UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 31 January 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Power Gap Index, consider the following statements: It is an annual index released by the World Economic Forum to measure global power parity. A negative score on the index indicates that a nation is an ‘Overperformer’ or ‘Smart Power’. It measures power efficiency by comparing a country’s comprehensive power against its expected power based on resources. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Power Gap Index is a secondary analytical measure derived from the Asia Power Index, which is developed and launched by the Lowy Institute, an independent international policy think tank based in Sydney, Australia, not the World Economic Forum. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect. The index is designed to measure a country’s Power Efficiency—specifically, its ability to convert raw resources, such as wealth and military strength, into actual regional influence through diplomacy and networks. Regarding the scoring system, a Positive Score indicates an “Overperformer” or a “Smart Power,” whereas a Negative Score signifies an “Underperformer” or a state with “Unrealized Potential.” The Economic Survey 2025-26 notes that India has a negative score of -4.0, indicating it operates below its full strategic potential. Thus, Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is correct as the index methodology involves comparing Comprehensive Power against Expected Power based on a country’s resource base. It utilizes 131 indicators across eight thematic measures, including economic capability, military capability, and diplomatic influence. This allows for a nuanced understanding of where a nation’s conversion of power might be failing, whether in trade relationships or defense networks. Incorrect Solution: A The Power Gap Index is a secondary analytical measure derived from the Asia Power Index, which is developed and launched by the Lowy Institute, an independent international policy think tank based in Sydney, Australia, not the World Economic Forum. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect. The index is designed to measure a country’s Power Efficiency—specifically, its ability to convert raw resources, such as wealth and military strength, into actual regional influence through diplomacy and networks. Regarding the scoring system, a Positive Score indicates an “Overperformer” or a “Smart Power,” whereas a Negative Score signifies an “Underperformer” or a state with “Unrealized Potential.” The Economic Survey 2025-26 notes that India has a negative score of -4.0, indicating it operates below its full strategic potential. Thus, Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is correct as the index methodology involves comparing Comprehensive Power against Expected Power based on a country’s resource base. It utilizes 131 indicators across eight thematic measures, including economic capability, military capability, and diplomatic influence. This allows for a nuanced understanding of where a nation’s conversion of power might be failing, whether in trade relationships or defense networks.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Power Gap Index, consider the following statements:

• It is an annual index released by the World Economic Forum to measure global power parity.

• A negative score on the index indicates that a nation is an ‘Overperformer’ or ‘Smart Power’.

• It measures power efficiency by comparing a country’s comprehensive power against its expected power based on resources.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The Power Gap Index is a secondary analytical measure derived from the Asia Power Index, which is developed and launched by the Lowy Institute, an independent international policy think tank based in Sydney, Australia, not the World Economic Forum. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.

• The index is designed to measure a country’s Power Efficiency—specifically, its ability to convert raw resources, such as wealth and military strength, into actual regional influence through diplomacy and networks.

• Regarding the scoring system, a Positive Score indicates an “Overperformer” or a “Smart Power,” whereas a Negative Score signifies an “Underperformer” or a state with “Unrealized Potential.” The Economic Survey 2025-26 notes that India has a negative score of -4.0, indicating it operates below its full strategic potential. Thus, Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Statement 3 is correct as the index methodology involves comparing Comprehensive Power against Expected Power based on a country’s resource base. It utilizes 131 indicators across eight thematic measures, including economic capability, military capability, and diplomatic influence. This allows for a nuanced understanding of where a nation’s conversion of power might be failing, whether in trade relationships or defense networks.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Coking Coal: It is a specific grade of bituminous coal that serves as a reducing agent in blast furnaces. High-quality coking coal is characterized by high ash and sulphur content to ensure the structural integrity of steel. When heated in an oxygen-free environment, it undergoes carbonization to form coke. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Coking coal, also known as metallurgical coal, is a grade of bituminous coal. In the steel-making process, it acts as a reducing agent in a blast furnace, where it strips oxygen from iron ore to produce liquid iron. Statement 2 is incorrect. High-quality coking coal must have low ash and low sulphur content. Impurities like ash and sulphur can weaken the structural integrity of the resulting steel and reduce the efficiency of the blast furnace. One of India’s primary challenges is that its domestic coking coal resources have a high ash content, which is why the country currently imports 95% of its requirements and requires advanced Coal Washing (beneficiation) Statement 3 is correct. The process of turning coking coal into coke is called carbonization. This involves heating the coal in an oxygen-free oven. During this process, the coal softens, swells, and then re-solidifies into a hard, porous mass known as Coke, which is strong enough to support the weight of iron ore and limestone in a blast furnace. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Coking coal, also known as metallurgical coal, is a grade of bituminous coal. In the steel-making process, it acts as a reducing agent in a blast furnace, where it strips oxygen from iron ore to produce liquid iron. Statement 2 is incorrect. High-quality coking coal must have low ash and low sulphur content. Impurities like ash and sulphur can weaken the structural integrity of the resulting steel and reduce the efficiency of the blast furnace. One of India’s primary challenges is that its domestic coking coal resources have a high ash content, which is why the country currently imports 95% of its requirements and requires advanced Coal Washing (beneficiation) Statement 3 is correct. The process of turning coking coal into coke is called carbonization. This involves heating the coal in an oxygen-free oven. During this process, the coal softens, swells, and then re-solidifies into a hard, porous mass known as Coke, which is strong enough to support the weight of iron ore and limestone in a blast furnace.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Coking Coal:

• It is a specific grade of bituminous coal that serves as a reducing agent in blast furnaces.

• High-quality coking coal is characterized by high ash and sulphur content to ensure the structural integrity of steel.

• When heated in an oxygen-free environment, it undergoes carbonization to form coke.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. Coking coal, also known as metallurgical coal, is a grade of bituminous coal. In the steel-making process, it acts as a reducing agent in a blast furnace, where it strips oxygen from iron ore to produce liquid iron.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. High-quality coking coal must have low ash and low sulphur content. Impurities like ash and sulphur can weaken the structural integrity of the resulting steel and reduce the efficiency of the blast furnace. One of India’s primary challenges is that its domestic coking coal resources have a high ash content, which is why the country currently imports 95% of its requirements and requires advanced Coal Washing (beneficiation)

Statement 3 is correct. The process of turning coking coal into coke is called carbonization. This involves heating the coal in an oxygen-free oven. During this process, the coal softens, swells, and then re-solidifies into a hard, porous mass known as Coke, which is strong enough to support the weight of iron ore and limestone in a blast furnace.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to the Digital Food Currency pilot program, consider the following statements: It is a programmed form of the e-Rupee (CBDC) developed by the Reserve Bank of India. The pilot is being launched in areas where the physical Public Distribution System (PDS) has been completely abolished. These digital tokens are “locked,” meaning they can only be used at authorized Fair Price Shops for foodgrains. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Digital Food Currency is a programmable form of the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) or e-Rupee. It is an initiative of the Government of India, developed by the RBI in coordination with the NPCI, to be launched as a pilot in February 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect. The pilot covers a diverse range of regions with different PDS structures. While it includes Chandigarh and Puducherry (urban UTs that traditionally use DBT as they have few/no ration shops), it also covers three districts in Gujarat (Anand, Sabarmati, and Dahod) which have active PDS systems. This allows the government to test the currency in different environments. Statement 3 is correct. The key feature of this digital currency is that it is “programmed.” Unlike cash transfers (DBT) which a beneficiary can spend on any commodity, these digital coupons are specifically locked for use at authorized Fair Price Shops. This ensures that the subsidy is used strictly for its intended purpose—food security—and prevents the diversion of funds. It serves as a Proof of Concept (POC) for using digital ledgers to guarantee the Right to Food while eliminating the need for frequent biometric authentication, which often fails due to technical or physical issues. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Digital Food Currency is a programmable form of the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) or e-Rupee. It is an initiative of the Government of India, developed by the RBI in coordination with the NPCI, to be launched as a pilot in February 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect. The pilot covers a diverse range of regions with different PDS structures. While it includes Chandigarh and Puducherry (urban UTs that traditionally use DBT as they have few/no ration shops), it also covers three districts in Gujarat (Anand, Sabarmati, and Dahod) which have active PDS systems. This allows the government to test the currency in different environments. Statement 3 is correct. The key feature of this digital currency is that it is “programmed.” Unlike cash transfers (DBT) which a beneficiary can spend on any commodity, these digital coupons are specifically locked for use at authorized Fair Price Shops. This ensures that the subsidy is used strictly for its intended purpose—food security—and prevents the diversion of funds. It serves as a Proof of Concept (POC) for using digital ledgers to guarantee the Right to Food while eliminating the need for frequent biometric authentication, which often fails due to technical or physical issues.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the Digital Food Currency pilot program, consider the following statements:

• It is a programmed form of the e-Rupee (CBDC) developed by the Reserve Bank of India.

• The pilot is being launched in areas where the physical Public Distribution System (PDS) has been completely abolished.

• These digital tokens are “locked,” meaning they can only be used at authorized Fair Price Shops for foodgrains.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The Digital Food Currency is a programmable form of the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) or e-Rupee. It is an initiative of the Government of India, developed by the RBI in coordination with the NPCI, to be launched as a pilot in February 2026.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The pilot covers a diverse range of regions with different PDS structures. While it includes Chandigarh and Puducherry (urban UTs that traditionally use DBT as they have few/no ration shops), it also covers three districts in Gujarat (Anand, Sabarmati, and Dahod) which have active PDS systems. This allows the government to test the currency in different environments.

Statement 3 is correct. The key feature of this digital currency is that it is “programmed.” Unlike cash transfers (DBT) which a beneficiary can spend on any commodity, these digital coupons are specifically locked for use at authorized Fair Price Shops. This ensures that the subsidy is used strictly for its intended purpose—food security—and prevents the diversion of funds. It serves as a Proof of Concept (POC) for using digital ledgers to guarantee the Right to Food while eliminating the need for frequent biometric authentication, which often fails due to technical or physical issues.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to Western Disturbances (WDs), consider the following statements: They are tropical storms that originate in the Bay of Bengal and move westward. They are driven toward the Indian subcontinent by the Subtropical Westerly Jet Stream. An increase in night temperatures is often observed just before the arrival of a Western Disturbance. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. A Western Disturbance is an extra-tropical storm (or a non-tropical low-pressure system), not a tropical storm. It originates in the Mediterranean region, not the Bay of Bengal. It picks up moisture from the Mediterranean, Caspian, and Black Seas before traveling eastwards across the Middle East and Pakistan. Statement 2 is correct. These storms are pushed toward India by the Subtropical Westerly Jet Stream, a high-altitude wind current that acts as a global conveyor belt for these weather systems. When they encounter the Himalayan barrier, the air is forced to rise, leading to precipitation. Statement 3 is correct. Before a WD arrives, there is typically a rise in night temperatures. This happens because of the incoming cloud cover, which traps the outgoing long-wave radiation from the Earth’s surface (the greenhouse effect), preventing the night from cooling down as much as it would under a clear sky. Once the WD passes and the sky clears, the temperature drops sharply as cold northerly winds from the snow-clad mountains rush into the plains, often triggering cold waves and dense fog. WDs are crucial for India’s water security as they feed Himalayan glaciers and provide essential winter rain for Rabi crops like wheat and mustard. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. A Western Disturbance is an extra-tropical storm (or a non-tropical low-pressure system), not a tropical storm. It originates in the Mediterranean region, not the Bay of Bengal. It picks up moisture from the Mediterranean, Caspian, and Black Seas before traveling eastwards across the Middle East and Pakistan. Statement 2 is correct. These storms are pushed toward India by the Subtropical Westerly Jet Stream, a high-altitude wind current that acts as a global conveyor belt for these weather systems. When they encounter the Himalayan barrier, the air is forced to rise, leading to precipitation. Statement 3 is correct. Before a WD arrives, there is typically a rise in night temperatures. This happens because of the incoming cloud cover, which traps the outgoing long-wave radiation from the Earth’s surface (the greenhouse effect), preventing the night from cooling down as much as it would under a clear sky. Once the WD passes and the sky clears, the temperature drops sharply as cold northerly winds from the snow-clad mountains rush into the plains, often triggering cold waves and dense fog. WDs are crucial for India’s water security as they feed Himalayan glaciers and provide essential winter rain for Rabi crops like wheat and mustard.

#### 4. Question

With reference to Western Disturbances (WDs), consider the following statements:

• They are tropical storms that originate in the Bay of Bengal and move westward.

• They are driven toward the Indian subcontinent by the Subtropical Westerly Jet Stream.

• An increase in night temperatures is often observed just before the arrival of a Western Disturbance.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. A Western Disturbance is an extra-tropical storm (or a non-tropical low-pressure system), not a tropical storm. It originates in the Mediterranean region, not the Bay of Bengal. It picks up moisture from the Mediterranean, Caspian, and Black Seas before traveling eastwards across the Middle East and Pakistan.

• Statement 2 is correct. These storms are pushed toward India by the Subtropical Westerly Jet Stream, a high-altitude wind current that acts as a global conveyor belt for these weather systems. When they encounter the Himalayan barrier, the air is forced to rise, leading to precipitation.

Statement 3 is correct. Before a WD arrives, there is typically a rise in night temperatures. This happens because of the incoming cloud cover, which traps the outgoing long-wave radiation from the Earth’s surface (the greenhouse effect), preventing the night from cooling down as much as it would under a clear sky. Once the WD passes and the sky clears, the temperature drops sharply as cold northerly winds from the snow-clad mountains rush into the plains, often triggering cold waves and dense fog. WDs are crucial for India’s water security as they feed Himalayan glaciers and provide essential winter rain for Rabi crops like wheat and mustard.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points With reference to the Paathara (Khoni) practice, consider the following statements: It is a traditional underground grain storage method found mainly in the coastal districts of Andhra Pradesh. The pit is plastered with straw and clay and sealed with cow dung to make it airtight and pest-proof. Rice stored in a Paathara is believed to have a lower glycemic index and enhanced flavor. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Paathara (or Khoni in Odia) practice is found in Andhra Pradesh’s Srikakulam district, it is specifically an inland, hilly terrain tradition (Uddanam region). It is rarely found in coastal belts because high moisture levels in seaside soil can seep into the pits and spoil the grain. Statement 2 is correct. The structure is highly scientific and indigenous. A pit is dug and then meticulously plastered with straw and clay. A base of hand-woven straw ropes is used for insulation. Once the paddy is filled, the top is sealed with a thick layer of clay and cow dung. This creates an airtight environment that naturally protects the grain from insects, rodents, and moisture without the need for chemical pesticides. Statement 3 is correct. Paathara-stored rice is valued as aged rice. This traditional storage method enhances the taste and nutrition of the grain. Modern health-conscious consumers prefer it because aged rice often has a lower glycemic index compared to freshly harvested rice. This practice represents a low-cost, zero-carbon, and zero-waste sustainability model, which is significant given that India loses a large percentage of food grains to poor storage. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Paathara (or Khoni in Odia) practice is found in Andhra Pradesh’s Srikakulam district, it is specifically an inland, hilly terrain tradition (Uddanam region). It is rarely found in coastal belts because high moisture levels in seaside soil can seep into the pits and spoil the grain. Statement 2 is correct. The structure is highly scientific and indigenous. A pit is dug and then meticulously plastered with straw and clay. A base of hand-woven straw ropes is used for insulation. Once the paddy is filled, the top is sealed with a thick layer of clay and cow dung. This creates an airtight environment that naturally protects the grain from insects, rodents, and moisture without the need for chemical pesticides. Statement 3 is correct. Paathara-stored rice is valued as aged rice. This traditional storage method enhances the taste and nutrition of the grain. Modern health-conscious consumers prefer it because aged rice often has a lower glycemic index compared to freshly harvested rice. This practice represents a low-cost, zero-carbon, and zero-waste sustainability model, which is significant given that India loses a large percentage of food grains to poor storage.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the Paathara (Khoni) practice, consider the following statements:

• It is a traditional underground grain storage method found mainly in the coastal districts of Andhra Pradesh.

• The pit is plastered with straw and clay and sealed with cow dung to make it airtight and pest-proof.

• Rice stored in a Paathara is believed to have a lower glycemic index and enhanced flavor.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Paathara (or Khoni in Odia) practice is found in Andhra Pradesh’s Srikakulam district, it is specifically an inland, hilly terrain tradition (Uddanam region). It is rarely found in coastal belts because high moisture levels in seaside soil can seep into the pits and spoil the grain.

• Statement 2 is correct. The structure is highly scientific and indigenous. A pit is dug and then meticulously plastered with straw and clay. A base of hand-woven straw ropes is used for insulation. Once the paddy is filled, the top is sealed with a thick layer of clay and cow dung. This creates an airtight environment that naturally protects the grain from insects, rodents, and moisture without the need for chemical pesticides.

• Statement 3 is correct. Paathara-stored rice is valued as aged rice. This traditional storage method enhances the taste and nutrition of the grain. Modern health-conscious consumers prefer it because aged rice often has a lower glycemic index compared to freshly harvested rice. This practice represents a low-cost, zero-carbon, and zero-waste sustainability model, which is significant given that India loses a large percentage of food grains to poor storage.

Solution: D

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Living Root Bridges of Meghalaya: They are locally known as ‘Jingkieng Jri’ and are handcrafted from the roots of the Banyan tree. The bridges are primarily found in the East Khasi Hills and West Jaintia Hills. They are carbon-sequestering structures that become stronger as the tree matures. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While they are locally known as Jingkieng Jri, they are handcrafted from the aerial roots of the *Ficus elastica (Indian Rubber Tree), not the Banyan tree. The Ficus elastica is chosen for its robust and flexible aerial root system which is ideal for “guided growth.” Statement 2 is correct. These bridges are a cultural landscape primarily concentrated in the East Khasi Hills and West Jaintia Hills of Meghalaya. They were created by the indigenous Khasi and Jaintia tribes as a survival strategy to cross monsoon-swollen rivers in one of the world’s wettest regions. Statement 3 is correct. Unlike modern concrete or steel bridges that decay over time, living root bridges are self-repairing and become stronger as the tree grows older and the roots thicken and interlock (a process called anastomosis). They are carbon-sequestering and represent a harmonious relationship between humans and the ecosystem, known as the Mei Ramew (Mother Earth) philosophy. India has officially nominated these bridges for UNESCO World Heritage status for the 2026-27 cycle as they serve as a global blueprint for regenerative architecture and nature-based solutions to climate change. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While they are locally known as Jingkieng Jri, they are handcrafted from the aerial roots of the Ficus elastica (Indian Rubber Tree), not the Banyan tree. The Ficus elastica is chosen for its robust and flexible aerial root system which is ideal for “guided growth.” Statement 2 is correct. These bridges are a cultural landscape primarily concentrated in the East Khasi Hills and West Jaintia Hills of Meghalaya. They were created by the indigenous Khasi and Jaintia tribes as a survival strategy to cross monsoon-swollen rivers in one of the world’s wettest regions. Statement 3 is correct. Unlike modern concrete or steel bridges that decay over time, living root bridges are self-repairing and become stronger as the tree grows older and the roots thicken and interlock (a process called anastomosis). They are carbon-sequestering and represent a harmonious relationship between humans and the ecosystem, known as the Mei Ramew (Mother Earth) philosophy. India has officially nominated these bridges for UNESCO World Heritage* status for the 2026-27 cycle as they serve as a global blueprint for regenerative architecture and nature-based solutions to climate change.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Living Root Bridges of Meghalaya:

• They are locally known as ‘Jingkieng Jri’ and are handcrafted from the roots of the Banyan tree.

• The bridges are primarily found in the East Khasi Hills and West Jaintia Hills.

• They are carbon-sequestering structures that become stronger as the tree matures.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While they are locally known as Jingkieng Jri, they are handcrafted from the aerial roots of the *Ficus elastica (Indian Rubber Tree), not the Banyan tree. The Ficus elastica* is chosen for its robust and flexible aerial root system which is ideal for “guided growth.”

• Statement 2 is correct. These bridges are a cultural landscape primarily concentrated in the East Khasi Hills and West Jaintia Hills of Meghalaya. They were created by the indigenous Khasi and Jaintia tribes as a survival strategy to cross monsoon-swollen rivers in one of the world’s wettest regions.

Statement 3 is correct. Unlike modern concrete or steel bridges that decay over time, living root bridges are self-repairing and become stronger as the tree grows older and the roots thicken and interlock (a process called anastomosis). They are carbon-sequestering and represent a harmonious relationship between humans and the ecosystem, known as the Mei Ramew (Mother Earth) philosophy. India has officially nominated these bridges for UNESCO World Heritage status for the 2026-27 cycle as they serve as a global blueprint for regenerative architecture and nature-based solutions to climate change.

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs regarding the Shiveluch Volcano, recently in news: Feature (Column A) Detail (Column B) 1. Location A. Kamchatka Peninsula, Russia 2. Type B. Stratovolcano 3. Tectonic Setting C. Pacific Ring of Fire How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Location (1-A): Shiveluch is located on the Kamchatka Peninsula in the Far Eastern Federal District of Russia. It is the northernmost active volcano in this region. Type (2-B): It is a stratovolcano, which is a cone-shaped volcano built up by many layers of hardened lava, tephra, and volcanic ash. Shiveluch is known for its highly explosive nature due to its water-rich (superhydrous) magmas. Tectonic Setting (3-C): The volcano was created by the subduction of the Pacific Plate beneath the Okhotsk Plate. This area is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, a zone of frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions. Shiveluch is significant because it has experienced at least 60 major eruptions in the last 10,000 years and has been in a state of near-continuous eruption since 1999. Its eruptions pose a threat to global aviation as it lies under major trans-Pacific air routes, and the volcanic ash can severely damage jet engines. It is also part of the Volcanoes of Kamchatka UNESCO World Heritage site. Incorrect Solution: C Location (1-A): Shiveluch is located on the Kamchatka Peninsula in the Far Eastern Federal District of Russia. It is the northernmost active volcano in this region. Type (2-B): It is a stratovolcano, which is a cone-shaped volcano built up by many layers of hardened lava, tephra, and volcanic ash. Shiveluch is known for its highly explosive nature due to its water-rich (superhydrous) magmas. Tectonic Setting (3-C): The volcano was created by the subduction of the Pacific Plate beneath the Okhotsk Plate. This area is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, a zone of frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions. Shiveluch is significant because it has experienced at least 60 major eruptions in the last 10,000 years and has been in a state of near-continuous eruption since 1999. Its eruptions pose a threat to global aviation as it lies under major trans-Pacific air routes, and the volcanic ash can severely damage jet engines. It is also part of the Volcanoes of Kamchatka UNESCO World Heritage site.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following pairs regarding the Shiveluch Volcano, recently in news:

Feature (Column A) | Detail (Column B)

1.Location | A. Kamchatka Peninsula, Russia
2.Type | B. Stratovolcano
3.Tectonic Setting | C. Pacific Ring of Fire

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Location (1-A): Shiveluch is located on the Kamchatka Peninsula in the Far Eastern Federal District of Russia. It is the northernmost active volcano in this region.

• Type (2-B): It is a stratovolcano, which is a cone-shaped volcano built up by many layers of hardened lava, tephra, and volcanic ash. Shiveluch is known for its highly explosive nature due to its water-rich (superhydrous) magmas.

• Tectonic Setting (3-C): The volcano was created by the subduction of the Pacific Plate beneath the Okhotsk Plate. This area is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, a zone of frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions.

Shiveluch is significant because it has experienced at least 60 major eruptions in the last 10,000 years and has been in a state of near-continuous eruption since 1999. Its eruptions pose a threat to global aviation as it lies under major trans-Pacific air routes, and the volcanic ash can severely damage jet engines. It is also part of the Volcanoes of Kamchatka UNESCO World Heritage site.

Solution: C

• Location (1-A): Shiveluch is located on the Kamchatka Peninsula in the Far Eastern Federal District of Russia. It is the northernmost active volcano in this region.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Buddhist Diamond Triangle in Odisha: It comprises the monastic complexes of Lalitgiri, Udayagiri, and Ratnagiri. The sites represent a continuous history of Buddhism transitioning from Hinayana to Mahayana and finally to Vajrayana schools. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C The Buddhist Diamond Triangle in Odisha is a significant cultural circuit that has recently been added to the UNESCO World Heritage Tentative List. It consists of three major monastic sites: Lalitgiri, Udayagiri, and Ratnagiri. These sites are unique because they provide a chronological and evolutionary record of Buddhist philosophy in India spanning over 1,500 years. Lalitgiri, dating back to the 2nd–3rd Century BCE, is the earliest and is famous for its relic caskets (possibly of Lord Buddha) and the first apsidal chaityagriha discovered in the state. Udayagiri is the largest complex, known for its Madhavapura Mahavihara and colossal images of Avalokiteswara. Ratnagiri represents the final flourishing of Buddhism in the form of Vajrayana (Tantric Buddhism), comparable in intellectual stature to the Nalanda University. The site is noted for its intricate iconography, including deities like Tara and Jambhala, and evidence of significant female patronage by figures such as Queen Karpurashri. The inclusion of these sites in the tentative list underscores their importance in understanding the religious syncretism and architectural development in ancient and medieval India. Incorrect Solution: C The Buddhist Diamond Triangle in Odisha is a significant cultural circuit that has recently been added to the UNESCO World Heritage Tentative List. It consists of three major monastic sites: Lalitgiri, Udayagiri, and Ratnagiri. These sites are unique because they provide a chronological and evolutionary record of Buddhist philosophy in India spanning over 1,500 years. Lalitgiri, dating back to the 2nd–3rd Century BCE, is the earliest and is famous for its relic caskets (possibly of Lord Buddha) and the first apsidal chaityagriha discovered in the state. Udayagiri is the largest complex, known for its Madhavapura Mahavihara and colossal images of Avalokiteswara. Ratnagiri represents the final flourishing of Buddhism in the form of Vajrayana (Tantric Buddhism), comparable in intellectual stature to the Nalanda University. The site is noted for its intricate iconography, including deities like Tara and Jambhala, and evidence of significant female patronage by figures such as Queen Karpurashri. The inclusion of these sites in the tentative list underscores their importance in understanding the religious syncretism and architectural development in ancient and medieval India.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Buddhist Diamond Triangle in Odisha:

• It comprises the monastic complexes of Lalitgiri, Udayagiri, and Ratnagiri.

• The sites represent a continuous history of Buddhism transitioning from Hinayana to Mahayana and finally to Vajrayana schools.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• The Buddhist Diamond Triangle in Odisha is a significant cultural circuit that has recently been added to the UNESCO World Heritage Tentative List. It consists of three major monastic sites: Lalitgiri, Udayagiri, and Ratnagiri. These sites are unique because they provide a chronological and evolutionary record of Buddhist philosophy in India spanning over 1,500 years. Lalitgiri, dating back to the 2nd–3rd Century BCE, is the earliest and is famous for its relic caskets (possibly of Lord Buddha) and the first apsidal chaityagriha discovered in the state.

• Udayagiri is the largest complex, known for its Madhavapura Mahavihara and colossal images of Avalokiteswara. Ratnagiri represents the final flourishing of Buddhism in the form of Vajrayana (Tantric Buddhism), comparable in intellectual stature to the Nalanda University. The site is noted for its intricate iconography, including deities like Tara and Jambhala, and evidence of significant female patronage by figures such as Queen Karpurashri. The inclusion of these sites in the tentative list underscores their importance in understanding the religious syncretism and architectural development in ancient and medieval India.

Solution: C

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO), consider the following statements: The Council of National Coordinators (CNC) is the primary mechanism for coordinating the multilateral cooperation of member states. The SCO represents more than 40% of the world’s population. Decisions within the SCO bodies are taken by a simple majority vote. The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) is headquartered in Beijing. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is a major intergovernmental body. Statement 1 is correct; the Council of National Coordinators (CNC) acts as the essential link between member states and the permanent bodies, finalizing agendas for high-level summits. Statement 2 is also correct, as the SCO covers a massive geographic area and includes demographic giants like India and China, accounting for approximately 42% of the global population and over 23% of global GDP. However, Statement 3 is incorrect because the SCO functions on the principle of consensus for all its decisions, reflecting the “Shanghai Spirit” of equality and consultation. Statement 4 is incorrect regarding the location; while the SCO Secretariat is in Beijing, the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) is headquartered in Tashkent, Uzbekistan. RATS is tasked with combating the “Three Evils”: terrorism, separatism, and extremism. With the inclusion of Iran (2023) and Belarus (2024), the SCO has expanded its footprint across Eurasia, making it the world’s largest regional organization. Incorrect Solution: B The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is a major intergovernmental body. Statement 1 is correct; the Council of National Coordinators (CNC) acts as the essential link between member states and the permanent bodies, finalizing agendas for high-level summits. Statement 2 is also correct, as the SCO covers a massive geographic area and includes demographic giants like India and China, accounting for approximately 42% of the global population and over 23% of global GDP. However, Statement 3 is incorrect because the SCO functions on the principle of consensus for all its decisions, reflecting the “Shanghai Spirit” of equality and consultation. Statement 4 is incorrect regarding the location; while the SCO Secretariat is in Beijing, the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) is headquartered in Tashkent, Uzbekistan. RATS is tasked with combating the “Three Evils”: terrorism, separatism, and extremism. With the inclusion of Iran (2023) and Belarus (2024), the SCO has expanded its footprint across Eurasia, making it the world’s largest regional organization.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO), consider the following statements:

• The Council of National Coordinators (CNC) is the primary mechanism for coordinating the multilateral cooperation of member states.

• The SCO represents more than 40% of the world’s population.

• Decisions within the SCO bodies are taken by a simple majority vote.

• The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) is headquartered in Beijing.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is a major intergovernmental body.

• Statement 1 is correct; the Council of National Coordinators (CNC) acts as the essential link between member states and the permanent bodies, finalizing agendas for high-level summits.

• Statement 2 is also correct, as the SCO covers a massive geographic area and includes demographic giants like India and China, accounting for approximately 42% of the global population and over 23% of global GDP.

• However, Statement 3 is incorrect because the SCO functions on the principle of consensus for all its decisions, reflecting the “Shanghai Spirit” of equality and consultation.

• Statement 4 is incorrect regarding the location; while the SCO Secretariat is in Beijing, the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) is headquartered in Tashkent, Uzbekistan. RATS is tasked with combating the “Three Evils”: terrorism, separatism, and extremism. With the inclusion of Iran (2023) and Belarus (2024), the SCO has expanded its footprint across Eurasia, making it the world’s largest regional organization.

Solution: B

• The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is a major intergovernmental body.

• Statement 1 is correct; the Council of National Coordinators (CNC) acts as the essential link between member states and the permanent bodies, finalizing agendas for high-level summits.

• However, Statement 3 is incorrect because the SCO functions on the principle of consensus for all its decisions, reflecting the “Shanghai Spirit” of equality and consultation.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Economic Survey of India: Statement-I: The Economic Survey is traditionally presented in Parliament one day before the Union Budget. Statement-II: The document provides a detailed review of the economy’s performance and serves as a policy guide for future reforms. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: B The Economic Survey is the Ministry of Finance’s flagship document. Statement-I is correct; since 1964, it has been de-linked from the Budget and is presented a day prior (typically January 31st or a similar date relative to the Budget) to set the context for the government’s fiscal proposals. Statement-II is also correct, as the survey analyzes sectoral performance (agriculture, industry, services) and macroeconomic indicators (GDP, inflation, fiscal deficit) while suggesting future policy interventions. However, Statement-II is not the reason for Statement-I’s timing. The reason they are presented on different days is to allow for a focused discussion on the state of the economy (the Survey) before the specific revenue and expenditure proposals (the Budget) are introduced. This separation ensures that the diagnostic analysis of the previous year does not get overshadowed by the allocative announcements of the upcoming year. The Survey is prepared by the Economics Division of the Department of Economic Affairs under the guidance of the Chief Economic Advisor (CEA). Incorrect Solution: B The Economic Survey is the Ministry of Finance’s flagship document. Statement-I is correct; since 1964, it has been de-linked from the Budget and is presented a day prior (typically January 31st or a similar date relative to the Budget) to set the context for the government’s fiscal proposals. Statement-II is also correct, as the survey analyzes sectoral performance (agriculture, industry, services) and macroeconomic indicators (GDP, inflation, fiscal deficit) while suggesting future policy interventions. However, Statement-II is not the reason for Statement-I’s timing. The reason they are presented on different days is to allow for a focused discussion on the state of the economy (the Survey) before the specific revenue and expenditure proposals (the Budget) are introduced. This separation ensures that the diagnostic analysis of the previous year does not get overshadowed by the allocative announcements of the upcoming year. The Survey is prepared by the Economics Division of the Department of Economic Affairs under the guidance of the Chief Economic Advisor (CEA).

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Economic Survey of India:

Statement-I: The Economic Survey is traditionally presented in Parliament one day before the Union Budget.

Statement-II: The document provides a detailed review of the economy’s performance and serves as a policy guide for future reforms.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: B

• The Economic Survey is the Ministry of Finance’s flagship document.

• Statement-I is correct; since 1964, it has been de-linked from the Budget and is presented a day prior (typically January 31st or a similar date relative to the Budget) to set the context for the government’s fiscal proposals.

• Statement-II is also correct, as the survey analyzes sectoral performance (agriculture, industry, services) and macroeconomic indicators (GDP, inflation, fiscal deficit) while suggesting future policy interventions.

• However, Statement-II is not the reason for Statement-I’s timing. The reason they are presented on different days is to allow for a focused discussion on the state of the economy (the Survey) before the specific revenue and expenditure proposals (the Budget) are introduced. This separation ensures that the diagnostic analysis of the previous year does not get overshadowed by the allocative announcements of the upcoming year. The Survey is prepared by the Economics Division of the Department of Economic Affairs under the guidance of the Chief Economic Advisor (CEA).

Solution: B

• The Economic Survey is the Ministry of Finance’s flagship document.

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