UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 30 January 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Solid Waste Management (SWM) Rules, 2026, consider the following statements: The 2026 Rules introduce a technology-driven “Polluter Pays” framework, superseding the 2016 regulations. Under the new rules, waste generators are required to segregate waste into three distinct categories: Wet, Dry, and Hazardous waste. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is empowered to levy environmental compensation for operating without registration. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Solid Waste Management (SWM) Rules, 2026, notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, represent a significant shift toward a circular economy. Statement 1 is correct as these rules introduce a Polluter Pays framework and supersede the 2016 rules. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2026 rules mandate a four-stream segregation at source: Wet Waste (kitchen waste), Dry Waste (plastic, metal, etc.), Sanitary Waste (diapers, tampons), and Special Care Waste (paint cans, expired medicines). Statement 3 is correct; the CPCB now has the authority to levy environmental compensation for violations such as operating without registration, false reporting, or improper disposal. This move ensures higher accountability. The rules also emphasize on-site processing for Bulk Waste Generators and the use of a Centralised Online Portal for digital tracking, replacing traditional paperwork to enhance transparency in waste management infrastructure. Incorrect Solution: B The Solid Waste Management (SWM) Rules, 2026, notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, represent a significant shift toward a circular economy. Statement 1 is correct as these rules introduce a Polluter Pays framework and supersede the 2016 rules. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2026 rules mandate a four-stream segregation at source: Wet Waste (kitchen waste), Dry Waste (plastic, metal, etc.), Sanitary Waste (diapers, tampons), and Special Care Waste (paint cans, expired medicines). Statement 3 is correct; the CPCB now has the authority to levy environmental compensation for violations such as operating without registration, false reporting, or improper disposal. This move ensures higher accountability. The rules also emphasize on-site processing for Bulk Waste Generators and the use of a Centralised Online Portal for digital tracking, replacing traditional paperwork to enhance transparency in waste management infrastructure.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Solid Waste Management (SWM) Rules, 2026, consider the following statements:

• The 2026 Rules introduce a technology-driven “Polluter Pays” framework, superseding the 2016 regulations.

• Under the new rules, waste generators are required to segregate waste into three distinct categories: Wet, Dry, and Hazardous waste.

• The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is empowered to levy environmental compensation for operating without registration.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Solid Waste Management (SWM) Rules, 2026, notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, represent a significant shift toward a circular economy.

• Statement 1 is correct as these rules introduce a Polluter Pays framework and supersede the 2016 rules.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2026 rules mandate a four-stream segregation at source: Wet Waste (kitchen waste), Dry Waste (plastic, metal, etc.), Sanitary Waste (diapers, tampons), and Special Care Waste (paint cans, expired medicines).

• Statement 3 is correct; the CPCB now has the authority to levy environmental compensation for violations such as operating without registration, false reporting, or improper disposal. This move ensures higher accountability. The rules also emphasize on-site processing for Bulk Waste Generators and the use of a Centralised Online Portal for digital tracking, replacing traditional paperwork to enhance transparency in waste management infrastructure.

Solution: B

• The Solid Waste Management (SWM) Rules, 2026, notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, represent a significant shift toward a circular economy.

• Statement 1 is correct as these rules introduce a Polluter Pays framework and supersede the 2016 rules.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points The ‘PANCHAM’ Digital Chatbot, recently in the news, is an initiative of which Ministry? (a) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (b) Ministry of Rural Development (c) Ministry of Panchayati Raj (d) Ministry of Communications Correct Solution: C The PANCHAM (Panchayat Assistance and Messaging Chatbot) was launched by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR). It is a flagship AI initiative designed to establish a direct two-way digital bridge between the Central Government and over 30 lakh elected representatives at the village level. Launched on the eve of the 77th Republic Day, the tool aims to eliminate middlemen by providing Sarpanches and ward members with direct access to government data and scheme information. It is developed in collaboration with UNICEF as a knowledge partner. By leveraging a familiar interface like WhatsApp, PANCHAM lowers the barrier to entry for digital governance in rural India, ensuring that information about grants, funds, and welfare schemes like SVAMITVA and RGSA reaches the grassroots without distortion. Incorrect Solution: C The PANCHAM (Panchayat Assistance and Messaging Chatbot) was launched by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR). It is a flagship AI initiative designed to establish a direct two-way digital bridge between the Central Government and over 30 lakh elected representatives at the village level. Launched on the eve of the 77th Republic Day, the tool aims to eliminate middlemen by providing Sarpanches and ward members with direct access to government data and scheme information. It is developed in collaboration with UNICEF as a knowledge partner. By leveraging a familiar interface like WhatsApp, PANCHAM lowers the barrier to entry for digital governance in rural India, ensuring that information about grants, funds, and welfare schemes like SVAMITVA and RGSA reaches the grassroots without distortion.

#### 2. Question

The ‘PANCHAM’ Digital Chatbot, recently in the news, is an initiative of which Ministry?

• (a) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

• (b) Ministry of Rural Development

• (c) Ministry of Panchayati Raj

• (d) Ministry of Communications

Solution: C

• The PANCHAM (Panchayat Assistance and Messaging Chatbot) was launched by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR). It is a flagship AI initiative designed to establish a direct two-way digital bridge between the Central Government and over 30 lakh elected representatives at the village level. Launched on the eve of the 77th Republic Day, the tool aims to eliminate middlemen by providing Sarpanches and ward members with direct access to government data and scheme information.

• It is developed in collaboration with UNICEF as a knowledge partner. By leveraging a familiar interface like WhatsApp, PANCHAM lowers the barrier to entry for digital governance in rural India, ensuring that information about grants, funds, and welfare schemes like SVAMITVA and RGSA reaches the grassroots without distortion.

Solution: C

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Regarding the ‘New Aadhaar App’ launched in 2026, which of the following statements is/are correct? It is designed by UIDAI with a “Privacy-First” approach, aligned with the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act. It allows users to update their registered mobile number and address from home using Face Authentication. The app enables users to share selective data, such as masking the 12-digit Aadhaar number while sharing only the photo and age. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D The New Aadhaar App, launched in January 2026, is a next-generation platform by UIDAI. All three statements are correct. Statement 1 reflects its alignment with the DPDP Act, focusing on consent-based control and data minimization. Statement 2 highlights a major “Ease of Living” feature: for the first time, residents can update their mobile numbers and addresses via Face Authentication for a nominal fee (₹75), reducing the need for physical visits to Seva Kendras. Statement 3 describes the Selective Data Sharing feature, which allows users to share only specific fields (like Name/Age) and mask their Aadhaar number, preventing the misuse of the full 12-digit ID at places like hotels or airports. This marks a shift from providing a physical/digital card to providing “digitally signed credentials.” Incorrect Solution: D The New Aadhaar App, launched in January 2026, is a next-generation platform by UIDAI. All three statements are correct. Statement 1 reflects its alignment with the DPDP Act, focusing on consent-based control and data minimization. Statement 2 highlights a major “Ease of Living” feature: for the first time, residents can update their mobile numbers and addresses via Face Authentication for a nominal fee (₹75), reducing the need for physical visits to Seva Kendras. Statement 3 describes the Selective Data Sharing feature, which allows users to share only specific fields (like Name/Age) and mask their Aadhaar number, preventing the misuse of the full 12-digit ID at places like hotels or airports. This marks a shift from providing a physical/digital card to providing “digitally signed credentials.”

#### 3. Question

Regarding the ‘New Aadhaar App’ launched in 2026, which of the following statements is/are correct?

• It is designed by UIDAI with a “Privacy-First” approach, aligned with the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act.

• It allows users to update their registered mobile number and address from home using Face Authentication.

• The app enables users to share selective data, such as masking the 12-digit Aadhaar number while sharing only the photo and age.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• The New Aadhaar App, launched in January 2026, is a next-generation platform by UIDAI. All three statements are correct.

• Statement 1 reflects its alignment with the DPDP Act, focusing on consent-based control and data minimization.

• Statement 2 highlights a major “Ease of Living” feature: for the first time, residents can update their mobile numbers and addresses via Face Authentication for a nominal fee (₹75), reducing the need for physical visits to Seva Kendras.

• Statement 3 describes the Selective Data Sharing feature, which allows users to share only specific fields (like Name/Age) and mask their Aadhaar number, preventing the misuse of the full 12-digit ID at places like hotels or airports. This marks a shift from providing a physical/digital card to providing “digitally signed credentials.”

Solution: D

• The New Aadhaar App, launched in January 2026, is a next-generation platform by UIDAI. All three statements are correct.

• Statement 1 reflects its alignment with the DPDP Act, focusing on consent-based control and data minimization.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points The Sunabeda Wildlife Sanctuary, which was recently declared ‘Maoist-free’, is located in which state? (a) Chhattisgarh (b) Odisha (c) Jharkhand (d) Madhya Pradesh Correct Solution: B The Sunabeda Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Nuapada district of Odisha. It has been in the news because it was officially declared ‘Maoist-free’ in January 2026. This security breakthrough has allowed wildlife officials to conduct extensive monitoring for the first time in years. Recent camera trap data has revealed a flourishing population of leopards (estimated over 70), leading experts to describe it as a potential “Leopard Haven.” The sanctuary is a critical biodiversity hotspot in the western reaches of Odisha and is a proposed Tiger Reserve. Its transition from a conflict zone to a conservation-focused area is a major milestone for Odisha’s forest department and environmental protection efforts in Central India. Incorrect Solution: B The Sunabeda Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Nuapada district of Odisha. It has been in the news because it was officially declared ‘Maoist-free’ in January 2026. This security breakthrough has allowed wildlife officials to conduct extensive monitoring for the first time in years. Recent camera trap data has revealed a flourishing population of leopards (estimated over 70), leading experts to describe it as a potential “Leopard Haven.” The sanctuary is a critical biodiversity hotspot in the western reaches of Odisha and is a proposed Tiger Reserve. Its transition from a conflict zone to a conservation-focused area is a major milestone for Odisha’s forest department and environmental protection efforts in Central India.

#### 4. Question

The Sunabeda Wildlife Sanctuary, which was recently declared ‘Maoist-free’, is located in which state?

• (a) Chhattisgarh

• (b) Odisha

• (c) Jharkhand

• (d) Madhya Pradesh

Solution: B

• The Sunabeda Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Nuapada district of Odisha. It has been in the news because it was officially declared ‘Maoist-free’ in January 2026. This security breakthrough has allowed wildlife officials to conduct extensive monitoring for the first time in years. Recent camera trap data has revealed a flourishing population of leopards (estimated over 70), leading experts to describe it as a potential “Leopard Haven.”

The sanctuary is a critical biodiversity hotspot in the western reaches of Odisha and is a proposed Tiger Reserve. Its transition from a conflict zone to a conservation-focused area is a major milestone for Odisha’s forest department and environmental protection efforts in Central India.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Governor’s power to address the House: The Governor can unilaterally delete paragraphs from the speech if they contain criticisms of the central government. The Address to the Legislature is essentially a statement of policy and the legislative program of the State Government. The Rules of the House provide time for discussion on the matters referred to in the Governor’s Address. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Governor is constitutionally required to read the Address as prepared by the Council of Ministers. He cannot alter, omit, or rewrite the content, even if it critiques the Center or his own office. The Address reflects the elected government’s priorities, not the Governor’s personal views. Statement 2 is correct. The purpose of the Address under Article 176 is to outline the policies, achievements, and future legislative agenda of the state executive, reinforcing democratic accountability. Statement 3 is correct. According to Article 176(2), provisions must be made in the rules of the House for the allotment of time for discussion of the matters referred to in the Address. This allows for legislative scrutiny of the government’s plans. The role of the Governor is primarily a symbolic constitutional formality. Court judgments like Nabam Rebia have clarified that the Governor must act on aid and advice and cannot use his powers to act as a parallel power center. This helps maintain the federal balance and ensures that the authority of elected State governments over policy articulation is protected from gubernatorial interference. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Governor is constitutionally required to read the Address as prepared by the Council of Ministers. He cannot alter, omit, or rewrite the content, even if it critiques the Center or his own office. The Address reflects the elected government’s priorities, not the Governor’s personal views. Statement 2 is correct. The purpose of the Address under Article 176 is to outline the policies, achievements, and future legislative agenda of the state executive, reinforcing democratic accountability. Statement 3 is correct. According to Article 176(2), provisions must be made in the rules of the House for the allotment of time for discussion of the matters referred to in the Address. This allows for legislative scrutiny of the government’s plans. The role of the Governor is primarily a symbolic constitutional formality. Court judgments like Nabam Rebia have clarified that the Governor must act on aid and advice and cannot use his powers to act as a parallel power center. This helps maintain the federal balance and ensures that the authority of elected State governments over policy articulation is protected from gubernatorial interference.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Governor’s power to address the House:

• The Governor can unilaterally delete paragraphs from the speech if they contain criticisms of the central government.

• The Address to the Legislature is essentially a statement of policy and the legislative program of the State Government.

• The Rules of the House provide time for discussion on the matters referred to in the Governor’s Address.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Governor is constitutionally required to read the Address as prepared by the Council of Ministers. He cannot alter, omit, or rewrite the content, even if it critiques the Center or his own office. The Address reflects the elected government’s priorities, not the Governor’s personal views.

• Statement 2 is correct. The purpose of the Address under Article 176 is to outline the policies, achievements, and future legislative agenda of the state executive, reinforcing democratic accountability.

• Statement 3 is correct. According to Article 176(2), provisions must be made in the rules of the House for the allotment of time for discussion of the matters referred to in the Address. This allows for legislative scrutiny of the government’s plans. The role of the Governor is primarily a symbolic constitutional formality.

• Court judgments like Nabam Rebia have clarified that the Governor must act on aid and advice and cannot use his powers to act as a parallel power center. This helps maintain the federal balance and ensures that the authority of elected State governments over policy articulation is protected from gubernatorial interference.

Solution: B

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following are the core objectives of the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development? Promotion of international peace and nuclear disarmament. Expanding human freedom, dignity, and social justice. Enhancing South-South cooperation for equitable global development. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D The Indira Gandhi Prize is rooted in the humanitarian and diplomatic values championed by former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. Statement 1 is correct; the prize was specifically named for peace and disarmament, reflecting her role in the global arena. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The award recognizes contributions toward human freedom, dignity, and social justice, which aligns with the work of its 2026 recipient, Graça Machel. Furthermore, it emphasizes equitable global development with a strong focus on South–South cooperation. This focus stems from India’s historical leadership in the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM), where it advocated for the rights and development of post-colonial nations. The prize serves as a reminder of the “global vision” required to bridge the gap between the North and the South, using India’s soft power to promote a more just international relations framework. Incorrect Solution: D The Indira Gandhi Prize is rooted in the humanitarian and diplomatic values championed by former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. Statement 1 is correct; the prize was specifically named for peace and disarmament, reflecting her role in the global arena. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The award recognizes contributions toward human freedom, dignity, and social justice, which aligns with the work of its 2026 recipient, Graça Machel. Furthermore, it emphasizes equitable global development with a strong focus on South–South cooperation. This focus stems from India’s historical leadership in the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM), where it advocated for the rights and development of post-colonial nations. The prize serves as a reminder of the “global vision” required to bridge the gap between the North and the South, using India’s soft power to promote a more just international relations framework.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following are the core objectives of the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development?

• Promotion of international peace and nuclear disarmament.

• Expanding human freedom, dignity, and social justice.

• Enhancing South-South cooperation for equitable global development.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• The Indira Gandhi Prize is rooted in the humanitarian and diplomatic values championed by former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.

• Statement 1 is correct; the prize was specifically named for peace and disarmament, reflecting her role in the global arena.

• Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The award recognizes contributions toward human freedom, dignity, and social justice, which aligns with the work of its 2026 recipient, Graça Machel. Furthermore, it emphasizes equitable global development with a strong focus on South–South cooperation. This focus stems from India’s historical leadership in the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM), where it advocated for the rights and development of post-colonial nations. The prize serves as a reminder of the “global vision” required to bridge the gap between the North and the South, using India’s soft power to promote a more just international relations framework.

Solution: D

• The Indira Gandhi Prize is rooted in the humanitarian and diplomatic values championed by former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.

• Statement 1 is correct; the prize was specifically named for peace and disarmament, reflecting her role in the global arena.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Global Future Councils (GFCs): The members of the GFCs are elected by the United Nations General Assembly to represent regional interests. The outputs of these councils are primarily designed to translate expert knowledge into actionable policy-relevant insights. The councils operate on the principle of “systems thinking” to bridge silos between different sectors. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The GFCs are part of the World Economic Forum (WEF), which is a private international organization for public-private cooperation. The members are not elected by the UN; they are invited by the WEF. It is an invitation-only network of experts from various fields, not a representative body of the UN General Assembly. Statement 2 is correct. One of the primary aims of the GFCs is to translate expert knowledge into actionable policy-relevant insights. This ensures that the high-level discussions held within these “think tanks” have a practical application for governments, businesses, and international institutions, particularly in building sustainable development models. Statement 3 is correct. The councils operate on the core principle of “systems thinking.” This approach recognizes that modern global challenges—like the intersection of AI, climate change, and global health—cannot be solved in isolation. By bringing together diverse expertise (interdisciplinary approach), the councils aim to bridge silos, allowing for more holistic and effective solutions to cross-cutting issues. This structured knowledge architecture has been a cornerstone of the WEF’s influence on the global agenda since its formal establishment in this format in 2013. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The GFCs are part of the World Economic Forum (WEF), which is a private international organization for public-private cooperation. The members are not elected by the UN; they are invited by the WEF. It is an invitation-only network of experts from various fields, not a representative body of the UN General Assembly. Statement 2 is correct. One of the primary aims of the GFCs is to translate expert knowledge into actionable policy-relevant insights. This ensures that the high-level discussions held within these “think tanks” have a practical application for governments, businesses, and international institutions, particularly in building sustainable development models. Statement 3 is correct. The councils operate on the core principle of “systems thinking.” This approach recognizes that modern global challenges—like the intersection of AI, climate change, and global health—cannot be solved in isolation. By bringing together diverse expertise (interdisciplinary approach), the councils aim to bridge silos, allowing for more holistic and effective solutions to cross-cutting issues. This structured knowledge architecture has been a cornerstone of the WEF’s influence on the global agenda since its formal establishment in this format in 2013.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Global Future Councils (GFCs):

• The members of the GFCs are elected by the United Nations General Assembly to represent regional interests.

• The outputs of these councils are primarily designed to translate expert knowledge into actionable policy-relevant insights.

• The councils operate on the principle of “systems thinking” to bridge silos between different sectors.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The GFCs are part of the World Economic Forum (WEF), which is a private international organization for public-private cooperation. The members are not elected by the UN; they are invited by the WEF. It is an invitation-only network of experts from various fields, not a representative body of the UN General Assembly.

• Statement 2 is correct. One of the primary aims of the GFCs is to translate expert knowledge into actionable policy-relevant insights. This ensures that the high-level discussions held within these “think tanks” have a practical application for governments, businesses, and international institutions, particularly in building sustainable development models.

Statement 3 is correct. The councils operate on the core principle of “systems thinking.” This approach recognizes that modern global challenges—like the intersection of AI, climate change, and global health—cannot be solved in isolation. By bringing together diverse expertise (interdisciplinary approach), the councils aim to bridge silos, allowing for more holistic and effective solutions to cross-cutting issues. This structured knowledge architecture has been a cornerstone of the WEF’s influence on the global agenda since its formal establishment in this format in 2013.

Solution: B

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Solid Waste Management (SWM) Rules, 2026: Statement-I: The SWM Rules, 2026, aim to ensure zero-waste to landfills by integrating Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR). Statement-II: Higher landfill fees for unsegregated waste make it more economical for local bodies to process waste rather than dump it. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: B Both statements are independent facts regarding the SWM Rules, 2026. Statement-I is correct as it defines the overarching goal of the rules: achieving zero-waste to landfills through Circular Economy and EPR Statement-II is also correct; the rules introduce an economic deterrent by increasing landfill fees for unsegregated waste, which incentivizes local bodies to invest in processing infrastructure. However, Statement-II is not the explanation for Statement-I; rather, it is one of the many mechanisms (along with EPR, digital tracking, and four-stream segregation) used to achieve the goal mentioned in Statement-I. The core philosophy is to shift from a “collection and disposal” model to a “segregation and value-recovery” model, ensuring that only inert waste reaches landfills. Incorrect Solution: B Both statements are independent facts regarding the SWM Rules, 2026. Statement-I is correct as it defines the overarching goal of the rules: achieving zero-waste to landfills through Circular Economy and EPR Statement-II is also correct; the rules introduce an economic deterrent by increasing landfill fees for unsegregated waste, which incentivizes local bodies to invest in processing infrastructure. However, Statement-II is not the explanation for Statement-I; rather, it is one of the many mechanisms (along with EPR, digital tracking, and four-stream segregation) used to achieve the goal mentioned in Statement-I. The core philosophy is to shift from a “collection and disposal” model to a “segregation and value-recovery” model, ensuring that only inert waste reaches landfills.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Solid Waste Management (SWM) Rules, 2026:

Statement-I: The SWM Rules, 2026, aim to ensure zero-waste to landfills by integrating Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR).

Statement-II: Higher landfill fees for unsegregated waste make it more economical for local bodies to process waste rather than dump it.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Solution: B

• Both statements are independent facts regarding the SWM Rules, 2026.

• Statement-I is correct as it defines the overarching goal of the rules: achieving zero-waste to landfills through Circular Economy and EPR

• Statement-II is also correct; the rules introduce an economic deterrent by increasing landfill fees for unsegregated waste, which incentivizes local bodies to invest in processing infrastructure.

However, Statement-II is not the explanation for Statement-I; rather, it is one of the many mechanisms (along with EPR, digital tracking, and four-stream segregation) used to achieve the goal mentioned in Statement-I. The core philosophy is to shift from a “collection and disposal” model to a “segregation and value-recovery” model, ensuring that only inert waste reaches landfills.

Solution: B

• Both statements are independent facts regarding the SWM Rules, 2026.

• Statement-I is correct as it defines the overarching goal of the rules: achieving zero-waste to landfills through Circular Economy and EPR

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Bitra Island: It is the largest inhabited island of the Lakshadweep archipelago. The island is strategically significant due to its proximity to the Strait of Hormuz and the Malacca route. Which of the above statements are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Bitra Island is the smallest inhabited island in Lakshadweep, not the largest. It has a land area of only 0.105 sq. km. Statement 2 is correct. The geostrategic location of Bitra Island is its primary value from a defence perspective. It lies along key international shipping lanes in the Arabian Sea, offering a vantage point for maritime surveillance over routes connecting the Strait of Hormuz and the Malacca Strait. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Bitra Island is the smallest inhabited island in Lakshadweep, not the largest. It has a land area of only 0.105 sq. km. Statement 2 is correct. The geostrategic location of Bitra Island is its primary value from a defence perspective. It lies along key international shipping lanes in the Arabian Sea, offering a vantage point for maritime surveillance over routes connecting the Strait of Hormuz and the Malacca Strait.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about Bitra Island:

• It is the largest inhabited island of the Lakshadweep archipelago.

• The island is strategically significant due to its proximity to the Strait of Hormuz and the Malacca route.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Bitra Island is the smallest inhabited island in Lakshadweep, not the largest. It has a land area of only 0.105 sq. km.

Statement 2 is correct. The geostrategic location of Bitra Island is its primary value from a defence perspective. It lies along key international shipping lanes in the Arabian Sea, offering a vantage point for maritime surveillance over routes connecting the Strait of Hormuz and the Malacca Strait.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Bitra Island is the smallest inhabited island in Lakshadweep, not the largest. It has a land area of only 0.105 sq. km.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points The river Asi, which contributes to the name ‘Uttarkashi’, is a tributary of which major river? (a) Jadh Ganga (b) Tons (c) Bhagirathi (d) Yamuna Correct Solution: C The name “Uttarkashi” (Kashi of the North) is culturally significant and is derived from its location between two rivers, similar to Varanasi (Kashi), which is located between the Varuna and Asi rivers. In Uttarkashi, the town lies between the rivers Varuna (also known as Syalam Gad) and Asi (also known as Kaligad). The Asi Ganga is a hill stream that joins the Bhagirathi river in Uttarkashi. The Bhagirathi is the main source stream of the Ganga river, originating from the Gangotri glacier. Therefore, the Asi is a tributary of the Bhagirathi. The Tons is a tributary of the Yamuna, and the Jadh Ganga is another tributary of the Bhagirathi, but the Asi specifically joins the Bhagirathi. Incorrect Solution: C The name “Uttarkashi” (Kashi of the North) is culturally significant and is derived from its location between two rivers, similar to Varanasi (Kashi), which is located between the Varuna and Asi rivers. In Uttarkashi, the town lies between the rivers Varuna (also known as Syalam Gad) and Asi (also known as Kaligad). The Asi Ganga is a hill stream that joins the Bhagirathi river in Uttarkashi. The Bhagirathi is the main source stream of the Ganga river, originating from the Gangotri glacier. Therefore, the Asi is a tributary of the Bhagirathi. The Tons is a tributary of the Yamuna, and the Jadh Ganga is another tributary of the Bhagirathi, but the Asi specifically joins the Bhagirathi.

#### 10. Question

The river Asi, which contributes to the name ‘Uttarkashi’, is a tributary of which major river?

• (a) Jadh Ganga

• (c) Bhagirathi

• (d) Yamuna

Solution: C

• The name “Uttarkashi” (Kashi of the North) is culturally significant and is derived from its location between two rivers, similar to Varanasi (Kashi), which is located between the Varuna and Asi rivers.

• In Uttarkashi, the town lies between the rivers Varuna (also known as Syalam Gad) and Asi (also known as Kaligad).

• The Asi Ganga is a hill stream that joins the Bhagirathi river in Uttarkashi. The Bhagirathi is the main source stream of the Ganga river, originating from the Gangotri glacier.

• Therefore, the Asi is a tributary of the Bhagirathi. The Tons is a tributary of the Yamuna, and the Jadh Ganga is another tributary of the Bhagirathi, but the Asi specifically joins the Bhagirathi.

Solution: C

• In Uttarkashi, the town lies between the rivers Varuna (also known as Syalam Gad) and Asi (also known as Kaligad).

• The Asi Ganga is a hill stream that joins the Bhagirathi river in Uttarkashi. The Bhagirathi is the main source stream of the Ganga river, originating from the Gangotri glacier.

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