increased educational attainment among tribal girls, and a consequent shift in cultural perceptions. Younger generations no longer see the practice as necessary for protection or as a relevant cultural marker in the contemporary context. These interventions gained momentum from the 1990s onwards.

#### 10. Question

With reference to the Kandha tribe and their tradition of facial tattooing, consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The practice of facial tattooing among Kandha women originated primarily as an aesthetic tradition to enhance marital eligibility and signify tribal identity.

Statement-II: The decline in the facial tattooing tradition among younger Kandha women is largely attributed to increased education, awareness campaigns, and a shift in cultural perceptions of relevance and protection.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: d)

• Statement-I is incorrect. The tradition of facial tattooing among Kandha women did not originate primarily as an aesthetic practice or for marital eligibility. Its primary origin was a protective measure: women tattooed their faces with dark, geometric patterns to appear unattractive and thereby avoid sexual exploitation by local landlords and colonial forces. While it later evolved into a cultural identity marker and became linked to marital eligibility, its foundational purpose was protection through disfigurement.

• Statement-II is correct. The practice has practically vanished among women under 40. This decline is indeed attributed to various factors, including awareness campaigns against the painful ritual, increased educational attainment among tribal girls, and a consequent shift in cultural perceptions. Younger generations no longer see the practice as necessary for protection or as a relevant cultural marker in the contemporary context. These interventions gained momentum from the 1990s onwards.

Solution: d)

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates for

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE