UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 31 July 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Pralay missile: It is a surface-to-air missile that uses liquid fuel propulsion. The missile follows a purely ballistic trajectory, making its path predictable after launch. It is designed to carry only a unitary warhead with a maximum payload capacity of 500 kg. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect: Pralay is a surface-to-surface missile, not surface-to-air. It is propelled by a solid-fuel rocket motor, which allows for quicker deployment and launch compared to liquid-fuelled systems. Statement 2 is incorrect: Pralay is described as a quasi-ballistic missile. This means it does not follow a simple, high-arching ballistic path. It has the capability to perform manoeuvres in-flight, changing its trajectory to evade enemy air defence systems and enhance its accuracy. This makes its path difficult to predict and intercept. Statement 3 is incorrect: The missile can carry a payload of up to 1000 kg, not 500 kg. Furthermore, it is capable of carrying different types of warheads, including both unitary and cluster munitions, making it a versatile weapon for various tactical battlefield scenarios. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect: Pralay is a surface-to-surface missile, not surface-to-air. It is propelled by a solid-fuel rocket motor, which allows for quicker deployment and launch compared to liquid-fuelled systems. Statement 2 is incorrect: Pralay is described as a quasi-ballistic missile. This means it does not follow a simple, high-arching ballistic path. It has the capability to perform manoeuvres in-flight, changing its trajectory to evade enemy air defence systems and enhance its accuracy. This makes its path difficult to predict and intercept. Statement 3 is incorrect: The missile can carry a payload of up to 1000 kg, not 500 kg. Furthermore, it is capable of carrying different types of warheads, including both unitary and cluster munitions, making it a versatile weapon for various tactical battlefield scenarios.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Pralay missile:

• It is a surface-to-air missile that uses liquid fuel propulsion.

• The missile follows a purely ballistic trajectory, making its path predictable after launch.

• It is designed to carry only a unitary warhead with a maximum payload capacity of 500 kg.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Pralay is a surface-to-surface missile, not surface-to-air. It is propelled by a solid-fuel rocket motor, which allows for quicker deployment and launch compared to liquid-fuelled systems.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Pralay is described as a quasi-ballistic missile. This means it does not follow a simple, high-arching ballistic path. It has the capability to perform manoeuvres in-flight, changing its trajectory to evade enemy air defence systems and enhance its accuracy. This makes its path difficult to predict and intercept.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The missile can carry a payload of up to 1000 kg, not 500 kg. Furthermore, it is capable of carrying different types of warheads, including both unitary and cluster munitions, making it a versatile weapon for various tactical battlefield scenarios.

Solution: D

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Regarding the establishment of foreign university campuses in India, consider the following: Statement-I: A Letter of Intent (LoI) issued by the Ministry of Education to a foreign university for setting up a campus in India constitutes a legally binding contract. Statement-II: The Letter of Intent (LoI) serves as a foundational document outlining the scope and goals of the proposed collaboration, thereby facilitating formal negotiations. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. A Letter of Intent (LoI) is explicitly a non-binding document. It signals a serious intention to proceed with a partnership but does not create legal obligations or constitute a final, enforceable contract. The contract is drafted and signed at a later stage, often based on the principles outlined in the LoI. Statement-II is correct. The primary purpose of an LoI is to set the groundwork for a future agreement. It defines the preliminary understanding between the parties, outlining key aspects such as the purpose, timeline, and responsibilities. By creating this shared framework, it helps streamline the process of drafting a formal, legally binding contract and reduces potential misunderstandings during final negotiations. Incorrect Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. A Letter of Intent (LoI) is explicitly a non-binding document. It signals a serious intention to proceed with a partnership but does not create legal obligations or constitute a final, enforceable contract. The contract is drafted and signed at a later stage, often based on the principles outlined in the LoI. Statement-II is correct. The primary purpose of an LoI is to set the groundwork for a future agreement. It defines the preliminary understanding between the parties, outlining key aspects such as the purpose, timeline, and responsibilities. By creating this shared framework, it helps streamline the process of drafting a formal, legally binding contract and reduces potential misunderstandings during final negotiations.

#### 2. Question

Regarding the establishment of foreign university campuses in India, consider the following:

Statement-I: A Letter of Intent (LoI) issued by the Ministry of Education to a foreign university for setting up a campus in India constitutes a legally binding contract.

Statement-II: The Letter of Intent (LoI) serves as a foundational document outlining the scope and goals of the proposed collaboration, thereby facilitating formal negotiations.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: D

• Statement-I is incorrect. A Letter of Intent (LoI) is explicitly a non-binding document. It signals a serious intention to proceed with a partnership but does not create legal obligations or constitute a final, enforceable contract. The contract is drafted and signed at a later stage, often based on the principles outlined in the LoI.

• Statement-II is correct. The primary purpose of an LoI is to set the groundwork for a future agreement. It defines the preliminary understanding between the parties, outlining key aspects such as the purpose, timeline, and responsibilities. By creating this shared framework, it helps streamline the process of drafting a formal, legally binding contract and reduces potential misunderstandings during final negotiations.

Solution: D

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to Mount Cilo in Turkey, consider the following statements: It is the highest mountain peak in Turkey. The mountain is part of a National Park that borders Iran. The accelerated melting of its glaciers is primarily attributed to regional heatwaves and a significant projected decrease in future rainfall. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: Mount Cilo is the second-highest peak in Turkey, not the highest. Its summit is Reşko (or Uludoruk). It is situated in the East Taurus Mountains (Doğu Toroslar). Statement 2 is incorrect: Mount Cilo is located in the Hakkâri Province of southeastern Turkey, which borders Iraq, not Iran. It forms the western part of the Cilo-Sat Mountains National Park. Statement 3 is correct: The rapid retreat of glaciers on Mount Cilo is a direct consequence of climate change. This is manifested through accelerating melt rates driven by rising global temperatures and intense local heatwaves, such as the record 50.5°C temperature recorded nearby. UN projections reinforce this by warning of severe temperature rises and a 30% reduction in rainfall for the region by 2100, which would further exacerbate glacial melt. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: Mount Cilo is the second-highest peak in Turkey, not the highest. Its summit is Reşko (or Uludoruk). It is situated in the East Taurus Mountains (Doğu Toroslar). Statement 2 is incorrect: Mount Cilo is located in the Hakkâri Province of southeastern Turkey, which borders Iraq, not Iran. It forms the western part of the Cilo-Sat Mountains National Park. Statement 3 is correct: The rapid retreat of glaciers on Mount Cilo is a direct consequence of climate change. This is manifested through accelerating melt rates driven by rising global temperatures and intense local heatwaves, such as the record 50.5°C temperature recorded nearby. UN projections reinforce this by warning of severe temperature rises and a 30% reduction in rainfall for the region by 2100, which would further exacerbate glacial melt.

#### 3. Question

With reference to Mount Cilo in Turkey, consider the following statements:

• It is the highest mountain peak in Turkey.

• The mountain is part of a National Park that borders Iran.

• The accelerated melting of its glaciers is primarily attributed to regional heatwaves and a significant projected decrease in future rainfall.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Mount Cilo is the second-highest peak in Turkey, not the highest. Its summit is Reşko (or Uludoruk). It is situated in the East Taurus Mountains (Doğu Toroslar).

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Mount Cilo is located in the Hakkâri Province of southeastern Turkey, which borders Iraq, not Iran. It forms the western part of the Cilo-Sat Mountains National Park.

Statement 3 is correct: The rapid retreat of glaciers on Mount Cilo is a direct consequence of climate change. This is manifested through accelerating melt rates driven by rising global temperatures and intense local heatwaves, such as the record 50.5°C temperature recorded nearby. UN projections reinforce this by warning of severe temperature rises and a 30% reduction in rainfall for the region by 2100, which would further exacerbate glacial melt.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘CRIB’ blood group: It is a new antigen discovered within the common ABO blood group system. The discovery was made in an individual whose blood showed panreactivity, meaning it was compatible with all tested blood samples. Which of the above statements are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect: CRIB is a new antigen identified within the Cromer (CR) blood group system, which is a rare system, not the common ABO system. Antigens in the Cromer system are located on the Decay-Accelerating Factor (DAF) protein. Statement 2 is incorrect: The individual’s blood showed panreactivity, but this means it reacted with and was incompatible with all tested samples, including the universal donor O+ blood type. This incompatibility is what triggered the detailed investigation, as no suitable match could be found for transfusion. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect: CRIB is a new antigen identified within the Cromer (CR) blood group system, which is a rare system, not the common ABO system. Antigens in the Cromer system are located on the Decay-Accelerating Factor (DAF) protein. Statement 2 is incorrect: The individual’s blood showed panreactivity, but this means it reacted with and was incompatible with all tested samples, including the universal donor O+ blood type. This incompatibility is what triggered the detailed investigation, as no suitable match could be found for transfusion.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘CRIB’ blood group:

• It is a new antigen discovered within the common ABO blood group system.

• The discovery was made in an individual whose blood showed panreactivity, meaning it was compatible with all tested blood samples.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect: CRIB is a new antigen identified within the Cromer (CR) blood group system, which is a rare system, not the common ABO system. Antigens in the Cromer system are located on the Decay-Accelerating Factor (DAF) protein.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The individual’s blood showed panreactivity, but this means it reacted with and was incompatible with all tested samples, including the universal donor O+ blood type. This incompatibility is what triggered the detailed investigation, as no suitable match could be found for transfusion.

Solution: C

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Operation: Objective: 1. Operation ShivShakti Counter-infiltration in the Poonch sector 2. Operation Mahadev Neutralisation of Lashkar-e-Taiba operatives Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Pair 1 is correctly matched: Operation ShivShakti was a counter-infiltration mission specifically launched by the Indian Army’s White Knight Corps in the Degwar sector of Poonch district to prevent terrorists from crossing the Line of Control (LoC). Pair 2 is correctly matched: Operation ShivShakti took place just days after three Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT) operatives were neutralised in Operation Mahadev. This implies that the objective of Operation Mahadev was neutralisation of these specific militants. Both operations are part of the broader counter-terrorism efforts in Jammu and Kashmir. Incorrect Solution: C Pair 1 is correctly matched: Operation ShivShakti was a counter-infiltration mission specifically launched by the Indian Army’s White Knight Corps in the Degwar sector of Poonch district to prevent terrorists from crossing the Line of Control (LoC). Pair 2 is correctly matched: Operation ShivShakti took place just days after three Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT) operatives were neutralised in Operation Mahadev. This implies that the objective of Operation Mahadev was neutralisation of these specific militants. Both operations are part of the broader counter-terrorism efforts in Jammu and Kashmir.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Operation: | Objective:

1.Operation ShivShakti | Counter-infiltration in the Poonch sector
2.Operation Mahadev | Neutralisation of Lashkar-e-Taiba operatives

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Operation ShivShakti was a counter-infiltration mission specifically launched by the Indian Army’s White Knight Corps in the Degwar sector of Poonch district to prevent terrorists from crossing the Line of Control (LoC).

Pair 2 is correctly matched: Operation ShivShakti took place just days after three Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT) operatives were neutralised in Operation Mahadev. This implies that the objective of Operation Mahadev was neutralisation of these specific militants. Both operations are part of the broader counter-terrorism efforts in Jammu and Kashmir.

Solution: C

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to Kaziranga National Park, consider the following statements: It holds the highest tiger density among all tiger reserves in India. The park’s habitat is predominantly composed of tropical evergreen forests and alpine meadows. It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site before it was designated as a Tiger Reserve. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect: According to the 2025 report, Kaziranga has the third-highest tiger density (18.65 tigers/100 sq. km) in India, after Bandipur Tiger Reserve (19.83) and Corbett Tiger Reserve (19.56). Statement 2 is incorrect: Kaziranga National Park is located in the floodplains of the Brahmaputra River. Its ecosystem is characterized by alluvial grasslands, tall elephant grass, marshes (beels), and tropical moist deciduous and semi-evergreen forests. It does not feature alpine meadows, which are found at much higher altitudes. Statement 3 is correct: Kaziranga was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985. It was designated as a Tiger Reserve much later, in 2006. This chronological order is accurate and highlights its long-standing global ecological significance even before the focused tiger conservation efforts under Project Tiger were formally extended to it. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect: According to the 2025 report, Kaziranga has the third-highest tiger density (18.65 tigers/100 sq. km) in India, after Bandipur Tiger Reserve (19.83) and Corbett Tiger Reserve (19.56). Statement 2 is incorrect: Kaziranga National Park is located in the floodplains of the Brahmaputra River. Its ecosystem is characterized by alluvial grasslands, tall elephant grass, marshes (beels), and tropical moist deciduous and semi-evergreen forests. It does not feature alpine meadows, which are found at much higher altitudes. Statement 3 is correct: Kaziranga was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985. It was designated as a Tiger Reserve much later, in 2006. This chronological order is accurate and highlights its long-standing global ecological significance even before the focused tiger conservation efforts under Project Tiger were formally extended to it.

#### 6. Question

With reference to Kaziranga National Park, consider the following statements:

• It holds the highest tiger density among all tiger reserves in India.

• The park’s habitat is predominantly composed of tropical evergreen forests and alpine meadows.

• It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site before it was designated as a Tiger Reserve.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect: According to the 2025 report, Kaziranga has the third-highest tiger density (18.65 tigers/100 sq. km) in India, after Bandipur Tiger Reserve (19.83) and Corbett Tiger Reserve (19.56).

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Kaziranga National Park is located in the floodplains of the Brahmaputra River. Its ecosystem is characterized by alluvial grasslands, tall elephant grass, marshes (beels), and tropical moist deciduous and semi-evergreen forests. It does not feature alpine meadows, which are found at much higher altitudes.

• Statement 3 is correct: Kaziranga was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985. It was designated as a Tiger Reserve much later, in 2006. This chronological order is accurate and highlights its long-standing global ecological significance even before the focused tiger conservation efforts under Project Tiger were formally extended to it.

Solution: A

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Pralay missile enhances India’s conventional deterrence capability. Statement-II: Pralay is a road-mobile, quick-launch, high-precision missile with in-flight manoeuvrability. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The Pralay missile is designed for conventional (non-nuclear) precision strikes. By providing a credible and rapid retaliatory option for tactical battlefield scenarios, it strengthens India’s ability to deter conventional military aggression without escalating to the nuclear level. This aligns with a posture of credible conventional deterrence. Statement-II is correct. The features mentioned in Statement-II—being road-mobile, quick to launch, highly accurate, and capable of in-flight manoeuvres to evade defences—are precisely the characteristics that make it an effective tactical weapon. Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The Pralay missile is designed for conventional (non-nuclear) precision strikes. By providing a credible and rapid retaliatory option for tactical battlefield scenarios, it strengthens India’s ability to deter conventional military aggression without escalating to the nuclear level. This aligns with a posture of credible conventional deterrence. Statement-II is correct. The features mentioned in Statement-II—being road-mobile, quick to launch, highly accurate, and capable of in-flight manoeuvres to evade defences—are precisely the characteristics that make it an effective tactical weapon. Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Pralay missile enhances India’s conventional deterrence capability.

Statement-II: Pralay is a road-mobile, quick-launch, high-precision missile with in-flight manoeuvrability.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. The Pralay missile is designed for conventional (non-nuclear) precision strikes. By providing a credible and rapid retaliatory option for tactical battlefield scenarios, it strengthens India’s ability to deter conventional military aggression without escalating to the nuclear level. This aligns with a posture of credible conventional deterrence.

• Statement-II is correct. The features mentioned in Statement-II—being road-mobile, quick to launch, highly accurate, and capable of in-flight manoeuvres to evade defences—are precisely the characteristics that make it an effective tactical weapon.

• Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points The discovery of the ‘CRIB’ blood group is scientifically significant primarily because: (a) It represents the 45th major human blood group system identified globally. (b) It confirmed that the Decay-Accelerating Factor (DAF) protein can host new antigens. (c) It is the first instance of a 'panreactive' blood type found in a human. (d) It adds a new, officially recognized antigen to the existing Cromer blood group system. Correct Solution: D The primary scientific significance of the CRIB discovery lies in its addition to the known immunogenetic landscape of human blood. (a) is incorrect: CRIB is an antigen within the Cromer system, not a new system itself. (b) is incorrect: It was already known that the DAF protein carries the antigens of the Cromer system. While this discovery reinforces that fact, the key significance is the identification of a new, previously undocumented antigen on that protein. (c) is incorrect: Panreactivity is a known phenomenon in transfusion medicine, occurring when a person’s plasma reacts with all cells tested, often due to rare antibodies. The CRIB case is an example of this, but it is not the first instance ever recorded. (d) is correct: The discovery’s core importance is the identification of a novel antigen that was not previously described in any human population. Its official recognition and naming as CRIB by the International Blood Group Reference Laboratory (IBGRL) formally adds it to the catalogue of antigens within the Cromer system, expanding the global knowledge of transfusion medicine and rare blood types. Incorrect Solution: D The primary scientific significance of the CRIB discovery lies in its addition to the known immunogenetic landscape of human blood. (a) is incorrect: CRIB is an antigen within the Cromer system, not a new system itself. (b) is incorrect: It was already known that the DAF protein carries the antigens of the Cromer system. While this discovery reinforces that fact, the key significance is the identification of a new, previously undocumented antigen on that protein. (c) is incorrect: Panreactivity is a known phenomenon in transfusion medicine, occurring when a person’s plasma reacts with all cells tested, often due to rare antibodies. The CRIB case is an example of this, but it is not the first instance ever recorded. (d) is correct: The discovery’s core importance is the identification of a novel antigen that was not previously described in any human population. Its official recognition and naming as CRIB by the International Blood Group Reference Laboratory (IBGRL) formally adds it to the catalogue of antigens within the Cromer system, expanding the global knowledge of transfusion medicine and rare blood types.

#### 8. Question

The discovery of the ‘CRIB’ blood group is scientifically significant primarily because:

• (a) It represents the 45th major human blood group system identified globally.

• (b) It confirmed that the Decay-Accelerating Factor (DAF) protein can host new antigens.

• (c) It is the first instance of a 'panreactive' blood type found in a human.

• (d) It adds a new, officially recognized antigen to the existing Cromer blood group system.

Solution: D

The primary scientific significance of the CRIB discovery lies in its addition to the known immunogenetic landscape of human blood.

• (a) is incorrect: CRIB is an antigen within the Cromer system, not a new system itself.

• (b) is incorrect: It was already known that the DAF protein carries the antigens of the Cromer system. While this discovery reinforces that fact, the key significance is the identification of a new, previously undocumented antigen on that protein.

• (c) is incorrect: Panreactivity is a known phenomenon in transfusion medicine, occurring when a person’s plasma reacts with all cells tested, often due to rare antibodies. The CRIB case is an example of this, but it is not the first instance ever recorded.

• (d) is correct: The discovery’s core importance is the identification of a novel antigen that was not previously described in any human population. Its official recognition and naming as CRIB by the International Blood Group Reference Laboratory (IBGRL) formally adds it to the catalogue of antigens within the Cromer system, expanding the global knowledge of transfusion medicine and rare blood types.

Solution: D

The primary scientific significance of the CRIB discovery lies in its addition to the known immunogenetic landscape of human blood.

• (a) is incorrect: CRIB is an antigen within the Cromer system, not a new system itself.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points The establishment of campuses by universities like La Trobe and the University of Bristol in India directly aligns with which key objective of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020? (a) Promoting vocational education and skill development from the secondary school level. (b) Ensuring universal access to quality education for all children up to the age of 18. (c) The internationalisation of higher education and positioning India as a global study destination. (d) The creation of a single higher education regulator to replace UGC and AICTE. Correct Solution: C The initiative to allow foreign universities to set up campuses in India is a cornerstone of one of the major thrust areas of the NEP 2020. The NEP 2020 places strong emphasis on transforming India into a global knowledge superpower. A key pillar of this vision is the internationalisation of education. This includes two main goals: encouraging Indian students to study in India by providing them with world-class options domestically, and attracting foreign students to India. Allowing top-tier foreign universities to establish campuses is a direct implementation of this policy objective. It facilitates global partnerships, promotes cross-cultural learning, enhances the quality and competitiveness of Indian higher education, and helps retain domestic talent, all of which are central to the goal of making India a global education hub. The other options represent different, though also important, objectives of the NEP 2020. Incorrect Solution: C The initiative to allow foreign universities to set up campuses in India is a cornerstone of one of the major thrust areas of the NEP 2020. The NEP 2020 places strong emphasis on transforming India into a global knowledge superpower. A key pillar of this vision is the internationalisation of education. This includes two main goals: encouraging Indian students to study in India by providing them with world-class options domestically, and attracting foreign students to India. Allowing top-tier foreign universities to establish campuses is a direct implementation of this policy objective. It facilitates global partnerships, promotes cross-cultural learning, enhances the quality and competitiveness of Indian higher education, and helps retain domestic talent, all of which are central to the goal of making India a global education hub. The other options represent different, though also important, objectives of the NEP 2020.

#### 9. Question

The establishment of campuses by universities like La Trobe and the University of Bristol in India directly aligns with which key objective of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020?

• (a) Promoting vocational education and skill development from the secondary school level.

• (b) Ensuring universal access to quality education for all children up to the age of 18.

• (c) The internationalisation of higher education and positioning India as a global study destination.

• (d) The creation of a single higher education regulator to replace UGC and AICTE.

Solution: C

The initiative to allow foreign universities to set up campuses in India is a cornerstone of one of the major thrust areas of the NEP 2020.

• The NEP 2020 places strong emphasis on transforming India into a global knowledge superpower. A key pillar of this vision is the internationalisation of education.

• This includes two main goals: encouraging Indian students to study in India by providing them with world-class options domestically, and attracting foreign students to India.

Allowing top-tier foreign universities to establish campuses is a direct implementation of this policy objective. It facilitates global partnerships, promotes cross-cultural learning, enhances the quality and competitiveness of Indian higher education, and helps retain domestic talent, all of which are central to the goal of making India a global education hub. The other options represent different, though also important, objectives of the NEP 2020.

Solution: C

The initiative to allow foreign universities to set up campuses in India is a cornerstone of one of the major thrust areas of the NEP 2020.

• The NEP 2020 places strong emphasis on transforming India into a global knowledge superpower. A key pillar of this vision is the internationalisation of education.

• This includes two main goals: encouraging Indian students to study in India by providing them with world-class options domestically, and attracting foreign students to India.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the benefits structure of the Atal Pension Yojana (APY): The pension amount is directly proportional to the contribution made and is not guaranteed by the government. Contributions to the scheme can only be made through a monthly auto-debit from a savings account. In the event of the subscriber’s death before the age of 60, the spouse has the option to either continue the scheme or exit and claim the accumulated corpus. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: A defining feature of APY is that it provides a guaranteed minimum pension. The subscriber chooses a pension amount (₹1,000 to ₹5,000), and their contribution is determined based on that choice and their entry age. The Central Government guarantees this pension, and if the actual returns on investment are lower than required to fund the pension, the government covers the shortfall. Statement 2 is incorrect: The scheme offers flexibility in contribution frequency. Subscribers can choose to make contributions on a monthly, quarterly, or half-yearly basis, although it is collected via auto-debit for convenience and regularity. Statement 3 is correct: The scheme provides clear options for the spouse in case of the premature death of the subscriber (before attaining age 60). The spouse can choose to continue making contributions to the account for the remaining period and receive the pension thereafter. Alternatively, the spouse has the option to exit the scheme and receive the entire accumulated corpus, including contributions and earnings. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: A defining feature of APY is that it provides a guaranteed minimum pension. The subscriber chooses a pension amount (₹1,000 to ₹5,000), and their contribution is determined based on that choice and their entry age. The Central Government guarantees this pension, and if the actual returns on investment are lower than required to fund the pension, the government covers the shortfall. Statement 2 is incorrect: The scheme offers flexibility in contribution frequency. Subscribers can choose to make contributions on a monthly, quarterly, or half-yearly basis, although it is collected via auto-debit for convenience and regularity. Statement 3 is correct: The scheme provides clear options for the spouse in case of the premature death of the subscriber (before attaining age 60). The spouse can choose to continue making contributions to the account for the remaining period and receive the pension thereafter. Alternatively, the spouse has the option to exit the scheme and receive the entire accumulated corpus, including contributions and earnings.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the benefits structure of the Atal Pension Yojana (APY):

• The pension amount is directly proportional to the contribution made and is not guaranteed by the government.

• Contributions to the scheme can only be made through a monthly auto-debit from a savings account.

• In the event of the subscriber’s death before the age of 60, the spouse has the option to either continue the scheme or exit and claim the accumulated corpus.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: A defining feature of APY is that it provides a guaranteed minimum pension. The subscriber chooses a pension amount (₹1,000 to ₹5,000), and their contribution is determined based on that choice and their entry age. The Central Government guarantees this pension, and if the actual returns on investment are lower than required to fund the pension, the government covers the shortfall.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The scheme offers flexibility in contribution frequency. Subscribers can choose to make contributions on a monthly, quarterly, or half-yearly basis, although it is collected via auto-debit for convenience and regularity.

• Statement 3 is correct: The scheme provides clear options for the spouse in case of the premature death of the subscriber (before attaining age 60). The spouse can choose to continue making contributions to the account for the remaining period and receive the pension thereafter. Alternatively, the spouse has the option to exit the scheme and receive the entire accumulated corpus, including contributions and earnings.

Solution: B

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