UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 31 July 2024

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about India’s Act East Policy (AEP) is correct? (a) The Act East Policy was launched in 1991 to strengthen economic ties with Western Europe. (b) The Act East Policy aims to improve India's relations with Southeast Asian countries, East Asia, and the Indo-Pacific region. (c) The Act East Policy focuses primarily on enhancing India's relationships with North American countries. (d) The Act East Policy replaced the Look East Policy in 2005 to expand India's economic reach in South America. Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: 2024 is the tenth anniversary year of the Act East Policy (AEP). The AEP, which replaced the Look East Policy (LEP) in 2014, has laid the foundations for India’s engagements with the East. What is Act East Policy? The Act East Policy (AEP) is an initiative by the Indian government, launched in 2014, to strengthen economic, strategic, and cultural ties with countries in the Indo-Pacific region, with a core focus on the ASEAN nations. It aims to enhance regional connectivity, promote economic cooperation, and develop strategic partnerships to bolster India’s influence and integration in the region. The policy evolved from the earlier Look East Policy of 1992, expanding its scope and strategic objectives. Its key principles are- Develop strategic security cooperation and strategic relations in the Indo-Pacific. Strengthen India’s economic ties and connectivity with the region through increased trade and investment. Boost historical cultural ties. 4C’s of Act East Policy: Culture, Commerce, Connectivity and Capacity building Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: 2024 is the tenth anniversary year of the Act East Policy (AEP). The AEP, which replaced the Look East Policy (LEP) in 2014, has laid the foundations for India’s engagements with the East. What is Act East Policy? The Act East Policy (AEP) is an initiative by the Indian government, launched in 2014, to strengthen economic, strategic, and cultural ties with countries in the Indo-Pacific region, with a core focus on the ASEAN nations. It aims to enhance regional connectivity, promote economic cooperation, and develop strategic partnerships to bolster India’s influence and integration in the region. The policy evolved from the earlier Look East Policy of 1992, expanding its scope and strategic objectives. Its key principles are- Develop strategic security cooperation and strategic relations in the Indo-Pacific. Strengthen India’s economic ties and connectivity with the region through increased trade and investment. Boost historical cultural ties. 4C’s of Act East Policy: Culture, Commerce, Connectivity and Capacity building Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

#### 1. Question

Which of the following statements about India’s Act East Policy (AEP) is correct?

• (a) The Act East Policy was launched in 1991 to strengthen economic ties with Western Europe.

• (b) The Act East Policy aims to improve India's relations with Southeast Asian countries, East Asia, and the Indo-Pacific region.

• (c) The Act East Policy focuses primarily on enhancing India's relationships with North American countries.

• (d) The Act East Policy replaced the Look East Policy in 2005 to expand India's economic reach in South America.

Explanation:

• Context: 2024 is the tenth anniversary year of the Act East Policy (AEP). The AEP, which replaced the Look East Policy (LEP) in 2014, has laid the foundations for India’s engagements with the East.

• What is Act East Policy? The Act East Policy (AEP) is an initiative by the Indian government, launched in 2014, to strengthen economic, strategic, and cultural ties with countries in the Indo-Pacific region, with a core focus on the ASEAN nations. It aims to enhance regional connectivity, promote economic cooperation, and develop strategic partnerships to bolster India’s influence and integration in the region. The policy evolved from the earlier Look East Policy of 1992, expanding its scope and strategic objectives.

• The Act East Policy (AEP) is an initiative by the Indian government, launched in 2014, to strengthen economic, strategic, and cultural ties with countries in the Indo-Pacific region, with a core focus on the ASEAN nations. It aims to enhance regional connectivity, promote economic cooperation, and develop strategic partnerships to bolster India’s influence and integration in the region. The policy evolved from the earlier Look East Policy of 1992, expanding its scope and strategic objectives.

• Its key principles are- Develop strategic security cooperation and strategic relations in the Indo-Pacific. Strengthen India’s economic ties and connectivity with the region through increased trade and investment. Boost historical cultural ties. 4C’s of Act East Policy: Culture, Commerce, Connectivity and Capacity building

• Develop strategic security cooperation and strategic relations in the Indo-Pacific.

• Strengthen India’s economic ties and connectivity with the region through increased trade and investment.

• Boost historical cultural ties.

• 4C’s of Act East Policy: Culture, Commerce, Connectivity and Capacity building

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

Explanation:

• Develop strategic security cooperation and strategic relations in the Indo-Pacific.

• Strengthen India’s economic ties and connectivity with the region through increased trade and investment.

• Boost historical cultural ties.

• 4C’s of Act East Policy: Culture, Commerce, Connectivity and Capacity building

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Article 253 empowers the Parliament to make laws for implementing any international treaty, agreement, or convention. Under Article 253, the Parliament can legislate on subjects in the State List for the purpose of implementing international agreements. Article 253 restricts the legislative power of the Parliament to only those matters mentioned in the Union List. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: S1 is correct: Article 253 of the Indian Constitution grants the Parliament the power to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with any other country or countries or any decision made at any international conference, association, or other body. S2 is correct: According to Article 253, the Parliament can legislate on subjects in the State List if it is necessary for implementing international agreements. This is an exception to the general division of powers between the Union and the States. S3 is incorrect: Article 253 does not restrict the legislative power of the Parliament to only the Union List. Instead, it allows the Parliament to legislate on any subject, including those in the State List, if it is required to fulfill international obligations. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: S1 is correct: Article 253 of the Indian Constitution grants the Parliament the power to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with any other country or countries or any decision made at any international conference, association, or other body. S2 is correct: According to Article 253, the Parliament can legislate on subjects in the State List if it is necessary for implementing international agreements. This is an exception to the general division of powers between the Union and the States. S3 is incorrect: Article 253 does not restrict the legislative power of the Parliament to only the Union List. Instead, it allows the Parliament to legislate on any subject, including those in the State List, if it is required to fulfill international obligations. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Article 253 empowers the Parliament to make laws for implementing any international treaty, agreement, or convention. Under Article 253, the Parliament can legislate on subjects in the State List for the purpose of implementing international agreements. Article 253 restricts the legislative power of the Parliament to only those matters mentioned in the Union List.

• Article 253 empowers the Parliament to make laws for implementing any international treaty, agreement, or convention.

• Under Article 253, the Parliament can legislate on subjects in the State List for the purpose of implementing international agreements.

• Article 253 restricts the legislative power of the Parliament to only those matters mentioned in the Union List.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

• S1 is correct: Article 253 of the Indian Constitution grants the Parliament the power to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with any other country or countries or any decision made at any international conference, association, or other body.

• S2 is correct: According to Article 253, the Parliament can legislate on subjects in the State List if it is necessary for implementing international agreements. This is an exception to the general division of powers between the Union and the States.

• S3 is incorrect: Article 253 does not restrict the legislative power of the Parliament to only the Union List. Instead, it allows the Parliament to legislate on any subject, including those in the State List, if it is required to fulfill international obligations.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Article 293 of the Indian Constitution: Article 293 pertains to the borrowing by states within India. Article 293 allows states to borrow only with the consent of the Government of India. Article 293 grants the Central Government the power to control the financial borrowing of states only during times of national emergency. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: S1 is True. Article 293 pertains to the borrowing by states within India. It provides the framework under which states can engage in borrowing. S2 is True. Article 293 allows states to borrow only with the consent of the Government of India, particularly when the states have existing loans from the Central Government. S3 is False. Article 293 does not grant the Central Government the power to control the financial borrowing of states only during times of national emergency. It applies at all times, irrespective of whether there is an emergency. The requirement for consent is tied to the existence of outstanding loans from the Central Government to the state, not to the state of emergency. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: S1 is True. Article 293 pertains to the borrowing by states within India. It provides the framework under which states can engage in borrowing. S2 is True. Article 293 allows states to borrow only with the consent of the Government of India, particularly when the states have existing loans from the Central Government. S3 is False. Article 293 does not grant the Central Government the power to control the financial borrowing of states only during times of national emergency. It applies at all times, irrespective of whether there is an emergency. The requirement for consent is tied to the existence of outstanding loans from the Central Government to the state, not to the state of emergency. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Article 293 of the Indian Constitution:

• Article 293 pertains to the borrowing by states within India. Article 293 allows states to borrow only with the consent of the Government of India. Article 293 grants the Central Government the power to control the financial borrowing of states only during times of national emergency.

• Article 293 pertains to the borrowing by states within India.

• Article 293 allows states to borrow only with the consent of the Government of India.

• Article 293 grants the Central Government the power to control the financial borrowing of states only during times of national emergency.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

• S1 is True. Article 293 pertains to the borrowing by states within India. It provides the framework under which states can engage in borrowing.

• S2 is True. Article 293 allows states to borrow only with the consent of the Government of India, particularly when the states have existing loans from the Central Government.

• S3 is False. Article 293 does not grant the Central Government the power to control the financial borrowing of states only during times of national emergency. It applies at all times, irrespective of whether there is an emergency. The requirement for consent is tied to the existence of outstanding loans from the Central Government to the state, not to the state of emergency.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

Explanation:

• S1 is True. Article 293 pertains to the borrowing by states within India. It provides the framework under which states can engage in borrowing.

• S2 is True. Article 293 allows states to borrow only with the consent of the Government of India, particularly when the states have existing loans from the Central Government.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Recently, India has signed their first Cultural Property Agreement (CPA) to prevent and curb the illicit trafficking of Indian antiquities to which of the following nations? (a) United States (b) United Kingdom (c) Australia (d) France Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: India and the US signed their first Cultural Property Agreement (CPA) to prevent and curb the illicit trafficking of Indian antiquities to the US. The agreement aligns with the 1970 UNESCO Convention, which aims to prohibit and prevent the illicit import, export, and transfer of cultural property. Since 1976, India has repatriated 358 antiquities, with 345 retrieved since 2014, mostly from the US. In 2023, the US offered 1,440 artifacts for repatriation, with around 300 deemed eligible under the “antique” category. The agreement aims to make the repatriation process faster and smoother. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: India and the US signed their first Cultural Property Agreement (CPA) to prevent and curb the illicit trafficking of Indian antiquities to the US. The agreement aligns with the 1970 UNESCO Convention, which aims to prohibit and prevent the illicit import, export, and transfer of cultural property. Since 1976, India has repatriated 358 antiquities, with 345 retrieved since 2014, mostly from the US. In 2023, the US offered 1,440 artifacts for repatriation, with around 300 deemed eligible under the “antique” category. The agreement aims to make the repatriation process faster and smoother. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

#### 4. Question

Recently, India has signed their first Cultural Property Agreement (CPA) to prevent and curb the illicit trafficking of Indian antiquities to which of the following nations?

• (a) United States

• (b) United Kingdom

• (c) Australia

• (d) France

Explanation:

• Context: India and the US signed their first Cultural Property Agreement (CPA) to prevent and curb the illicit trafficking of Indian antiquities to the US. The agreement aligns with the 1970 UNESCO Convention, which aims to prohibit and prevent the illicit import, export, and transfer of cultural property. Since 1976, India has repatriated 358 antiquities, with 345 retrieved since 2014, mostly from the US. In 2023, the US offered 1,440 artifacts for repatriation, with around 300 deemed eligible under the “antique” category. The agreement aims to make the repatriation process faster and smoother.

• The agreement aligns with the 1970 UNESCO Convention, which aims to prohibit and prevent the illicit import, export, and transfer of cultural property.

• Since 1976, India has repatriated 358 antiquities, with 345 retrieved since 2014, mostly from the US.

• In 2023, the US offered 1,440 artifacts for repatriation, with around 300 deemed eligible under the “antique” category.

• The agreement aims to make the repatriation process faster and smoother.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

Explanation:

• The agreement aligns with the 1970 UNESCO Convention, which aims to prohibit and prevent the illicit import, export, and transfer of cultural property.

• Since 1976, India has repatriated 358 antiquities, with 345 retrieved since 2014, mostly from the US.

• In 2023, the US offered 1,440 artifacts for repatriation, with around 300 deemed eligible under the “antique” category.

• The agreement aims to make the repatriation process faster and smoother.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following statements is NOT true about Prompt Corrective Action (PCA)? (a) PCA is enforced by regulatory bodies to prevent the failure of banks. (b) PCA includes a series of escalating measures based on the bank's capital levels. (c) PCA measures are only implemented after a bank becomes insolvent. (d) PCA aims to minimize the cost to taxpayers in case of bank failures. Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced a Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework for Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs). This framework aims to enable timely supervisory intervention and ensure UCBs implement necessary remedial measures to restore their financial health. It replaces the existing Supervisory Action Framework (SAF) last revised in January 2020. The new PCA framework is designed to provide flexibility by allowing entity-specific supervisory action plans based on individual risk assessments. It aligns with similar frameworks for Scheduled Commercial Banks and Non-Banking Financial Companies while maintaining supervisory rigor. The revised framework focuses on capital, asset quality, and profitability, particularly targeting larger UCBs for intensive monitoring. It will not apply to small Tier 1 UCBs. The RBI has categorized UCBs into four tiers for regulatory purposes. PCA measures are not implemented only after a bank becomes insolvent. Instead, they are implemented as soon as there are signs of trouble, particularly when capital levels fall below certain thresholds, to prevent insolvency. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced a Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework for Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs). This framework aims to enable timely supervisory intervention and ensure UCBs implement necessary remedial measures to restore their financial health. It replaces the existing Supervisory Action Framework (SAF) last revised in January 2020. The new PCA framework is designed to provide flexibility by allowing entity-specific supervisory action plans based on individual risk assessments. It aligns with similar frameworks for Scheduled Commercial Banks and Non-Banking Financial Companies while maintaining supervisory rigor. The revised framework focuses on capital, asset quality, and profitability, particularly targeting larger UCBs for intensive monitoring. It will not apply to small Tier 1 UCBs. The RBI has categorized UCBs into four tiers for regulatory purposes. PCA measures are not implemented only after a bank becomes insolvent. Instead, they are implemented as soon as there are signs of trouble, particularly when capital levels fall below certain thresholds, to prevent insolvency. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

#### 5. Question

Which of the following statements is NOT true about Prompt Corrective Action (PCA)?

• (a) PCA is enforced by regulatory bodies to prevent the failure of banks.

• (b) PCA includes a series of escalating measures based on the bank's capital levels.

• (c) PCA measures are only implemented after a bank becomes insolvent.

• (d) PCA aims to minimize the cost to taxpayers in case of bank failures.

Explanation:

• Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced a Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework for Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs). This framework aims to enable timely supervisory intervention and ensure UCBs implement necessary remedial measures to restore their financial health. It replaces the existing Supervisory Action Framework (SAF) last revised in January 2020. The new PCA framework is designed to provide flexibility by allowing entity-specific supervisory action plans based on individual risk assessments. It aligns with similar frameworks for Scheduled Commercial Banks and Non-Banking Financial Companies while maintaining supervisory rigor. The revised framework focuses on capital, asset quality, and profitability, particularly targeting larger UCBs for intensive monitoring. It will not apply to small Tier 1 UCBs. The RBI has categorized UCBs into four tiers for regulatory purposes.

• This framework aims to enable timely supervisory intervention and ensure UCBs implement necessary remedial measures to restore their financial health.

• It replaces the existing Supervisory Action Framework (SAF) last revised in January 2020.

• The new PCA framework is designed to provide flexibility by allowing entity-specific supervisory action plans based on individual risk assessments.

• It aligns with similar frameworks for Scheduled Commercial Banks and Non-Banking Financial Companies while maintaining supervisory rigor.

• The revised framework focuses on capital, asset quality, and profitability, particularly targeting larger UCBs for intensive monitoring.

• It will not apply to small Tier 1 UCBs. The RBI has categorized UCBs into four tiers for regulatory purposes.

• PCA measures are not implemented only after a bank becomes insolvent. Instead, they are implemented as soon as there are signs of trouble, particularly when capital levels fall below certain thresholds, to prevent insolvency.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

Explanation:

• This framework aims to enable timely supervisory intervention and ensure UCBs implement necessary remedial measures to restore their financial health.

• It replaces the existing Supervisory Action Framework (SAF) last revised in January 2020.

• The new PCA framework is designed to provide flexibility by allowing entity-specific supervisory action plans based on individual risk assessments.

• It aligns with similar frameworks for Scheduled Commercial Banks and Non-Banking Financial Companies while maintaining supervisory rigor.

• The revised framework focuses on capital, asset quality, and profitability, particularly targeting larger UCBs for intensive monitoring.

• It will not apply to small Tier 1 UCBs. The RBI has categorized UCBs into four tiers for regulatory purposes.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Oropouche fever: Oropouche fever is caused by a bacteria. It is endemic to Central and South America. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: Brazil has reported its first-ever deaths from Oropouche fever, a mosquito-borne disease with symptoms similar to dengue, but severe cases are rare. The virus, first detected in Trinidad and Tobago in 1955, has spread to Latin America, the Caribbean, and recently to Europe, with Italy reporting its first case in June 2024. Oropouche fever is transmitted by infected midges and mosquitoes, and symptoms start between four and eight days after the bite, including fever, headaches, pain, and sometimes nausea. Most patients recover in about seven days, and there is no vaccine or specific treatment. The disease’s spread may be influenced by climate and environmental factors such as deforestation, but much about its transmission remains understudied. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: Brazil has reported its first-ever deaths from Oropouche fever, a mosquito-borne disease with symptoms similar to dengue, but severe cases are rare. The virus, first detected in Trinidad and Tobago in 1955, has spread to Latin America, the Caribbean, and recently to Europe, with Italy reporting its first case in June 2024. Oropouche fever is transmitted by infected midges and mosquitoes, and symptoms start between four and eight days after the bite, including fever, headaches, pain, and sometimes nausea. Most patients recover in about seven days, and there is no vaccine or specific treatment. The disease’s spread may be influenced by climate and environmental factors such as deforestation, but much about its transmission remains understudied. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about Oropouche fever:

• Oropouche fever is caused by a bacteria. It is endemic to Central and South America.

• Oropouche fever is caused by a bacteria.

• It is endemic to Central and South America.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Context: Brazil has reported its first-ever deaths from Oropouche fever, a mosquito-borne disease with symptoms similar to dengue, but severe cases are rare. The virus, first detected in Trinidad and Tobago in 1955, has spread to Latin America, the Caribbean, and recently to Europe, with Italy reporting its first case in June 2024. Oropouche fever is transmitted by infected midges and mosquitoes, and symptoms start between four and eight days after the bite, including fever, headaches, pain, and sometimes nausea. Most patients recover in about seven days, and there is no vaccine or specific treatment. The disease’s spread may be influenced by climate and environmental factors such as deforestation, but much about its transmission remains understudied.

• The virus, first detected in Trinidad and Tobago in 1955, has spread to Latin America, the Caribbean, and recently to Europe, with Italy reporting its first case in June 2024.

• Oropouche fever is transmitted by infected midges and mosquitoes, and symptoms start between four and eight days after the bite, including fever, headaches, pain, and sometimes nausea.

• Most patients recover in about seven days, and there is no vaccine or specific treatment.

• The disease’s spread may be influenced by climate and environmental factors such as deforestation, but much about its transmission remains understudied.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

Explanation:

• The virus, first detected in Trinidad and Tobago in 1955, has spread to Latin America, the Caribbean, and recently to Europe, with Italy reporting its first case in June 2024.

• Oropouche fever is transmitted by infected midges and mosquitoes, and symptoms start between four and eight days after the bite, including fever, headaches, pain, and sometimes nausea.

• Most patients recover in about seven days, and there is no vaccine or specific treatment.

• The disease’s spread may be influenced by climate and environmental factors such as deforestation, but much about its transmission remains understudied.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Agarwood is primarily used in: (a) Construction materials (b) Perfume and incense (c) Textile manufacturing (d) Food seasoning Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: India has successfully prevented the inclusion of Aquilaria malaccensis (agarwood) in the Review of Significant Trade (RST) under CITES, allowing for a new export quota. About Agarwood: Agarwood, used in the aroma industry, medicine, and air fresheners, has a significant economic impact. The essential oil from agarwood has multiple traditional and medicinal uses, making it a valuable commodity. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: India has successfully prevented the inclusion of Aquilaria malaccensis (agarwood) in the Review of Significant Trade (RST) under CITES, allowing for a new export quota. About Agarwood: Agarwood, used in the aroma industry, medicine, and air fresheners, has a significant economic impact. The essential oil from agarwood has multiple traditional and medicinal uses, making it a valuable commodity. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

#### 7. Question

Agarwood is primarily used in:

• (a) Construction materials

• (b) Perfume and incense

• (c) Textile manufacturing

• (d) Food seasoning

Explanation:

• Context: India has successfully prevented the inclusion of Aquilaria malaccensis (agarwood) in the Review of Significant Trade (RST) under CITES, allowing for a new export quota.

• About Agarwood: Agarwood, used in the aroma industry, medicine, and air fresheners, has a significant economic impact. The essential oil from agarwood has multiple traditional and medicinal uses, making it a valuable commodity.

• Agarwood, used in the aroma industry, medicine, and air fresheners, has a significant economic impact.

• The essential oil from agarwood has multiple traditional and medicinal uses, making it a valuable commodity.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

Explanation:

• Context: India has successfully prevented the inclusion of Aquilaria malaccensis (agarwood) in the Review of Significant Trade (RST) under CITES, allowing for a new export quota.

• Agarwood, used in the aroma industry, medicine, and air fresheners, has a significant economic impact.

• The essential oil from agarwood has multiple traditional and medicinal uses, making it a valuable commodity.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points What is the primary goal of DNS spoofing? (a) To disrupt network traffic (b) To redirect users to malicious websites (c) To steal user passwords (d) To overload a server with traffic Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: Caller ID spoofing allows a phone call to appear as if it originates from a falsified number, often used by fraudsters, telemarketers, and others to hide their identity. DNS spoofing, also known as DNS cache poisoning, aims to redirect users from a legitimate website to a malicious one. By altering the DNS records, an attacker can make it appear as though the website is legitimate, thus stealing sensitive information like login credentials. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: Caller ID spoofing allows a phone call to appear as if it originates from a falsified number, often used by fraudsters, telemarketers, and others to hide their identity. DNS spoofing, also known as DNS cache poisoning, aims to redirect users from a legitimate website to a malicious one. By altering the DNS records, an attacker can make it appear as though the website is legitimate, thus stealing sensitive information like login credentials. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

#### 8. Question

What is the primary goal of DNS spoofing?

• (a) To disrupt network traffic

• (b) To redirect users to malicious websites

• (c) To steal user passwords

• (d) To overload a server with traffic

Explanation:

• Context: Caller ID spoofing allows a phone call to appear as if it originates from a falsified number, often used by fraudsters, telemarketers, and others to hide their identity.

• DNS spoofing, also known as DNS cache poisoning, aims to redirect users from a legitimate website to a malicious one. By altering the DNS records, an attacker can make it appear as though the website is legitimate, thus stealing sensitive information like login credentials.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

Explanation:

• Context: Caller ID spoofing allows a phone call to appear as if it originates from a falsified number, often used by fraudsters, telemarketers, and others to hide their identity.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes spoofing in the context of cybersecurity? (a) A method of breaking into a computer system by guessing passwords. (b) The act of disguising communication from an unknown source as being from a known, trusted source. (c) The practice of tracking users' activities online to gather information. (d) A technique for scanning computer networks for vulnerabilities. Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: Caller ID spoofing allows a phone call to appear as if it originates from a falsified number, often used by fraudsters, telemarketers, and others to hide their identity. Spoofing is a technique used by attackers to masquerade as a legitimate or trusted source in order to gain access to information or systems. This can involve email spoofing, IP address spoofing, and website spoofing, among other types. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: Caller ID spoofing allows a phone call to appear as if it originates from a falsified number, often used by fraudsters, telemarketers, and others to hide their identity. Spoofing is a technique used by attackers to masquerade as a legitimate or trusted source in order to gain access to information or systems. This can involve email spoofing, IP address spoofing, and website spoofing, among other types. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

#### 9. Question

Which of the following best describes spoofing in the context of cybersecurity?

• (a) A method of breaking into a computer system by guessing passwords.

• (b) The act of disguising communication from an unknown source as being from a known, trusted source.

• (c) The practice of tracking users' activities online to gather information.

• (d) A technique for scanning computer networks for vulnerabilities.

Explanation:

• Context: Caller ID spoofing allows a phone call to appear as if it originates from a falsified number, often used by fraudsters, telemarketers, and others to hide their identity.

• Spoofing is a technique used by attackers to masquerade as a legitimate or trusted source in order to gain access to information or systems. This can involve email spoofing, IP address spoofing, and website spoofing, among other types.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

Explanation:

• Context: Caller ID spoofing allows a phone call to appear as if it originates from a falsified number, often used by fraudsters, telemarketers, and others to hide their identity.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Golan Heights is a region of Israel that was originally part of Jordan. The Golan Heights is located between Israel and Lebanon. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: Israel conducted air strikes on Hezbollah targets in Lebanon after a rocket attack killed 12 young people playing football in Majdal Shams, Golan Heights About Golan Heights (or simply the Golan) It is a strategic basaltic plateau in the southwest corner of Syria. It is bordered by the Yarmouk River in the south, the Sea of Galilee and Hula Valley in the west, the Anti-Lebanon mountains with Mount Hermon in the north, and Wadi Raqqad in the east. Two thirds of the area was occupied by Israel following the 1967 Six-Day War and then effectively annexed in 1981, which was rejected by the international community that continues to consider the territory as Syrian and under Israeli occupation. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: Israel conducted air strikes on Hezbollah targets in Lebanon after a rocket attack killed 12 young people playing football in Majdal Shams, Golan Heights About Golan Heights (or simply the Golan) It is a strategic basaltic plateau in the southwest corner of Syria. It is bordered by the Yarmouk River in the south, the Sea of Galilee and Hula Valley in the west, the Anti-Lebanon mountains with Mount Hermon in the north, and Wadi Raqqad in the east. Two thirds of the area was occupied by Israel following the 1967 Six-Day War and then effectively annexed in 1981, which was rejected by the international community that continues to consider the territory as Syrian and under Israeli occupation. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Golan Heights is a region of Israel that was originally part of Jordan. The Golan Heights is located between Israel and Lebanon.

• The Golan Heights is a region of Israel that was originally part of Jordan.

• The Golan Heights is located between Israel and Lebanon.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Context: Israel conducted air strikes on Hezbollah targets in Lebanon after a rocket attack killed 12 young people playing football in Majdal Shams, Golan Heights

• About Golan Heights (or simply the Golan) It is a strategic basaltic plateau in the southwest corner of Syria. It is bordered by the Yarmouk River in the south, the Sea of Galilee and Hula Valley in the west, the Anti-Lebanon mountains with Mount Hermon in the north, and Wadi Raqqad in the east. Two thirds of the area was occupied by Israel following the 1967 Six-Day War and then effectively annexed in 1981, which was rejected by the international community that continues to consider the territory as Syrian and under Israeli occupation.

• It is a strategic basaltic plateau in the southwest corner of Syria. It is bordered by the Yarmouk River in the south, the Sea of Galilee and Hula Valley in the west, the Anti-Lebanon mountains with Mount Hermon in the north, and Wadi Raqqad in the east. Two thirds of the area was occupied by Israel following the 1967 Six-Day War and then effectively annexed in 1981, which was rejected by the international community that continues to consider the territory as Syrian and under Israeli occupation.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

Explanation:

• Context: Israel conducted air strikes on Hezbollah targets in Lebanon after a rocket attack killed 12 young people playing football in Majdal Shams, Golan Heights

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/30/upsc-current-affairs-30-july-2024/

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