UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 30 October 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 10 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 10 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the 8th Central Pay Commission (CPC), consider the following statements: It is a permanent, statutory body constituted to recommend revisions in the salary structure of Central Government employees. The recommendations of the 8th CPC are expected to be implemented from January 1, 2026, marking a shift from the traditional decade-long cycle of pay revisions. Its mandate includes ensuring parity between Central services and private sector employees but excludes the financial implications for State Governments. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Central Pay Commission is an expert body, but it is temporary, not permanent. It is set up by the Union Government as needed and is not a statutory body (i.e., not established by an Act of Parliament). Statement 2 is incorrect. The implementation date of January 1, 2026, continues the decade-long cycle of pay revisions followed since the First CPC (1946), it does not mark a shift away from it. Statement 3 is incorrect. The mandate of the 8th CPC explicitly includes evaluating the impact its recommendations will have on State Government finances to ensure coordinated implementation. It does not exclude this crucial aspect. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Central Pay Commission is an expert body, but it is temporary, not permanent. It is set up by the Union Government as needed and is not a statutory body (i.e., not established by an Act of Parliament). Statement 2 is incorrect. The implementation date of January 1, 2026, continues the decade-long cycle of pay revisions followed since the First CPC (1946), it does not mark a shift away from it. Statement 3 is incorrect. The mandate of the 8th CPC explicitly includes evaluating the impact its recommendations will have on State Government finances to ensure coordinated implementation. It does not exclude this crucial aspect.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the 8th Central Pay Commission (CPC), consider the following statements:

• It is a permanent, statutory body constituted to recommend revisions in the salary structure of Central Government employees.

• The recommendations of the 8th CPC are expected to be implemented from January 1, 2026, marking a shift from the traditional decade-long cycle of pay revisions.

• Its mandate includes ensuring parity between Central services and private sector employees but excludes the financial implications for State Governments.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Central Pay Commission is an expert body, but it is temporary, not permanent. It is set up by the Union Government as needed and is not a statutory body (i.e., not established by an Act of Parliament).

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The implementation date of January 1, 2026, continues the decade-long cycle of pay revisions followed since the First CPC (1946), it does not mark a shift away from it.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The mandate of the 8th CPC explicitly includes evaluating the impact its recommendations will have on State Government finances to ensure coordinated implementation. It does not exclude this crucial aspect.

Solution: D

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the AmazonFACE experiment: It is the first Free-Air CO₂ Enrichment (FACE) experiment to be conducted in a natural tropical forest ecosystem. The experiment simulates future atmospheric conditions by fumigating trees with elevated levels of oxygen and ozone. The project provides critical data for climate policy, particularly concerning rainforest conservation and carbon budgeting for COP30. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. It is the first experiment of its kind in tropical forests and the “first large-scale FACE experiment in a natural tropical forest.” Previous experiments were conducted in temperate regions. Statement 2 is incorrect. The experiment is a “Free-Air CO₂ Enrichment” project. It fumigates trees with elevated concentrations of carbon dioxide (CO₂), not oxygen and ozone. The goal is to study the rainforest’s response to future CO₂ levels. Statement 3 is correct. The experiment’s significance is explicitly linked to policy. It “provides crucial input for climate policy deliberations at COP30” and is relevant for “rainforest conservation and carbon budgeting.” Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. It is the first experiment of its kind in tropical forests and the “first large-scale FACE experiment in a natural tropical forest.” Previous experiments were conducted in temperate regions. Statement 2 is incorrect. The experiment is a “Free-Air CO₂ Enrichment” project. It fumigates trees with elevated concentrations of carbon dioxide (CO₂), not oxygen and ozone. The goal is to study the rainforest’s response to future CO₂ levels. Statement 3 is correct. The experiment’s significance is explicitly linked to policy. It “provides crucial input for climate policy deliberations at COP30” and is relevant for “rainforest conservation and carbon budgeting.”

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about the AmazonFACE experiment:

• It is the first Free-Air CO₂ Enrichment (FACE) experiment to be conducted in a natural tropical forest ecosystem.

• The experiment simulates future atmospheric conditions by fumigating trees with elevated levels of oxygen and ozone.

• The project provides critical data for climate policy, particularly concerning rainforest conservation and carbon budgeting for COP30.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. It is the first experiment of its kind in tropical forests and the “first large-scale FACE experiment in a natural tropical forest.” Previous experiments were conducted in temperate regions.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The experiment is a “Free-Air CO₂ Enrichment” project. It fumigates trees with elevated concentrations of carbon dioxide (CO₂), not oxygen and ozone. The goal is to study the rainforest’s response to future CO₂ levels.

• Statement 3 is correct. The experiment’s significance is explicitly linked to policy. It “provides crucial input for climate policy deliberations at COP30” and is relevant for “rainforest conservation and carbon budgeting.”

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Scheme. Statement-I: The Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Scheme allows fertilizer companies the freedom to fix the Maximum Retail Prices (MRPs) for Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) fertilizers. Statement-II: The primary objective of the NBS Scheme is to deregulate the fertilizer industry completely and phase out all government subsidies to promote a free-market mechanism. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct. A key feature of the NBS Scheme is “Freedom in MRP fixation.” The “Fertilizer companies can set Maximum Retail Prices (MRPs) reasonably,” although these are monitored by the government. This is a departure from the previous system. Statement-II is incorrect. The objective of the NBS Scheme is not complete deregulation or phasing out of all subsidies. The scheme is a subsidy scheme (“a fixed subsidy per kg of nutrient”). Its aims are to promote balanced fertilizer use, ensure availability at reasonable prices, and encourage industry efficiency, not to end government support. The government still provides the subsidy and monitors prices. Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct. A key feature of the NBS Scheme is “Freedom in MRP fixation.” The “Fertilizer companies can set Maximum Retail Prices (MRPs) reasonably,” although these are monitored by the government. This is a departure from the previous system. Statement-II is incorrect. The objective of the NBS Scheme is not complete deregulation or phasing out of all subsidies. The scheme is a subsidy scheme (“a fixed subsidy per kg of nutrient”). Its aims are to promote balanced fertilizer use, ensure availability at reasonable prices, and encourage industry efficiency, not to end government support. The government still provides the subsidy and monitors prices.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Scheme.

Statement-I: The Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Scheme allows fertilizer companies the freedom to fix the Maximum Retail Prices (MRPs) for Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) fertilizers.

Statement-II: The primary objective of the NBS Scheme is to deregulate the fertilizer industry completely and phase out all government subsidies to promote a free-market mechanism.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement-I is correct. A key feature of the NBS Scheme is “Freedom in MRP fixation.” The “Fertilizer companies can set Maximum Retail Prices (MRPs) reasonably,” although these are monitored by the government. This is a departure from the previous system.

• Statement-II is incorrect. The objective of the NBS Scheme is not complete deregulation or phasing out of all subsidies. The scheme is a subsidy scheme (“a fixed subsidy per kg of nutrient”). Its aims are to promote balanced fertilizer use, ensure availability at reasonable prices, and encourage industry efficiency, not to end government support. The government still provides the subsidy and monitors prices.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following conditions were key factors in the rapid intensification of Hurricane Melissa? (a) Low-pressure disturbance, cold sea surface temperatures, and low humidity. (b) High-pressure disturbance, warm sea surface temperatures, and low humidity. (c) Low-pressure disturbance, warm sea surface temperatures, and high humidity. (d) High-pressure disturbance, cold sea surface temperatures, and high humidity. Correct Solution: C The formation process of a hurricane (a tropical cyclone) requires specific ingredients. The process for Hurricane Melissa: It began as a “Low-pressure disturbance.” It underwent “rapid intensification” fueled by “Warm sea surface temperatures and high humidity.” Cold sea surface temperatures and low humidity are inhibiting factors for hurricane development, as they reduce the heat energy and moisture (latent heat) that a storm needs to strengthen. A high-pressure system is also incorrect, as hurricanes are intense low-pressure systems. Incorrect Solution: C The formation process of a hurricane (a tropical cyclone) requires specific ingredients. The process for Hurricane Melissa: It began as a “Low-pressure disturbance.” It underwent “rapid intensification” fueled by “Warm sea surface temperatures and high humidity.” Cold sea surface temperatures and low humidity are inhibiting factors for hurricane development, as they reduce the heat energy and moisture (latent heat) that a storm needs to strengthen. A high-pressure system is also incorrect, as hurricanes are intense low-pressure systems.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following conditions were key factors in the rapid intensification of Hurricane Melissa?

• (a) Low-pressure disturbance, cold sea surface temperatures, and low humidity.

• (b) High-pressure disturbance, warm sea surface temperatures, and low humidity.

• (c) Low-pressure disturbance, warm sea surface temperatures, and high humidity.

• (d) High-pressure disturbance, cold sea surface temperatures, and high humidity.

Solution: C

The formation process of a hurricane (a tropical cyclone) requires specific ingredients. The process for Hurricane Melissa:

• It began as a “Low-pressure disturbance.”

• It underwent “rapid intensification” fueled by “Warm sea surface temperatures and high humidity.”

Cold sea surface temperatures and low humidity are inhibiting factors for hurricane development, as they reduce the heat energy and moisture (latent heat) that a storm needs to strengthen. A high-pressure system is also incorrect, as hurricanes are intense low-pressure systems.

Solution: C

The formation process of a hurricane (a tropical cyclone) requires specific ingredients. The process for Hurricane Melissa:

• It began as a “Low-pressure disturbance.”

• It underwent “rapid intensification” fueled by “Warm sea surface temperatures and high humidity.”

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the process of cloud seeding: The process can be initiated at any time, as it does not depend on pre-existing weather conditions. In warm clouds, silver iodide acts as a condensation nucleus around which water droplets form. The induced rainfall provides a long-term, sustainable solution to the root causes of air pollution. Flares containing seeding agents are released into the base or interior of identified clouds to initiate nucleation. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The process is highly dependent on weather. “Meteorologists first… identify clouds with sufficient moisture content and depth. Statement 2 is incorrect. “In warm clouds, water droplets form and grow around the salt particles [like sodium chloride]; in cold clouds, ice crystals form around silver iodide.” Statement 3 is incorrect. It provides “only temporary pollution reduction” and does “not address… root causes like emissions and stubble burning.” Statement 4 is correct. The “flares are ignited and released into the base or interior of the clouds.” These flares “contain fine particles that act as condensation or ice nuclei,” initiating the nucleation process. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The process is highly dependent on weather. “Meteorologists first… identify clouds with sufficient moisture content and depth. Statement 2 is incorrect. “In warm clouds, water droplets form and grow around the salt particles [like sodium chloride]; in cold clouds, ice crystals form around silver iodide.” Statement 3 is incorrect. It provides “only temporary pollution reduction” and does “not address… root causes like emissions and stubble burning.” Statement 4 is correct. The “flares are ignited and released into the base or interior of the clouds.” These flares “contain fine particles that act as condensation or ice nuclei,” initiating the nucleation process.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the process of cloud seeding:

• The process can be initiated at any time, as it does not depend on pre-existing weather conditions.

• In warm clouds, silver iodide acts as a condensation nucleus around which water droplets form.

• The induced rainfall provides a long-term, sustainable solution to the root causes of air pollution.

• Flares containing seeding agents are released into the base or interior of identified clouds to initiate nucleation.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The process is highly dependent on weather. “Meteorologists first… identify clouds with sufficient moisture content and depth.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. “In warm clouds, water droplets form and grow around the salt particles [like sodium chloride]; in cold clouds, ice crystals form around silver iodide.”

• Statement 3 is incorrect. It provides “only temporary pollution reduction” and does “not address… root causes like emissions and stubble burning.”

• Statement 4 is correct. The “flares are ignited and released into the base or interior of the clouds.” These flares “contain fine particles that act as condensation or ice nuclei,” initiating the nucleation process.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The process is highly dependent on weather. “Meteorologists first… identify clouds with sufficient moisture content and depth.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. It provides “only temporary pollution reduction” and does “not address… root causes like emissions and stubble burning.”

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the island of Cyprus: Cyprus is located in the western Mediterranean Sea, south of mainland Greece. The capital city, Nicosia, is entirely controlled by the Republic of Cyprus, a member of the European Union. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. Cyprus is located in the eastern Mediterranean Sea. It lies south of Turkey and southeast of mainland Greece, not west of the sea or directly south of Greece. Statement 2 is incorrect. Nicosia is the “world’s only divided capital.” It is shared between the Republic of Cyprus in the south and the Turkish Republic of Northern Cyprus (recognized only by Turkey) in the north. It is not entirely controlled by the Republic of Cyprus. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. Cyprus is located in the eastern Mediterranean Sea. It lies south of Turkey and southeast of mainland Greece, not west of the sea or directly south of Greece. Statement 2 is incorrect. Nicosia is the “world’s only divided capital.” It is shared between the Republic of Cyprus in the south and the Turkish Republic of Northern Cyprus (recognized only by Turkey) in the north. It is not entirely controlled by the Republic of Cyprus.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the island of Cyprus:

• Cyprus is located in the western Mediterranean Sea, south of mainland Greece.

• The capital city, Nicosia, is entirely controlled by the Republic of Cyprus, a member of the European Union.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Cyprus is located in the eastern Mediterranean Sea. It lies south of Turkey and southeast of mainland Greece, not west of the sea or directly south of Greece.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Nicosia is the “world’s only divided capital.” It is shared between the Republic of Cyprus in the south and the Turkish Republic of Northern Cyprus (recognized only by Turkey) in the north. It is not entirely controlled by the Republic of Cyprus.

Solution: D

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY) is designed to provide a financial safety net against catastrophic medical expenditure for the bottom 40% of the Indian population. Statement-II: The scheme provides cashless and portable access to health cover of ₹5 lakh per family per year, covering secondary and tertiary care across the nation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The aim is to provide healthcare to “12 crore vulnerable families… covering the bottom 40% of the Indian population” and to “prevent catastrophic medical expenditure that pushes millions into poverty.” Statement-II is correct. The key features are “cashless and paperless access,” a “₹5 lakh annual health cover per family,” and “Portability,” allowing benefits to “be availed in any empanelled hospital across India.” It covers secondary and tertiary care. The mechanism described in Statement-II is the direct means of achieving the aim described in Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The aim is to provide healthcare to “12 crore vulnerable families… covering the bottom 40% of the Indian population” and to “prevent catastrophic medical expenditure that pushes millions into poverty.” Statement-II is correct. The key features are “cashless and paperless access,” a “₹5 lakh annual health cover per family,” and “Portability,” allowing benefits to “be availed in any empanelled hospital across India.” It covers secondary and tertiary care. The mechanism described in Statement-II is the direct means of achieving the aim described in Statement-I.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY) is designed to provide a financial safety net against catastrophic medical expenditure for the bottom 40% of the Indian population.

Statement-II: The scheme provides cashless and portable access to health cover of ₹5 lakh per family per year, covering secondary and tertiary care across the nation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. The aim is to provide healthcare to “12 crore vulnerable families… covering the bottom 40% of the Indian population” and to “prevent catastrophic medical expenditure that pushes millions into poverty.”

• Statement-II is correct. The key features are “cashless and paperless access,” a “₹5 lakh annual health cover per family,” and “Portability,” allowing benefits to “be availed in any empanelled hospital across India.” It covers secondary and tertiary care.

• The mechanism described in Statement-II is the direct means of achieving the aim described in Statement-I.

Solution: A

• The mechanism described in Statement-II is the direct means of achieving the aim described in Statement-I.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Regarding India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves, consider the following statements: Foreign Currency Assets (FCA) include assets denominated only in US Dollars. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) are physical currency notes issued by the IMF. The Reserve Position in the IMF allows India unconditional access to a portion of its quota contribution. The RBI intervenes in the forex market using these reserves primarily to fix the exchange rate of the Rupee. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. FCA, the largest component, includes assets denominated in various major foreign currencies like the US Dollar, Euro, Pound Sterling, Japanese Yen, etc., not just the US Dollar. The value is often reported in USD equivalent, but the holdings are diversified. Statement 2 is incorrect. SDRs are not physical currency. They are an international reserve asset created by the IMF, acting as a potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF members. Their value is based on a basket of major currencies. Transactions involving SDRs are typically accounting entries between member countries and the IMF. Statement 3 is correct. The Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) represents the part of India’s IMF quota paid in foreign currency or SDRs. India can draw upon this amount automatically and unconditionally if needed for balance of payments purposes, without facing IMF conditions or service charges. It’s considered part of India’s liquid reserves. Statement 4 is incorrect. The RBI intervenes in the forex market using reserves not to fix the exchange rate (India follows a managed float regime), but to curb excessive volatility and maintain orderly market conditions. The aim is to manage fluctuations, not peg the Rupee to a specific value. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. FCA, the largest component, includes assets denominated in various major foreign currencies like the US Dollar, Euro, Pound Sterling, Japanese Yen, etc., not just the US Dollar. The value is often reported in USD equivalent, but the holdings are diversified. Statement 2 is incorrect. SDRs are not physical currency. They are an international reserve asset created by the IMF, acting as a potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF members. Their value is based on a basket of major currencies. Transactions involving SDRs are typically accounting entries between member countries and the IMF. Statement 3 is correct. The Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) represents the part of India’s IMF quota paid in foreign currency or SDRs. India can draw upon this amount automatically and unconditionally if needed for balance of payments purposes, without facing IMF conditions or service charges. It’s considered part of India’s liquid reserves. Statement 4 is incorrect. The RBI intervenes in the forex market using reserves not to fix the exchange rate (India follows a managed float regime), but to curb excessive volatility and maintain orderly market conditions. The aim is to manage fluctuations, not peg the Rupee to a specific value.

#### 8. Question

Regarding India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves, consider the following statements:

• Foreign Currency Assets (FCA) include assets denominated only in US Dollars.

• Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) are physical currency notes issued by the IMF.

• The Reserve Position in the IMF allows India unconditional access to a portion of its quota contribution.

• The RBI intervenes in the forex market using these reserves primarily to fix the exchange rate of the Rupee.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. FCA, the largest component, includes assets denominated in various major foreign currencies like the US Dollar, Euro, Pound Sterling, Japanese Yen, etc., not just the US Dollar. The value is often reported in USD equivalent, but the holdings are diversified.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. SDRs are not physical currency. They are an international reserve asset created by the IMF, acting as a potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF members. Their value is based on a basket of major currencies. Transactions involving SDRs are typically accounting entries between member countries and the IMF.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) represents the part of India’s IMF quota paid in foreign currency or SDRs. India can draw upon this amount automatically and unconditionally if needed for balance of payments purposes, without facing IMF conditions or service charges. It’s considered part of India’s liquid reserves.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The RBI intervenes in the forex market using reserves not to fix the exchange rate (India follows a managed float regime), but to curb excessive volatility and maintain orderly market conditions. The aim is to manage fluctuations, not peg the Rupee to a specific value.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Polio vaccines: Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) provides intestinal immunity, helping to stop person-to-person transmission. Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) contains live attenuated polioviruses. India relied solely on IPV for its Pulse Polio Immunisation Programme. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. OPV, containing live attenuated viruses, replicates in the gut. This induces strong intestinal (mucosal) immunity, which is crucial for preventing the poliovirus from multiplying in the intestines and being shed in faeces, thereby helping to interrupt the chain of transmission (faecal-oral route). Statement 2 is incorrect. IPV contains killed (inactivated) polioviruses. It is administered via injection and primarily induces systemic (bloodstream) immunity, protecting against paralysis, but it is less effective than OPV at preventing intestinal infection and shedding. OPV uses live attenuated viruses. Statement 3 is incorrect. India’s highly successful Pulse Polio Immunisation Programme predominantly relied on the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) due to its ease of administration (oral drops), lower cost, and ability to induce intestinal immunity, crucial for stopping transmission in densely populated areas with sanitation challenges. IPV has been introduced later into the routine immunization schedule, often used in conjunction with OPV. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. OPV, containing live attenuated viruses, replicates in the gut. This induces strong intestinal (mucosal) immunity, which is crucial for preventing the poliovirus from multiplying in the intestines and being shed in faeces, thereby helping to interrupt the chain of transmission (faecal-oral route). Statement 2 is incorrect. IPV contains killed (inactivated) polioviruses. It is administered via injection and primarily induces systemic (bloodstream) immunity, protecting against paralysis, but it is less effective than OPV at preventing intestinal infection and shedding. OPV uses live attenuated viruses. Statement 3 is incorrect. India’s highly successful Pulse Polio Immunisation Programme predominantly relied on the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) due to its ease of administration (oral drops), lower cost, and ability to induce intestinal immunity, crucial for stopping transmission in densely populated areas with sanitation challenges. IPV has been introduced later into the routine immunization schedule, often used in conjunction with OPV.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about Polio vaccines:

• Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) provides intestinal immunity, helping to stop person-to-person transmission.

• Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) contains live attenuated polioviruses.

• India relied solely on IPV for its Pulse Polio Immunisation Programme.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. OPV, containing live attenuated viruses, replicates in the gut. This induces strong intestinal (mucosal) immunity, which is crucial for preventing the poliovirus from multiplying in the intestines and being shed in faeces, thereby helping to interrupt the chain of transmission (faecal-oral route).

• Statement 2 is incorrect. IPV contains killed (inactivated) polioviruses. It is administered via injection and primarily induces systemic (bloodstream) immunity, protecting against paralysis, but it is less effective than OPV at preventing intestinal infection and shedding. OPV uses live attenuated viruses.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. India’s highly successful Pulse Polio Immunisation Programme predominantly relied on the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) due to its ease of administration (oral drops), lower cost, and ability to induce intestinal immunity, crucial for stopping transmission in densely populated areas with sanitation challenges. IPV has been introduced later into the routine immunization schedule, often used in conjunction with OPV.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs regarding recent developments in Science and Technology: Term/Technology Description 1. Agentic AI AI systems that can autonomously plan and execute complex tasks without continuous human input. 2. Post-Quantum Cryptography (PQC) Cryptographic algorithms designed to be secure against attacks by both classical and quantum computers. 3. BAETA A new material derived from plastic waste, developed for capturing oxygen from the atmosphere. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Pair 1 is correctly matched. ‘Agentic AI’ refers to a new generation of AI systems or ‘agents’ that can operate autonomously. They can understand high-level goals, break them down into steps, execute the plan, and iterate without constant human supervision, effectively acting as “virtual coworkers”. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Post-Quantum Cryptography (PQC) is a critical field of cybersecurity focused on developing new cryptographic systems that can resist attacks from future large-scale quantum computers, which are expected to be able to break many current encryption standards. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) is in the process of standardizing these new algorithms. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. BAETA is a new, energy-efficient material developed by chemists from old plastic bottles. However, its function is to capture carbon dioxide (CO2) from the air, not oxygen. It is a development in the field of carbon capture technology. Incorrect Solution: B Pair 1 is correctly matched. ‘Agentic AI’ refers to a new generation of AI systems or ‘agents’ that can operate autonomously. They can understand high-level goals, break them down into steps, execute the plan, and iterate without constant human supervision, effectively acting as “virtual coworkers”. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Post-Quantum Cryptography (PQC) is a critical field of cybersecurity focused on developing new cryptographic systems that can resist attacks from future large-scale quantum computers, which are expected to be able to break many current encryption standards. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) is in the process of standardizing these new algorithms. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. BAETA is a new, energy-efficient material developed by chemists from old plastic bottles. However, its function is to capture carbon dioxide (CO2) from the air, not oxygen. It is a development in the field of carbon capture technology.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following pairs regarding recent developments in Science and Technology:

Term/Technology | Description

1.Agentic AI | AI systems that can autonomously plan and execute complex tasks without continuous human input.
2.Post-Quantum Cryptography (PQC) | Cryptographic algorithms designed to be secure against attacks by both classical and quantum computers.
3.BAETA | A new material derived from plastic waste, developed for capturing oxygen from the atmosphere.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Pair 1 is correctly matched. ‘Agentic AI’ refers to a new generation of AI systems or ‘agents’ that can operate autonomously. They can understand high-level goals, break them down into steps, execute the plan, and iterate without constant human supervision, effectively acting as “virtual coworkers”.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched. Post-Quantum Cryptography (PQC) is a critical field of cybersecurity focused on developing new cryptographic systems that can resist attacks from future large-scale quantum computers, which are expected to be able to break many current encryption standards. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) is in the process of standardizing these new algorithms.

• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. BAETA is a new, energy-efficient material developed by chemists from old plastic bottles. However, its function is to capture carbon dioxide (CO2) from the air, not oxygen. It is a development in the field of carbon capture technology.

Solution: B

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates for

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE