UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 3 September 2024

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following criteria is not required for a CPSE to achieve Maharatna status? a) Average annual turnover exceeding ₹25,000 crore in the last 3 years b) Listed on the Indian stock exchange with prescribed public shareholding c) Must have a Composite score of 60 or above in specific performance indicators d) Significant global presence or international operations Correct Solution: c) The criterion of having a Composite score of 60 or above in specific performance indicators is required for Navratna status, not Maharatna status. For Maharatna status, the criteria include an average annual turnover exceeding ₹25,000 crore, being listed on the Indian stock exchange with prescribed public shareholding, and having a significant global presence or international operations, among other financial requirements. Incorrect Solution: c) The criterion of having a Composite score of 60 or above in specific performance indicators is required for Navratna status, not Maharatna status. For Maharatna status, the criteria include an average annual turnover exceeding ₹25,000 crore, being listed on the Indian stock exchange with prescribed public shareholding, and having a significant global presence or international operations, among other financial requirements.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following criteria is not required for a CPSE to achieve Maharatna status?

• a) Average annual turnover exceeding ₹25,000 crore in the last 3 years

• b) Listed on the Indian stock exchange with prescribed public shareholding

• c) Must have a Composite score of 60 or above in specific performance indicators

• d) Significant global presence or international operations

Solution: c)

The criterion of having a Composite score of 60 or above in specific performance indicators is required for Navratna status, not Maharatna status. For Maharatna status, the criteria include an average annual turnover exceeding ₹25,000 crore, being listed on the Indian stock exchange with prescribed public shareholding, and having a significant global presence or international operations, among other financial requirements.

Solution: c)

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Aravalli’ helicopter engine project: The ‘Aravalli’ engine is being developed exclusively for the Indian Multi-Role Helicopter (IMRH). The partnership between HAL and SAFHAL Helicopter Engines Pvt. Ltd. is part of India’s strategy to enhance indigenous aerospace capabilities. The ‘Aravalli’ engine project involves collaboration with Russian aerospace companies for technology transfer. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 2 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect; the ‘Aravalli’ engine is being developed for both the Indian Multi-Role Helicopter (IMRH) and the Deck-Based Multi-Role Helicopter (DBMRH), not exclusively for the IMRH. Statement 2 is correct; the partnership is indeed part of India’s strategy to boost self-reliance in aerospace and defence technology, a key objective in reducing dependency on foreign suppliers. Statement 3 is incorrect; the collaboration is with SAFHAL Helicopter Engines Pvt. Ltd., which is a partnership focused on indigenous development, and there is no mention of Russian companies being involved in this project. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect; the ‘Aravalli’ engine is being developed for both the Indian Multi-Role Helicopter (IMRH) and the Deck-Based Multi-Role Helicopter (DBMRH), not exclusively for the IMRH. Statement 2 is correct; the partnership is indeed part of India’s strategy to boost self-reliance in aerospace and defence technology, a key objective in reducing dependency on foreign suppliers. Statement 3 is incorrect; the collaboration is with SAFHAL Helicopter Engines Pvt. Ltd., which is a partnership focused on indigenous development, and there is no mention of Russian companies being involved in this project.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Aravalli’ helicopter engine project:

• The ‘Aravalli’ engine is being developed exclusively for the Indian Multi-Role Helicopter (IMRH).

• The partnership between HAL and SAFHAL Helicopter Engines Pvt. Ltd. is part of India’s strategy to enhance indigenous aerospace capabilities.

• The ‘Aravalli’ engine project involves collaboration with Russian aerospace companies for technology transfer.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• b) 1 and 2 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect; the ‘Aravalli’ engine is being developed for both the Indian Multi-Role Helicopter (IMRH) and the Deck-Based Multi-Role Helicopter (DBMRH), not exclusively for the IMRH.

Statement 2 is correct; the partnership is indeed part of India’s strategy to boost self-reliance in aerospace and defence technology, a key objective in reducing dependency on foreign suppliers.

Statement 3 is incorrect; the collaboration is with SAFHAL Helicopter Engines Pvt. Ltd., which is a partnership focused on indigenous development, and there is no mention of Russian companies being involved in this project.

Solution: a)

Statement 2 is correct; the partnership is indeed part of India’s strategy to boost self-reliance in aerospace and defence technology, a key objective in reducing dependency on foreign suppliers.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Project NAMAN: Project NAMAN is an initiative by the Indian Army to streamline pension processes for Defence Pensioners and Veterans. The project relies on the SPARSH digital pension system, which is managed entirely by the Indian government without any private sector involvement. Common Service Centres (CSCs) under Project NAMAN are managed by veterans or their families, ensuring community involvement in service delivery. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct; Project NAMAN is indeed an initiative by the Indian Army aimed at streamlining pension processes for Defence Pensioners and Veterans. Statement 3 is also correct; the Common Service Centres (CSCs) under Project NAMAN are managed by veterans or their families, ensuring that those who understand the unique needs of veterans are directly involved in service delivery. Statement 2 is incorrect; while the project relies on the SPARSH digital pension system, there is private sector involvement, particularly through HDFC Bank, which supports the project by offering SPARSH-enabled pension services and banking solutions. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct; Project NAMAN is indeed an initiative by the Indian Army aimed at streamlining pension processes for Defence Pensioners and Veterans. Statement 3 is also correct; the Common Service Centres (CSCs) under Project NAMAN are managed by veterans or their families, ensuring that those who understand the unique needs of veterans are directly involved in service delivery. Statement 2 is incorrect; while the project relies on the SPARSH digital pension system, there is private sector involvement, particularly through HDFC Bank, which supports the project by offering SPARSH-enabled pension services and banking solutions.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Project NAMAN:

• Project NAMAN is an initiative by the Indian Army to streamline pension processes for Defence Pensioners and Veterans.

• The project relies on the SPARSH digital pension system, which is managed entirely by the Indian government without any private sector involvement.

• Common Service Centres (CSCs) under Project NAMAN are managed by veterans or their families, ensuring community involvement in service delivery.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct; Project NAMAN is indeed an initiative by the Indian Army aimed at streamlining pension processes for Defence Pensioners and Veterans.

Statement 3 is also correct; the Common Service Centres (CSCs) under Project NAMAN are managed by veterans or their families, ensuring that those who understand the unique needs of veterans are directly involved in service delivery.

Statement 2 is incorrect; while the project relies on the SPARSH digital pension system, there is private sector involvement, particularly through HDFC Bank, which supports the project by offering SPARSH-enabled pension services and banking solutions.

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct; Project NAMAN is indeed an initiative by the Indian Army aimed at streamlining pension processes for Defence Pensioners and Veterans.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the characteristics of cyclones: Cyclones are intense systems of air circulation around a low-pressure center. Tropical cyclones can occur in both mid-latitude and tropical regions. Cyclones rotate in opposite directions in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres due to the Coriolis effect. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct; cyclones are indeed intense systems of air circulation around a low-pressure center, often characterized by violent storms and adverse weather conditions. Statement 2 is incorrect because tropical cyclones specifically form in tropical regions, not in mid-latitude regions, which are instead associated with Extra-Tropical cyclones. Statement 3 is correct as cyclones rotate counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere due to the Coriolis effect. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct; cyclones are indeed intense systems of air circulation around a low-pressure center, often characterized by violent storms and adverse weather conditions. Statement 2 is incorrect because tropical cyclones specifically form in tropical regions, not in mid-latitude regions, which are instead associated with Extra-Tropical cyclones. Statement 3 is correct as cyclones rotate counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere due to the Coriolis effect.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about the characteristics of cyclones:

• Cyclones are intense systems of air circulation around a low-pressure center.

• Tropical cyclones can occur in both mid-latitude and tropical regions.

• Cyclones rotate in opposite directions in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres due to the Coriolis effect.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is correct; cyclones are indeed intense systems of air circulation around a low-pressure center, often characterized by violent storms and adverse weather conditions.

Statement 2 is incorrect because tropical cyclones specifically form in tropical regions, not in mid-latitude regions, which are instead associated with Extra-Tropical cyclones.

Statement 3 is correct as cyclones rotate counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere due to the Coriolis effect.

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is correct; cyclones are indeed intense systems of air circulation around a low-pressure center, often characterized by violent storms and adverse weather conditions.

Statement 2 is incorrect because tropical cyclones specifically form in tropical regions, not in mid-latitude regions, which are instead associated with Extra-Tropical cyclones.

Statement 3 is correct as cyclones rotate counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere due to the Coriolis effect.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the procedures under the e-Dispute Resolution Scheme (e-DRS) 2022: The Dispute Resolution Committees (DRCs) can modify orders, reduce or waive penalties under this scheme. The DRCs must issue decisions within nine months from the date of application. The scheme is available across multiple regional jurisdictions in India. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct; the Dispute Resolution Committees (DRCs) under the e-Dispute Resolution Scheme (e-DRS) 2022 have the authority to modify orders and reduce or waive penalties, providing relief to eligible taxpayers. Statement 3 is also correct; the scheme is available across 18 regional jurisdictions in India, making it accessible to taxpayers in different regions. However, Statement 2 is incorrect; the DRCs are required to issue their decisions within six months from the end of the month in which the application is admitted, not nine months. This timeline ensures a quicker resolution of disputes under the scheme. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct; the Dispute Resolution Committees (DRCs) under the e-Dispute Resolution Scheme (e-DRS) 2022 have the authority to modify orders and reduce or waive penalties, providing relief to eligible taxpayers. Statement 3 is also correct; the scheme is available across 18 regional jurisdictions in India, making it accessible to taxpayers in different regions. However, Statement 2 is incorrect; the DRCs are required to issue their decisions within six months from the end of the month in which the application is admitted, not nine months. This timeline ensures a quicker resolution of disputes under the scheme.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the procedures under the e-Dispute Resolution Scheme (e-DRS) 2022:

• The Dispute Resolution Committees (DRCs) can modify orders, reduce or waive penalties under this scheme.

• The DRCs must issue decisions within nine months from the date of application.

• The scheme is available across multiple regional jurisdictions in India.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct; the Dispute Resolution Committees (DRCs) under the e-Dispute Resolution Scheme (e-DRS) 2022 have the authority to modify orders and reduce or waive penalties, providing relief to eligible taxpayers.

Statement 3 is also correct; the scheme is available across 18 regional jurisdictions in India, making it accessible to taxpayers in different regions.

However, Statement 2 is incorrect; the DRCs are required to issue their decisions within six months from the end of the month in which the application is admitted, not nine months. This timeline ensures a quicker resolution of disputes under the scheme.

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is also correct; the scheme is available across 18 regional jurisdictions in India, making it accessible to taxpayers in different regions.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which countries are the initial signatories of the memorandum of understanding (MoU) establishing the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) Secretariat? a) India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, and Sri Lanka b) India, Nepal, Bhutan, and Sri Lanka c) India, Pakistan, Afghanistan, and Sri Lanka d) India, Sri Lanka, Maldives, and Mauritius Correct Solution: d) The Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) was established with the initial signatories being India, Sri Lanka, Maldives, and Mauritius. These countries share strategic interests in the Indian Ocean region and have come together under this framework to address common security challenges, particularly in areas like maritime safety, counter-terrorism, and cyber security. Incorrect Solution: d) The Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) was established with the initial signatories being India, Sri Lanka, Maldives, and Mauritius. These countries share strategic interests in the Indian Ocean region and have come together under this framework to address common security challenges, particularly in areas like maritime safety, counter-terrorism, and cyber security.

#### 6. Question

Which countries are the initial signatories of the memorandum of understanding (MoU) establishing the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) Secretariat?

• a) India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, and Sri Lanka

• b) India, Nepal, Bhutan, and Sri Lanka

• c) India, Pakistan, Afghanistan, and Sri Lanka

• d) India, Sri Lanka, Maldives, and Mauritius

Solution: d)

The Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) was established with the initial signatories being India, Sri Lanka, Maldives, and Mauritius. These countries share strategic interests in the Indian Ocean region and have come together under this framework to address common security challenges, particularly in areas like maritime safety, counter-terrorism, and cyber security.

Solution: d)

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Navratna’ status in India: ‘Navratna’ status grants CPSEs complete autonomy in financial and operational matters without any government oversight. The ‘Navratna’ status is awarded based on the performance and profitability of the CPSE. With the recent additions, there are now 100 CPSEs that hold ‘Navratna’ status. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 2 only b) 1 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect; while the ‘Navratna’ status grants CPSEs increased financial and operational autonomy, it does not mean complete autonomy without government oversight. The government still exercises some level of control, particularly in strategic and policy matters. Statement 2 is correct; the ‘Navratna’ status is indeed awarded based on the performance and profitability of the CPSE, among other criteria. Statement 3 is incorrect; with the recent additions, the total number of CPSEs holding ‘Navratna’ status has reached 25, not 100. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect; while the ‘Navratna’ status grants CPSEs increased financial and operational autonomy, it does not mean complete autonomy without government oversight. The government still exercises some level of control, particularly in strategic and policy matters. Statement 2 is correct; the ‘Navratna’ status is indeed awarded based on the performance and profitability of the CPSE, among other criteria. Statement 3 is incorrect; with the recent additions, the total number of CPSEs holding ‘Navratna’ status has reached 25, not 100.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Navratna’ status in India:

• ‘Navratna’ status grants CPSEs complete autonomy in financial and operational matters without any government oversight.

• The ‘Navratna’ status is awarded based on the performance and profitability of the CPSE.

• With the recent additions, there are now 100 CPSEs that hold ‘Navratna’ status.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect; while the ‘Navratna’ status grants CPSEs increased financial and operational autonomy, it does not mean complete autonomy without government oversight. The government still exercises some level of control, particularly in strategic and policy matters.

Statement 2 is correct; the ‘Navratna’ status is indeed awarded based on the performance and profitability of the CPSE, among other criteria.

Statement 3 is incorrect; with the recent additions, the total number of CPSEs holding ‘Navratna’ status has reached 25, not 100.

Solution: a)

Statement 2 is correct; the ‘Navratna’ status is indeed awarded based on the performance and profitability of the CPSE, among other criteria.

Statement 3 is incorrect; with the recent additions, the total number of CPSEs holding ‘Navratna’ status has reached 25, not 100.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC): The CSC aims to address transnational threats by enhancing cooperation in areas like maritime safety, counter-terrorism, and cyber security. The CSC Secretariat is based in Colombo, Sri Lanka, and was established to reinforce regional security cooperation among member nations. The MoU for the CSC includes provisions for economic integration among member states, including the establishment of a free trade area. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct; the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) focuses on addressing transnational threats by enhancing cooperation in areas such as maritime safety, counter-terrorism, and cyber security among member nations. Statement 2 is also correct; the CSC Secretariat, which was established in Colombo, Sri Lanka, aims to reinforce regional security cooperation. However, Statement 3 is incorrect; the CSC is primarily a security-focused initiative and does not include provisions for economic integration or the establishment of a free trade area among its members. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct; the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) focuses on addressing transnational threats by enhancing cooperation in areas such as maritime safety, counter-terrorism, and cyber security among member nations. Statement 2 is also correct; the CSC Secretariat, which was established in Colombo, Sri Lanka, aims to reinforce regional security cooperation. However, Statement 3 is incorrect; the CSC is primarily a security-focused initiative and does not include provisions for economic integration or the establishment of a free trade area among its members.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC):

• The CSC aims to address transnational threats by enhancing cooperation in areas like maritime safety, counter-terrorism, and cyber security.

• The CSC Secretariat is based in Colombo, Sri Lanka, and was established to reinforce regional security cooperation among member nations.

• The MoU for the CSC includes provisions for economic integration among member states, including the establishment of a free trade area.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct; the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) focuses on addressing transnational threats by enhancing cooperation in areas such as maritime safety, counter-terrorism, and cyber security among member nations.

Statement 2 is also correct; the CSC Secretariat, which was established in Colombo, Sri Lanka, aims to reinforce regional security cooperation.

However, Statement 3 is incorrect; the CSC is primarily a security-focused initiative and does not include provisions for economic integration or the establishment of a free trade area among its members.

Solution: b)

Statement 2 is also correct; the CSC Secretariat, which was established in Colombo, Sri Lanka, aims to reinforce regional security cooperation.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the expected outcomes of the Vehicle Scrappage Policy: The policy will lead to a reduction in air pollution by removing older, more polluting vehicles from the roads. The policy will mandate the use of electric vehicles as replacements for all scrapped vehicles. The policy will help in reducing the consumption of non-renewable resources by promoting the recycling of materials from scrapped vehicles. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 3 only b) 1 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct as the removal of older, more polluting vehicles will directly contribute to reducing air pollution. Statement 2 is incorrect because the policy does not mandate the use of electric vehicles as replacements; it encourages the adoption of newer, more efficient vehicles, which could include but is not limited to electric vehicles. Statement 3 is correct as the policy promotes the recycling of materials from scrapped vehicles, which helps in reducing the consumption of non-renewable resources and contributes to a more sustainable automotive ecosystem. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct as the removal of older, more polluting vehicles will directly contribute to reducing air pollution. Statement 2 is incorrect because the policy does not mandate the use of electric vehicles as replacements; it encourages the adoption of newer, more efficient vehicles, which could include but is not limited to electric vehicles. Statement 3 is correct as the policy promotes the recycling of materials from scrapped vehicles, which helps in reducing the consumption of non-renewable resources and contributes to a more sustainable automotive ecosystem.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about the expected outcomes of the Vehicle Scrappage Policy:

• The policy will lead to a reduction in air pollution by removing older, more polluting vehicles from the roads.

• The policy will mandate the use of electric vehicles as replacements for all scrapped vehicles.

• The policy will help in reducing the consumption of non-renewable resources by promoting the recycling of materials from scrapped vehicles.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 3 only

• c) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct as the removal of older, more polluting vehicles will directly contribute to reducing air pollution.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the policy does not mandate the use of electric vehicles as replacements; it encourages the adoption of newer, more efficient vehicles, which could include but is not limited to electric vehicles.

Statement 3 is correct as the policy promotes the recycling of materials from scrapped vehicles, which helps in reducing the consumption of non-renewable resources and contributes to a more sustainable automotive ecosystem.

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct as the removal of older, more polluting vehicles will directly contribute to reducing air pollution.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which of the following acts established the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) for framing policies and programs related to groundwater management? a) Indian Easement Act, 1882 b) National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 c) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 d) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 Correct Solution: d) The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The CGWA is responsible for regulating and managing groundwater resources in India, including the development of policies and programs to ensure sustainable use and conservation of groundwater. The authority also monitors and controls the exploitation of groundwater, especially in areas where it is overexploited or critically polluted. Incorrect Solution: d) The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The CGWA is responsible for regulating and managing groundwater resources in India, including the development of policies and programs to ensure sustainable use and conservation of groundwater. The authority also monitors and controls the exploitation of groundwater, especially in areas where it is overexploited or critically polluted.

#### 10. Question

Which of the following acts established the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) for framing policies and programs related to groundwater management?

• a) Indian Easement Act, 1882

• b) National Green Tribunal Act, 2010

• c) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974

• d) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

Solution: d)

The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The CGWA is responsible for regulating and managing groundwater resources in India, including the development of policies and programs to ensure sustainable use and conservation of groundwater. The authority also monitors and controls the exploitation of groundwater, especially in areas where it is overexploited or critically polluted.

Solution: d)

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