UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 30 July 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 10 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 10 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar’ (MGMD) initiative: It is a cultural mapping project mainly focused on documenting the tangible heritage of Indian villages, such as monuments and artefacts. The Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA) is the primary implementing agency for this project. The initiative aims to create a comprehensive database that links village artists to government welfare schemes. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The ‘Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar’ (MGMD) initiative’s primary focus is on documenting the intangible cultural heritage of villages. This includes oral traditions, performing arts, social practices, rituals, festive events, and traditional craftsmanship, not just tangible heritage like monuments. Statement 2 is correct. The project is being implemented by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA) under the aegis of the Ministry of Culture. IGNCA is responsible for the cultural mapping and documentation processes. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the MGMD web portal is to serve as the National Cultural Workplace (NCWP). This platform facilitates the registration of artists and the creation of Unique Identification Codes (UICs), which helps in linking them to various government welfare schemes, thereby promoting their economic well-being and preserving cultural practices. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The ‘Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar’ (MGMD) initiative’s primary focus is on documenting the intangible cultural heritage of villages. This includes oral traditions, performing arts, social practices, rituals, festive events, and traditional craftsmanship, not just tangible heritage like monuments. Statement 2 is correct. The project is being implemented by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA) under the aegis of the Ministry of Culture. IGNCA is responsible for the cultural mapping and documentation processes. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the MGMD web portal is to serve as the National Cultural Workplace (NCWP). This platform facilitates the registration of artists and the creation of Unique Identification Codes (UICs), which helps in linking them to various government welfare schemes, thereby promoting their economic well-being and preserving cultural practices.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar’ (MGMD) initiative:

• It is a cultural mapping project mainly focused on documenting the tangible heritage of Indian villages, such as monuments and artefacts.

• The Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA) is the primary implementing agency for this project.

• The initiative aims to create a comprehensive database that links village artists to government welfare schemes.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The ‘Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar’ (MGMD) initiative’s primary focus is on documenting the intangible cultural heritage of villages. This includes oral traditions, performing arts, social practices, rituals, festive events, and traditional craftsmanship, not just tangible heritage like monuments.

• Statement 2 is correct. The project is being implemented by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA) under the aegis of the Ministry of Culture. IGNCA is responsible for the cultural mapping and documentation processes.

Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the MGMD web portal is to serve as the National Cultural Workplace (NCWP). This platform facilitates the registration of artists and the creation of Unique Identification Codes (UICs), which helps in linking them to various government welfare schemes, thereby promoting their economic well-being and preserving cultural practices.

Solution: D

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With reference to the first-ever Grassland Bird Census in Kaziranga National Park, consider the following statements: The census was conducted by the Forest Department of Assam without the involvement of external researchers. It employed Passive Acoustic Monitoring technology to identify bird species based on their calls. The census documented the nests of Finn’s Weaver, a species endemic to the Brahmaputra floodplains. The findings indicated that the grassland habitat in the park is pristine and faces no significant threats. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The census was a collaborative effort involving Forest Department officials, researchers (like INSPIRE fellow Chiranjib Bora), and conservationists. Statement 2 is correct. A key innovation of the census was the use of Passive Acoustic Monitoring. Recorders were placed to capture bird songs, which were then analyzed using spectrograms and AI-based software like BirdNET for species identification. Statement 3 is correct. A significant conservation outcome of the census was the discovery of over 85 nests of the endangered Finn’s Weaver, a bird species that is indeed endemic to the grasslands of the Brahmaputra floodplains. Statement 4 is incorrect. The census explicitly highlighted threats to the grassland habitat, including ecological succession (grasslands turning into woodlands), overgrazing, encroachment for cultivation, and the impacts of climate change. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The census was a collaborative effort involving Forest Department officials, researchers (like INSPIRE fellow Chiranjib Bora), and conservationists. Statement 2 is correct. A key innovation of the census was the use of Passive Acoustic Monitoring. Recorders were placed to capture bird songs, which were then analyzed using spectrograms and AI-based software like BirdNET for species identification. Statement 3 is correct. A significant conservation outcome of the census was the discovery of over 85 nests of the endangered Finn’s Weaver, a bird species that is indeed endemic to the grasslands of the Brahmaputra floodplains. Statement 4 is incorrect. The census explicitly highlighted threats to the grassland habitat, including ecological succession (grasslands turning into woodlands), overgrazing, encroachment for cultivation, and the impacts of climate change.

#### 2. Question

With reference to the first-ever Grassland Bird Census in Kaziranga National Park, consider the following statements:

• The census was conducted by the Forest Department of Assam without the involvement of external researchers.

• It employed Passive Acoustic Monitoring technology to identify bird species based on their calls.

• The census documented the nests of Finn’s Weaver, a species endemic to the Brahmaputra floodplains.

• The findings indicated that the grassland habitat in the park is pristine and faces no significant threats.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The census was a collaborative effort involving Forest Department officials, researchers (like INSPIRE fellow Chiranjib Bora), and conservationists.

• Statement 2 is correct. A key innovation of the census was the use of Passive Acoustic Monitoring. Recorders were placed to capture bird songs, which were then analyzed using spectrograms and AI-based software like BirdNET for species identification.

• Statement 3 is correct. A significant conservation outcome of the census was the discovery of over 85 nests of the endangered Finn’s Weaver, a bird species that is indeed endemic to the grasslands of the Brahmaputra floodplains.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The census explicitly highlighted threats to the grassland habitat, including ecological succession (grasslands turning into woodlands), overgrazing, encroachment for cultivation, and the impacts of climate change.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The census was a collaborative effort involving Forest Department officials, researchers (like INSPIRE fellow Chiranjib Bora), and conservationists.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India’s tiger conservation efforts as highlighted on International Tiger Day 2025: Project Tiger, launched in 1973, now governs 58 tiger reserves which constitute approximately 10% of India’s total geographical area. India achieved the global Tx2 target of doubling its wild tiger population exactly in the target year of 2022. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a non-statutory body formed by an executive resolution to oversee Project Tiger. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (a) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. While there are 58 tiger reserves, they cover approximately 2% of India’s land area, not 10%. Statement 2 is incorrect. India successfully doubled its tiger population from the 2006 baseline well ahead of the 2022 schedule. This early achievement is a significant milestone in India’s conservation history. Statement 3 is incorrect. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body, not a non-statutory one. It was established in December 2005 following a recommendation of the Tiger Task Force, and it was constituted under the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2006. This gives it legal authority for the management of Project Tiger. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. While there are 58 tiger reserves, they cover approximately 2% of India’s land area, not 10%. Statement 2 is incorrect. India successfully doubled its tiger population from the 2006 baseline well ahead of the 2022 schedule. This early achievement is a significant milestone in India’s conservation history. Statement 3 is incorrect. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body, not a non-statutory one. It was established in December 2005 following a recommendation of the Tiger Task Force, and it was constituted under the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2006. This gives it legal authority for the management of Project Tiger.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India’s tiger conservation efforts as highlighted on International Tiger Day 2025:

• Project Tiger, launched in 1973, now governs 58 tiger reserves which constitute approximately 10% of India’s total geographical area.

• India achieved the global Tx2 target of doubling its wild tiger population exactly in the target year of 2022.

• The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a non-statutory body formed by an executive resolution to oversee Project Tiger.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (a) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While there are 58 tiger reserves, they cover approximately 2% of India’s land area, not 10%.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. India successfully doubled its tiger population from the 2006 baseline well ahead of the 2022 schedule. This early achievement is a significant milestone in India’s conservation history.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body, not a non-statutory one. It was established in December 2005 following a recommendation of the Tiger Task Force, and it was constituted under the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2006. This gives it legal authority for the management of Project Tiger.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While there are 58 tiger reserves, they cover approximately 2% of India’s land area, not 10%.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Exercise Divya Drishti: It was a tri-service exercise involving the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force. The exercise was primarily focused on testing submarine-launched unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) capabilities. A key objective was to validate the integration of AI-enabled sensors for enhanced battlefield situational awareness in high-altitude terrain. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Exercise Divya Drishti was conducted by the Indian Army’s Trishakti Corps. It was an army-specific exercise and did not involve the Navy or the Air Force, making it not a tri-service exercise. Statement 2 is incorrect. The exercise was conducted in East Sikkim, a high-altitude, land-locked region. Therefore, it focused on ground-based platforms, drones, and UAVs in a terrestrial combat scenario, not submarine-launched systems, which are a naval asset. Statement 3 is correct. The core purpose of Exercise Divya Drishti was to test and validate next-generation warfare technologies, specifically the use of artificial intelligence (AI)-integrated surveillance and sensor-to-shooter systems. This was done to improve real-time decision-making and battlefield awareness under the extreme operational conditions found in high-altitude Himalayan terrain. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Exercise Divya Drishti was conducted by the Indian Army’s Trishakti Corps. It was an army-specific exercise and did not involve the Navy or the Air Force, making it not a tri-service exercise. Statement 2 is incorrect. The exercise was conducted in East Sikkim, a high-altitude, land-locked region. Therefore, it focused on ground-based platforms, drones, and UAVs in a terrestrial combat scenario, not submarine-launched systems, which are a naval asset. Statement 3 is correct. The core purpose of Exercise Divya Drishti was to test and validate next-generation warfare technologies, specifically the use of artificial intelligence (AI)-integrated surveillance and sensor-to-shooter systems. This was done to improve real-time decision-making and battlefield awareness under the extreme operational conditions found in high-altitude Himalayan terrain.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about Exercise Divya Drishti:

• It was a tri-service exercise involving the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force.

• The exercise was primarily focused on testing submarine-launched unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) capabilities.

• A key objective was to validate the integration of AI-enabled sensors for enhanced battlefield situational awareness in high-altitude terrain.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Exercise Divya Drishti was conducted by the Indian Army’s Trishakti Corps. It was an army-specific exercise and did not involve the Navy or the Air Force, making it not a tri-service exercise.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The exercise was conducted in East Sikkim, a high-altitude, land-locked region. Therefore, it focused on ground-based platforms, drones, and UAVs in a terrestrial combat scenario, not submarine-launched systems, which are a naval asset.

• Statement 3 is correct. The core purpose of Exercise Divya Drishti was to test and validate next-generation warfare technologies, specifically the use of artificial intelligence (AI)-integrated surveillance and sensor-to-shooter systems. This was done to improve real-time decision-making and battlefield awareness under the extreme operational conditions found in high-altitude Himalayan terrain.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Environment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025: Statement I: The Environment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025, aim to establish a robust legal framework for the remediation of polluted sites in India. Statement II: The rules operationalize the “Polluter Pays” principle by mandating the identification of the party responsible for contamination. Statement III: The rules absolve the government of financial responsibility for cleanup, placing the entire burden on the identified polluter. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Statement II and Statement III are both correct and explain Statement I. (b) Statement II is correct and it explains Statement I, but Statement III is incorrect. (c) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but do not explain Statement I. (d) Statement II is incorrect, but it would explain Statement I if it were correct. Correct Solution: B Statement I is the main premise, stating the overall objective of the Rules, which is correct. The rules provide India’s first comprehensive legal mechanism for managing contaminated sites. Statement II correctly identifies a key mechanism through which the Rules achieve their objective. By setting a timeline for SPCBs to identify the polluter, the rules directly enforce the “Polluter Pays” principle. This is a core component of the legal framework mentioned in Statement I, and thus, Statement II explains Statement I. Statement III is incorrect. While the primary responsibility lies with the polluter, the rules include a specific provision for situations where the polluter is untraceable, has ceased to exist, or is insolvent. In such cases, the financial responsibility for remediation is to be borne jointly by the Central and State governments. This demonstrates a pragmatic approach to ensure that cleanup happens even when the polluter cannot pay, contradicting the claim that the entire burden is always on the polluter. Incorrect Solution: B Statement I is the main premise, stating the overall objective of the Rules, which is correct. The rules provide India’s first comprehensive legal mechanism for managing contaminated sites. Statement II correctly identifies a key mechanism through which the Rules achieve their objective. By setting a timeline for SPCBs to identify the polluter, the rules directly enforce the “Polluter Pays” principle. This is a core component of the legal framework mentioned in Statement I, and thus, Statement II explains Statement I. Statement III is incorrect. While the primary responsibility lies with the polluter, the rules include a specific provision for situations where the polluter is untraceable, has ceased to exist, or is insolvent. In such cases, the financial responsibility for remediation is to be borne jointly by the Central and State governments. This demonstrates a pragmatic approach to ensure that cleanup happens even when the polluter cannot pay, contradicting the claim that the entire burden is always on the polluter.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Environment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025:

Statement I: The Environment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025, aim to establish a robust legal framework for the remediation of polluted sites in India.

Statement II: The rules operationalize the “Polluter Pays” principle by mandating the identification of the party responsible for contamination.

Statement III: The rules absolve the government of financial responsibility for cleanup, placing the entire burden on the identified polluter.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Statement II and Statement III are both correct and explain Statement I.

• (b) Statement II is correct and it explains Statement I, but Statement III is incorrect.

• (c) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but do not explain Statement I.

• (d) Statement II is incorrect, but it would explain Statement I if it were correct.

Solution: B

• Statement I is the main premise, stating the overall objective of the Rules, which is correct. The rules provide India’s first comprehensive legal mechanism for managing contaminated sites.

• Statement II correctly identifies a key mechanism through which the Rules achieve their objective. By setting a timeline for SPCBs to identify the polluter, the rules directly enforce the “Polluter Pays” principle. This is a core component of the legal framework mentioned in Statement I, and thus, Statement II explains Statement I.

Statement III is incorrect. While the primary responsibility lies with the polluter, the rules include a specific provision for situations where the polluter is untraceable, has ceased to exist, or is insolvent. In such cases, the financial responsibility for remediation is to be borne jointly by the Central and State governments. This demonstrates a pragmatic approach to ensure that cleanup happens even when the polluter cannot pay, contradicting the claim that the entire burden is always on the polluter.

Solution: B

• Statement I is the main premise, stating the overall objective of the Rules, which is correct. The rules provide India’s first comprehensive legal mechanism for managing contaminated sites.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Divya Deshmukh’s victory in the FIDE Women’s World Cup 2025 is significant for Indian chess primarily because: (a) The tournament was hosted in India as part of the Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav celebrations. (b) She defeated the reigning Women's World Chess Champion in the final match. (c) It marks the first time an Indian woman has won the title and secures her a position in the Women's Candidates Tournament. (d) Her victory automatically conferred upon her the title of India's first female Grandmaster. Correct Solution: C Divya Deshmukh became the first Indian woman to win the FIDE Women’s World Cup, a prestigious and difficult knockout tournament. This victory is not just symbolic; it has a direct competitive implication, as it earns her a coveted spot in the Women’s Candidates Tournament 2026, which determines the challenger for the World Championship title. Option (a) is incorrect as the event was held in Batumi, Georgia. Option (b) is incorrect as she defeated veteran Koneru Humpy, not the reigning world champion. Option (d) is incorrect as she became India’s 4th female Grandmaster, not the first, and the title is one of the achievements associated with her performance, not an automatic conferral solely from this win. Incorrect Solution: C Divya Deshmukh became the first Indian woman to win the FIDE Women’s World Cup, a prestigious and difficult knockout tournament. This victory is not just symbolic; it has a direct competitive implication, as it earns her a coveted spot in the Women’s Candidates Tournament 2026, which determines the challenger for the World Championship title. Option (a) is incorrect as the event was held in Batumi, Georgia. Option (b) is incorrect as she defeated veteran Koneru Humpy, not the reigning world champion. Option (d) is incorrect as she became India’s 4th female Grandmaster, not the first, and the title is one of the achievements associated with her performance, not an automatic conferral solely from this win.

#### 6. Question

Divya Deshmukh’s victory in the FIDE Women’s World Cup 2025 is significant for Indian chess primarily because:

• (a) The tournament was hosted in India as part of the Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav celebrations.

• (b) She defeated the reigning Women's World Chess Champion in the final match.

• (c) It marks the first time an Indian woman has won the title and secures her a position in the Women's Candidates Tournament.

• (d) Her victory automatically conferred upon her the title of India's first female Grandmaster.

Solution: C

Divya Deshmukh became the first Indian woman to win the FIDE Women’s World Cup, a prestigious and difficult knockout tournament. This victory is not just symbolic; it has a direct competitive implication, as it earns her a coveted spot in the Women’s Candidates Tournament 2026, which determines the challenger for the World Championship title.

Option (a) is incorrect as the event was held in Batumi, Georgia.

Option (b) is incorrect as she defeated veteran Koneru Humpy, not the reigning world champion.

Option (d) is incorrect as she became India’s 4th female Grandmaster, not the first, and the title is one of the achievements associated with her performance, not an automatic conferral solely from this win.

Solution: C

Option (a) is incorrect as the event was held in Batumi, Georgia.

Option (b) is incorrect as she defeated veteran Koneru Humpy, not the reigning world champion.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Regarding the ‘National Mission on Cultural Mapping’ (NMCM), consider the following statements: The mission is managed by the Ministry of Tourism to boost rural tourism. A key objective of the NMCM is to create national digital inventories of cultural assets and artists. The ‘Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar’ initiative operates as a component under the broader framework of the NMCM. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Mission on Cultural Mapping (NMCM) is a flagship mission of the Ministry of Culture, not the Ministry of Tourism. While it can contribute to tourism, its primary mandate is the preservation and promotion of culture and the empowerment of artists. Statement 2 is correct. A core feature of the NMCM is the creation of National Digital Inventories and a comprehensive national database of artists and art forms. This digital mapping is central to its goal of preserving India’s cultural ecosystem. Statement 3 is correct. The ‘Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar’ (MGMD) initiative is a part of the National Mission on Cultural Mapping. MGMD focuses specifically on the village-level documentation of intangible heritage, contributing directly to the larger, national-level goals of the NMCM. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Mission on Cultural Mapping (NMCM) is a flagship mission of the Ministry of Culture, not the Ministry of Tourism. While it can contribute to tourism, its primary mandate is the preservation and promotion of culture and the empowerment of artists. Statement 2 is correct. A core feature of the NMCM is the creation of National Digital Inventories and a comprehensive national database of artists and art forms. This digital mapping is central to its goal of preserving India’s cultural ecosystem. Statement 3 is correct. The ‘Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar’ (MGMD) initiative is a part of the National Mission on Cultural Mapping. MGMD focuses specifically on the village-level documentation of intangible heritage, contributing directly to the larger, national-level goals of the NMCM.

#### 7. Question

Regarding the ‘National Mission on Cultural Mapping’ (NMCM), consider the following statements:

• The mission is managed by the Ministry of Tourism to boost rural tourism.

• A key objective of the NMCM is to create national digital inventories of cultural assets and artists.

• The ‘Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar’ initiative operates as a component under the broader framework of the NMCM.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Mission on Cultural Mapping (NMCM) is a flagship mission of the Ministry of Culture, not the Ministry of Tourism. While it can contribute to tourism, its primary mandate is the preservation and promotion of culture and the empowerment of artists.

• Statement 2 is correct. A core feature of the NMCM is the creation of National Digital Inventories and a comprehensive national database of artists and art forms. This digital mapping is central to its goal of preserving India’s cultural ecosystem.

Statement 3 is correct. The ‘Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar’ (MGMD) initiative is a part of the National Mission on Cultural Mapping. MGMD focuses specifically on the village-level documentation of intangible heritage, contributing directly to the larger, national-level goals of the NMCM.

Solution: D

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Tiger conservation in India has significant positive externalities that extend beyond the protection of a single species. Statement-II: Tiger reserves in India, functioning as large forest ecosystems, act as critical carbon sinks and protect major water catchments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Tiger conservation is an example of an “umbrella species” strategy. Protecting tigers necessitates the conservation of their large habitats, which in turn protects a wide array of other flora and fauna. These broader benefits are known as positive externalities. Statement-II is correct. The large tracts of forest protected as tiger reserves play a crucial ecological role. They sequester significant amounts of carbon, thus acting as carbon sinks and contributing to climate change mitigation. Furthermore, these forests are the origins of many rivers and streams, functioning as vital water catchments that support regional agriculture and water security. Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Tiger conservation is an example of an “umbrella species” strategy. Protecting tigers necessitates the conservation of their large habitats, which in turn protects a wide array of other flora and fauna. These broader benefits are known as positive externalities. Statement-II is correct. The large tracts of forest protected as tiger reserves play a crucial ecological role. They sequester significant amounts of carbon, thus acting as carbon sinks and contributing to climate change mitigation. Furthermore, these forests are the origins of many rivers and streams, functioning as vital water catchments that support regional agriculture and water security. Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Tiger conservation in India has significant positive externalities that extend beyond the protection of a single species.

Statement-II: Tiger reserves in India, functioning as large forest ecosystems, act as critical carbon sinks and protect major water catchments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. Tiger conservation is an example of an “umbrella species” strategy. Protecting tigers necessitates the conservation of their large habitats, which in turn protects a wide array of other flora and fauna. These broader benefits are known as positive externalities.

• Statement-II is correct. The large tracts of forest protected as tiger reserves play a crucial ecological role. They sequester significant amounts of carbon, thus acting as carbon sinks and contributing to climate change mitigation. Furthermore, these forests are the origins of many rivers and streams, functioning as vital water catchments that support regional agriculture and water security.

• Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to the Environment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025, consider the following statements: The Rules operate under the framework of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Criminal liability under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, can be invoked if the contamination is proven to cause harm to human life. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The rules have been notified under the umbrella legislation of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, not the Water Act, 1974. The EPA, 1986 provides the central government with wide-ranging powers to protect and improve the environment. Statement 2 is correct. The rules have provisions for stringent action. In cases where contamination leads to proven harm to human life or the environment, criminal liability can be enforced under the relevant sections of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, which has replaced the Indian Penal Code. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The rules have been notified under the umbrella legislation of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, not the Water Act, 1974. The EPA, 1986 provides the central government with wide-ranging powers to protect and improve the environment. Statement 2 is correct. The rules have provisions for stringent action. In cases where contamination leads to proven harm to human life or the environment, criminal liability can be enforced under the relevant sections of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, which has replaced the Indian Penal Code.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the Environment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025, consider the following statements:

• The Rules operate under the framework of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.

• Criminal liability under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, can be invoked if the contamination is proven to cause harm to human life.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The rules have been notified under the umbrella legislation of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, not the Water Act, 1974. The EPA, 1986 provides the central government with wide-ranging powers to protect and improve the environment.

• Statement 2 is correct. The rules have provisions for stringent action. In cases where contamination leads to proven harm to human life or the environment, criminal liability can be enforced under the relevant sections of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, which has replaced the Indian Penal Code.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Human Rated Launch Vehicle (HLVM3) Statement-I: The development of the Human Rated Launch Vehicle (HLVM3) is a critical prerequisite for the Gaganyaan mission. Statement-II: The HLVM3 is specifically designed with enhanced redundancy, fault-tolerance, and a Crew Escape System to ensure astronaut safety, which is paramount in human spaceflight. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The Gaganyaan mission aims to send Indian astronauts into space. A launch vehicle certified for human safety, or “human-rated,” is an indispensable component for such a mission. Without a reliable and safe transportation system like the HLVM3, the mission cannot proceed. Statement-II is also correct. Standard launch vehicles are built for satellite deployment and do not have the stringent safety requirements needed for carrying humans. The HLVM3 incorporates human-rated modifications, such as system redundancy (backup systems), fault-tolerant avionics, and a Crew Escape System (CES). These features are specifically added to mitigate risks and ensure the crew can survive potential launch failures. Statement-II directly explains why the HLVM3 is a critical prerequisite for Gaganyaan as stated in Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The Gaganyaan mission aims to send Indian astronauts into space. A launch vehicle certified for human safety, or “human-rated,” is an indispensable component for such a mission. Without a reliable and safe transportation system like the HLVM3, the mission cannot proceed. Statement-II is also correct. Standard launch vehicles are built for satellite deployment and do not have the stringent safety requirements needed for carrying humans. The HLVM3 incorporates human-rated modifications, such as system redundancy (backup systems), fault-tolerant avionics, and a Crew Escape System (CES). These features are specifically added to mitigate risks and ensure the crew can survive potential launch failures. Statement-II directly explains why the HLVM3 is a critical prerequisite for Gaganyaan as stated in Statement-I.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Human Rated Launch Vehicle (HLVM3)

Statement-I: The development of the Human Rated Launch Vehicle (HLVM3) is a critical prerequisite for the Gaganyaan mission.

Statement-II: The HLVM3 is specifically designed with enhanced redundancy, fault-tolerance, and a Crew Escape System to ensure astronaut safety, which is paramount in human spaceflight.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. The Gaganyaan mission aims to send Indian astronauts into space. A launch vehicle certified for human safety, or “human-rated,” is an indispensable component for such a mission. Without a reliable and safe transportation system like the HLVM3, the mission cannot proceed.

• Statement-II is also correct. Standard launch vehicles are built for satellite deployment and do not have the stringent safety requirements needed for carrying humans. The HLVM3 incorporates human-rated modifications, such as system redundancy (backup systems), fault-tolerant avionics, and a Crew Escape System (CES). These features are specifically added to mitigate risks and ensure the crew can survive potential launch failures.

• Statement-II directly explains why the HLVM3 is a critical prerequisite for Gaganyaan as stated in Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Statement-II directly explains why the HLVM3 is a critical prerequisite for Gaganyaan as stated in Statement-I.

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates for

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE