UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 3 November 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Marine Fisheries Census (MFC) 2025: It is India’s first fully digital and geo-referenced fisheries census. It is implemented by the Fishery Survey of India (FSI) with funding from ICAR–Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI). The census will capture socio-economic data, including coverage under the PM-MKSSY (Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana) welfare scheme. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Marine Fisheries Census (MFC) 2025 represents a significant modernization of data collection in the fisheries sector. Statement 1 is correct. This census is noted as the first-ever paperless, geo-referenced enumeration, moving away from traditional manual surveys. Statement 2 is incorrect. The implementation and funding roles are reversed. The census is fully funded by the Department of Fisheries, Government of India, and implemented by the ICAR–Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI). The Fishery Survey of India (FSI) provides operational support but is not the primary implementing or funding agency. Statement 3 is correct. A key objective of the census is to create a comprehensive database of marine fisher households. This includes capturing socio-economic indicators such as income, debt, insurance, and crucially, the extent of coverage under central welfare schemes like the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) and the PM-MKSSY (Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana). Incorrect Solution: B The Marine Fisheries Census (MFC) 2025 represents a significant modernization of data collection in the fisheries sector. Statement 1 is correct. This census is noted as the first-ever paperless, geo-referenced enumeration, moving away from traditional manual surveys. Statement 2 is incorrect. The implementation and funding roles are reversed. The census is fully funded by the Department of Fisheries, Government of India, and implemented by the ICAR–Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI). The Fishery Survey of India (FSI) provides operational support but is not the primary implementing or funding agency. Statement 3 is correct. A key objective of the census is to create a comprehensive database of marine fisher households. This includes capturing socio-economic indicators such as income, debt, insurance, and crucially, the extent of coverage under central welfare schemes like the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) and the PM-MKSSY (Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana).

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Marine Fisheries Census (MFC) 2025:

• It is India’s first fully digital and geo-referenced fisheries census.

• It is implemented by the Fishery Survey of India (FSI) with funding from ICAR–Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI).

• The census will capture socio-economic data, including coverage under the PM-MKSSY (Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana) welfare scheme.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The Marine Fisheries Census (MFC) 2025 represents a significant modernization of data collection in the fisheries sector.

• Statement 1 is correct. This census is noted as the first-ever paperless, geo-referenced enumeration, moving away from traditional manual surveys.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The implementation and funding roles are reversed. The census is fully funded by the Department of Fisheries, Government of India, and implemented by the ICAR–Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI). The Fishery Survey of India (FSI) provides operational support but is not the primary implementing or funding agency.

• Statement 3 is correct. A key objective of the census is to create a comprehensive database of marine fisher households. This includes capturing socio-economic indicators such as income, debt, insurance, and crucially, the extent of coverage under central welfare schemes like the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) and the PM-MKSSY (Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana).

Solution: B

The Marine Fisheries Census (MFC) 2025 represents a significant modernization of data collection in the fisheries sector.

• Statement 1 is correct. This census is noted as the first-ever paperless, geo-referenced enumeration, moving away from traditional manual surveys.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Aadhaar Vision 2032’ framework: It was launched by the Ministry of Home Affairs to link with internal security systems. It seeks to integrate blockchain technology to create a tamper-proof and trust-based data ecosystem. The framework aims to adopt quantum-safe cryptographic techniques to future-proof Aadhaar against emerging cyber threats. It mandates compliance with the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, by embedding principles of consent-based data use. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C The ‘Aadhaar Vision 2032’ is a strategic roadmap by UIDAI to upgrade India’s digital identity infrastructure. Statement 1 is incorrect. The framework was launched by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), which operates under the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY), not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Its focus is on digital identity for governance and economy, not internal security linkage. Statement 2 is correct. Blockchain integration is a key technological feature of the framework. The goal is to leverage blockchain’s inherent properties of immutability and traceability to enhance transparency and security in Aadhaar-based transactions. Statement 3 is correct. Recognizing future threats, the framework plans to adopt quantum-resilient security. This involves implementing quantum-safe cryptographic techniques to protect the Aadhaar system from potential attacks by next-generation quantum computers, which could break current encryption standards. Statement 4 is correct. Legal and privacy compliance is a core pillar. The framework is explicitly aligned with the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023. This is being achieved through a “Privacy-by-Design” approach, ensuring principles like consent-based data use, user control, and minimal data retention are embedded in the system architecture. Incorrect Solution: C The ‘Aadhaar Vision 2032’ is a strategic roadmap by UIDAI to upgrade India’s digital identity infrastructure. Statement 1 is incorrect. The framework was launched by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), which operates under the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY), not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Its focus is on digital identity for governance and economy, not internal security linkage. Statement 2 is correct. Blockchain integration is a key technological feature of the framework. The goal is to leverage blockchain’s inherent properties of immutability and traceability to enhance transparency and security in Aadhaar-based transactions. Statement 3 is correct. Recognizing future threats, the framework plans to adopt quantum-resilient security. This involves implementing quantum-safe cryptographic techniques to protect the Aadhaar system from potential attacks by next-generation quantum computers, which could break current encryption standards. Statement 4 is correct. Legal and privacy compliance is a core pillar. The framework is explicitly aligned with the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023. This is being achieved through a “Privacy-by-Design” approach, ensuring principles like consent-based data use, user control, and minimal data retention are embedded in the system architecture.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Aadhaar Vision 2032’ framework:

• It was launched by the Ministry of Home Affairs to link with internal security systems.

• It seeks to integrate blockchain technology to create a tamper-proof and trust-based data ecosystem.

• The framework aims to adopt quantum-safe cryptographic techniques to future-proof Aadhaar against emerging cyber threats.

• It mandates compliance with the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, by embedding principles of consent-based data use.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

The ‘Aadhaar Vision 2032’ is a strategic roadmap by UIDAI to upgrade India’s digital identity infrastructure.

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The framework was launched by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), which operates under the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY), not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Its focus is on digital identity for governance and economy, not internal security linkage.

• Statement 2 is correct. Blockchain integration is a key technological feature of the framework. The goal is to leverage blockchain’s inherent properties of immutability and traceability to enhance transparency and security in Aadhaar-based transactions.

• Statement 3 is correct. Recognizing future threats, the framework plans to adopt quantum-resilient security. This involves implementing quantum-safe cryptographic techniques to protect the Aadhaar system from potential attacks by next-generation quantum computers, which could break current encryption standards.

• Statement 4 is correct. Legal and privacy compliance is a core pillar. The framework is explicitly aligned with the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023. This is being achieved through a “Privacy-by-Design” approach, ensuring principles like consent-based data use, user control, and minimal data retention are embedded in the system architecture.

Solution: C

The ‘Aadhaar Vision 2032’ is a strategic roadmap by UIDAI to upgrade India’s digital identity infrastructure.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the ‘Kendriya Grihmantri Dakshata Padak’: The award is administered by the Ministry of Defence. It serves as a career motivation mechanism by promoting integrity and efficiency. The award reinforces the legacy of Jawaharlal Nehru as the architect of India’s foreign policy. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The award is instituted and administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), not the Ministry of Defence, as it pertains to internal security and police forces. Statement 2 is correct. One of the stated aims of the award is to motivate excellence in policing. By recognizing exceptional professionalism, courage, and integrity, it serves as a career motivation mechanism, encouraging high standards and efficiency across the police forces. Statement 3 is incorrect. The award is given on Sardar Patel’s birth anniversary to reinforce his legacy as India’s first Home Minister and the architect of national unity and strong internal security. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The award is instituted and administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), not the Ministry of Defence, as it pertains to internal security and police forces. Statement 2 is correct. One of the stated aims of the award is to motivate excellence in policing. By recognizing exceptional professionalism, courage, and integrity, it serves as a career motivation mechanism, encouraging high standards and efficiency across the police forces. Statement 3 is incorrect. The award is given on Sardar Patel’s birth anniversary to reinforce his legacy as India’s first Home Minister and the architect of national unity and strong internal security.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about the ‘Kendriya Grihmantri Dakshata Padak’:

• The award is administered by the Ministry of Defence.

• It serves as a career motivation mechanism by promoting integrity and efficiency.

• The award reinforces the legacy of Jawaharlal Nehru as the architect of India’s foreign policy.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The award is instituted and administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), not the Ministry of Defence, as it pertains to internal security and police forces.

• Statement 2 is correct. One of the stated aims of the award is to motivate excellence in policing. By recognizing exceptional professionalism, courage, and integrity, it serves as a career motivation mechanism, encouraging high standards and efficiency across the police forces.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The award is given on Sardar Patel’s birth anniversary to reinforce his legacy as India’s first Home Minister and the architect of national unity and strong internal security.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points What is the core vision or initiative that Exercise MILAN 2026 and the associated maritime convergence primarily aim to advance? (a) Act East Policy (b) Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) (c) MAHASAGAR (d) COMPACT initiative Correct Solution: C (a) Act East Policy: The exercise supports the Act East Policy by engaging with ASEAN and other eastern navies, but this is a component of a broader vision. (b) IPOI: It also reinforces the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI), particularly its security pillar. (c) MAHASAGAR: The convergence is held “under the MAHASAGAR” MAHASAGAR, which stands for Maritime Activities, Humanitarian Assistance, and Security And Growth for All in the Region, is India’s vision for collective maritime security and cooperation. Hosting a major multilateral exercise, an International Fleet Review (IFR), and an Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) conclave directly implements this vision of being a regional convenor for security and growth. (d) COMPACT initiative: This is related to the U.S.–India defence partnership and is not the guiding vision for the multilateral MILAN exercise. Incorrect Solution: C (a) Act East Policy: The exercise supports the Act East Policy by engaging with ASEAN and other eastern navies, but this is a component of a broader vision. (b) IPOI: It also reinforces the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI), particularly its security pillar. (c) MAHASAGAR: The convergence is held “under the MAHASAGAR” MAHASAGAR, which stands for Maritime Activities, Humanitarian Assistance, and Security And Growth for All in the Region, is India’s vision for collective maritime security and cooperation. Hosting a major multilateral exercise, an International Fleet Review (IFR), and an Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) conclave directly implements this vision of being a regional convenor for security and growth. (d) COMPACT initiative: This is related to the U.S.–India defence partnership and is not the guiding vision for the multilateral MILAN exercise.

#### 4. Question

What is the core vision or initiative that Exercise MILAN 2026 and the associated maritime convergence primarily aim to advance?

• (a) Act East Policy

• (b) Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI)

• (c) MAHASAGAR

• (d) COMPACT initiative

Solution: C

• (a) Act East Policy: The exercise supports the Act East Policy by engaging with ASEAN and other eastern navies, but this is a component of a broader vision.

• (b) IPOI: It also reinforces the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI), particularly its security pillar.

• (c) MAHASAGAR: The convergence is held “under the MAHASAGAR” MAHASAGAR, which stands for Maritime Activities, Humanitarian Assistance, and Security And Growth for All in the Region, is India’s vision for collective maritime security and cooperation. Hosting a major multilateral exercise, an International Fleet Review (IFR), and an Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) conclave directly implements this vision of being a regional convenor for security and growth.

• (d) COMPACT initiative: This is related to the U.S.–India defence partnership and is not the guiding vision for the multilateral MILAN exercise.

Solution: C

• (a) Act East Policy: The exercise supports the Act East Policy by engaging with ASEAN and other eastern navies, but this is a component of a broader vision.

• (b) IPOI: It also reinforces the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI), particularly its security pillar.

• (d) COMPACT initiative: This is related to the U.S.–India defence partnership and is not the guiding vision for the multilateral MILAN exercise.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points The new 10-year Defence Partnership Framework between India and the U.S. has which of the following as its stated objectives? Ensuring a free, open, and rules-based Indo-Pacific. Expanding coordination with like-minded partners through the Quad. Achieving joint response to common security threats. Safeguarding freedom of commerce in the South China Sea. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. A primary goal is to ensure a “free, open, and rules-based Indo-Pacific” and safeguard “maritime security and free flow of commerce” in general. Statement 2 is correct. The framework explicitly mentions expanding “coordination with like-minded partners through the Quad” and other mechanisms to strengthen collective security. Statement 3 is correct. The objective of “Enhanced Interoperability and Coordination” is aimed at achieving “joint readiness” and a “joint response to common security threats” to deter regional instability. Statement 4 is incorrect. The framework supports “free flow of commerce” in the “Indo-Pacific”. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. A primary goal is to ensure a “free, open, and rules-based Indo-Pacific” and safeguard “maritime security and free flow of commerce” in general. Statement 2 is correct. The framework explicitly mentions expanding “coordination with like-minded partners through the Quad” and other mechanisms to strengthen collective security. Statement 3 is correct. The objective of “Enhanced Interoperability and Coordination” is aimed at achieving “joint readiness” and a “joint response to common security threats” to deter regional instability. Statement 4 is incorrect. The framework supports “free flow of commerce” in the “Indo-Pacific”.

#### 5. Question

The new 10-year Defence Partnership Framework between India and the U.S. has which of the following as its stated objectives?

• Ensuring a free, open, and rules-based Indo-Pacific.

• Expanding coordination with like-minded partners through the Quad.

• Achieving joint response to common security threats.

• Safeguarding freedom of commerce in the South China Sea.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

• (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. A primary goal is to ensure a “free, open, and rules-based Indo-Pacific” and safeguard “maritime security and free flow of commerce” in general.

• Statement 2 is correct. The framework explicitly mentions expanding “coordination with like-minded partners through the Quad” and other mechanisms to strengthen collective security.

• Statement 3 is correct. The objective of “Enhanced Interoperability and Coordination” is aimed at achieving “joint readiness” and a “joint response to common security threats” to deter regional instability.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The framework supports “free flow of commerce” in the “Indo-Pacific”.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. A primary goal is to ensure a “free, open, and rules-based Indo-Pacific” and safeguard “maritime security and free flow of commerce” in general.

• Statement 2 is correct. The framework explicitly mentions expanding “coordination with like-minded partners through the Quad” and other mechanisms to strengthen collective security.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The framework supports “free flow of commerce” in the “Indo-Pacific”.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the geography of Tanzania: It is a landlocked East African nation situated entirely south of the Equator. The country contains Mount Kilimanjaro, Africa’s highest peak, and Lake Tanganyika, one of the world’s deepest lakes. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Tanzania is not landlocked; it has a significant coastline along the Indian Ocean to the east. Furthermore, while it is just south of the Equator, it is not entirely south; a small portion lies north of the Equator. Statement 2 is correct. Tanzania is home to some of Africa’s most significant physical landmarks. This includes Mount Kilimanjaro (5,895 m), which is the continent’s highest peak, and Lake Tanganyika, which is one of the world’s deepest and longest freshwater lakes, forming part of the East African Rift System. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Tanzania is not landlocked; it has a significant coastline along the Indian Ocean to the east. Furthermore, while it is just south of the Equator, it is not entirely south; a small portion lies north of the Equator. Statement 2 is correct. Tanzania is home to some of Africa’s most significant physical landmarks. This includes Mount Kilimanjaro (5,895 m), which is the continent’s highest peak, and Lake Tanganyika, which is one of the world’s deepest and longest freshwater lakes, forming part of the East African Rift System.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about the geography of Tanzania:

• It is a landlocked East African nation situated entirely south of the Equator.

• The country contains Mount Kilimanjaro, Africa’s highest peak, and Lake Tanganyika, one of the world’s deepest lakes.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Tanzania is not landlocked; it has a significant coastline along the Indian Ocean to the east. Furthermore, while it is just south of the Equator, it is not entirely south; a small portion lies north of the Equator.

• Statement 2 is correct. Tanzania is home to some of Africa’s most significant physical landmarks. This includes Mount Kilimanjaro (5,895 m), which is the continent’s highest peak, and Lake Tanganyika, which is one of the world’s deepest and longest freshwater lakes, forming part of the East African Rift System.

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following actions by a government: Increasing expenditure on public projects. Cutting tax rates. Increasing the interest rates. Reducing the Statutory Liquidity Ratio. At the time of an economic recession, which of the above actions can be taken? (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: A Action 1 (Increasing expenditure on public projects) is a classic expansionary fiscal policy. Government spending acts as an injection into the economy, creating jobs and demand. This is a suitable action. Action 2 (Cutting tax rates) is another expansionary fiscal policy. Lower taxes increase the disposable income of households and corporations, encouraging consumption and investment. This is a suitable action. Action 3 (Increasing the interest rates) is a contractionary monetary policy. Higher interest rates make borrowing more expensive, which discourages investment and consumption. This is done to control inflation, not to fight a recession. During a recession, interest rates are typically lowered. This action is unsuitable. Action 4 (Reducing the Statutory Liquidity Ratio) is an expansionary monetary policy. A lower SLR means banks have to hold a smaller portion of their deposits as liquid assets, freeing up more funds for lending, which can boost investment and consumption. This is a suitable action. Incorrect Solution: A Action 1 (Increasing expenditure on public projects) is a classic expansionary fiscal policy. Government spending acts as an injection into the economy, creating jobs and demand. This is a suitable action. Action 2 (Cutting tax rates) is another expansionary fiscal policy. Lower taxes increase the disposable income of households and corporations, encouraging consumption and investment. This is a suitable action. Action 3 (Increasing the interest rates) is a contractionary monetary policy. Higher interest rates make borrowing more expensive, which discourages investment and consumption. This is done to control inflation, not to fight a recession. During a recession, interest rates are typically lowered. This action is unsuitable. Action 4 (Reducing the Statutory Liquidity Ratio) is an expansionary monetary policy. A lower SLR means banks have to hold a smaller portion of their deposits as liquid assets, freeing up more funds for lending, which can boost investment and consumption. This is a suitable action.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following actions by a government:

• Increasing expenditure on public projects.

• Cutting tax rates.

• Increasing the interest rates.

• Reducing the Statutory Liquidity Ratio.

At the time of an economic recession, which of the above actions can be taken?

• (a) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: A

• Action 1 (Increasing expenditure on public projects) is a classic expansionary fiscal policy. Government spending acts as an injection into the economy, creating jobs and demand. This is a suitable action.

• Action 2 (Cutting tax rates) is another expansionary fiscal policy. Lower taxes increase the disposable income of households and corporations, encouraging consumption and investment. This is a suitable action.

• Action 3 (Increasing the interest rates) is a contractionary monetary policy. Higher interest rates make borrowing more expensive, which discourages investment and consumption. This is done to control inflation, not to fight a recession. During a recession, interest rates are typically lowered. This action is unsuitable.

• Action 4 (Reducing the Statutory Liquidity Ratio) is an expansionary monetary policy. A lower SLR means banks have to hold a smaller portion of their deposits as liquid assets, freeing up more funds for lending, which can boost investment and consumption. This is a suitable action.

Solution: A

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary is considered a suitable habitat for the cheetah reintroduction project primarily because: (a) It is geographically isolated, preventing any human-wildlife conflict. (b) Its ecosystem consists of dense tropical rainforests, similar to the African savanna. (c) It serves as a crucial wildlife corridor with mixed deciduous forests and a rich prey base. (d) It is the only sanctuary in India where the Asiatic cheetah was last sighted in 1952. Correct Solution: C Option (a) is incorrect. No large sanctuary in India is completely isolated or free from potential human-wildlife conflict; managing this is part of the project. It is not “geographically isolated.” Option (b) is incorrect. The sanctuary is described as having mixed deciduous forests, not dense tropical rainforests. Furthermore, African cheetahs are adapted to grasslands and savannas, not dense rainforests. The sanctuary’s habitat (forests, grasslands, and shrubs) is deemed suitable, but “dense tropical rainforest” is an incorrect description. Option (c) is correct. Nauradehi is a large sanctuary (1,197 sq. km) in the upper Vindhyan range that acts as a vital wildlife corridor. It features mixed deciduous forests, diverse vegetation including grasses and shrubs, and supports a wide range of fauna like blackbuck, chinkara, and sambhar. This rich prey base makes it an ideal habitat for supporting a predator like the cheetah and ensuring species expansion. Option (d) is incorrect. The last confirmed sighting of the Asiatic cheetah in India was in 1948 in Chhattisgarh (then part of Central Provinces and Berar), not specifically Nauradehi. Incorrect Solution: C Option (a) is incorrect. No large sanctuary in India is completely isolated or free from potential human-wildlife conflict; managing this is part of the project. It is not “geographically isolated.” Option (b) is incorrect. The sanctuary is described as having mixed deciduous forests, not dense tropical rainforests. Furthermore, African cheetahs are adapted to grasslands and savannas, not dense rainforests. The sanctuary’s habitat (forests, grasslands, and shrubs) is deemed suitable, but “dense tropical rainforest” is an incorrect description. Option (c) is correct. Nauradehi is a large sanctuary (1,197 sq. km) in the upper Vindhyan range that acts as a vital wildlife corridor. It features mixed deciduous forests, diverse vegetation including grasses and shrubs, and supports a wide range of fauna like blackbuck, chinkara, and sambhar. This rich prey base makes it an ideal habitat for supporting a predator like the cheetah and ensuring species expansion. Option (d) is incorrect. The last confirmed sighting of the Asiatic cheetah in India was in 1948 in Chhattisgarh (then part of Central Provinces and Berar), not specifically Nauradehi.

#### 8. Question

Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary is considered a suitable habitat for the cheetah reintroduction project primarily because:

• (a) It is geographically isolated, preventing any human-wildlife conflict.

• (b) Its ecosystem consists of dense tropical rainforests, similar to the African savanna.

• (c) It serves as a crucial wildlife corridor with mixed deciduous forests and a rich prey base.

• (d) It is the only sanctuary in India where the Asiatic cheetah was last sighted in 1952.

Solution: C

• Option (a) is incorrect. No large sanctuary in India is completely isolated or free from potential human-wildlife conflict; managing this is part of the project. It is not “geographically isolated.”

• Option (b) is incorrect. The sanctuary is described as having mixed deciduous forests, not dense tropical rainforests. Furthermore, African cheetahs are adapted to grasslands and savannas, not dense rainforests. The sanctuary’s habitat (forests, grasslands, and shrubs) is deemed suitable, but “dense tropical rainforest” is an incorrect description.

• Option (c) is correct. Nauradehi is a large sanctuary (1,197 sq. km) in the upper Vindhyan range that acts as a vital wildlife corridor. It features mixed deciduous forests, diverse vegetation including grasses and shrubs, and supports a wide range of fauna like blackbuck, chinkara, and sambhar. This rich prey base makes it an ideal habitat for supporting a predator like the cheetah and ensuring species expansion.

Option (d) is incorrect. The last confirmed sighting of the Asiatic cheetah in India was in 1948 in Chhattisgarh (then part of Central Provinces and Berar), not specifically Nauradehi.

Solution: C

Option (d) is incorrect. The last confirmed sighting of the Asiatic cheetah in India was in 1948 in Chhattisgarh (then part of Central Provinces and Berar), not specifically Nauradehi.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Special Intensive Revision (SIR) 2025 is a document-based voter verification exercise. Statement-II: The SIR 2025 is being conducted to align the electoral rolls with the provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1950. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The SIR is explicitly defined as a “large-scale, document-based voter verification exercise.” Its entire process relies on verifying details against historical rolls or, if needed, supporting documents. Statement-II is correct. The SIR is not an arbitrary exercise; it is the implementation of a legal mandate. Its purpose is to ensure the electoral rolls are “clean, error-free, and verified,” aligning with the legal requirements for voter registration (like citizenship) stipulated in the Representation of the People Act, 1950. Statement-II provides the legal and foundational reason why the ECI is conducting the SIR described in Statement-I. The Representation of the People Act, 1950, governs the preparation and revision of electoral rolls. The SIR is the method (a document-based verification) being used to enforce the provisions of that Act. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The SIR is explicitly defined as a “large-scale, document-based voter verification exercise.” Its entire process relies on verifying details against historical rolls or, if needed, supporting documents. Statement-II is correct. The SIR is not an arbitrary exercise; it is the implementation of a legal mandate. Its purpose is to ensure the electoral rolls are “clean, error-free, and verified,” aligning with the legal requirements for voter registration (like citizenship) stipulated in the Representation of the People Act, 1950. Statement-II provides the legal and foundational reason why the ECI is conducting the SIR described in Statement-I. The Representation of the People Act, 1950, governs the preparation and revision of electoral rolls. The SIR is the method (a document-based verification) being used to enforce the provisions of that Act. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Special Intensive Revision (SIR) 2025 is a document-based voter verification exercise.

Statement-II: The SIR 2025 is being conducted to align the electoral rolls with the provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1950.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. The SIR is explicitly defined as a “large-scale, document-based voter verification exercise.” Its entire process relies on verifying details against historical rolls or, if needed, supporting documents.

• Statement-II is correct. The SIR is not an arbitrary exercise; it is the implementation of a legal mandate. Its purpose is to ensure the electoral rolls are “clean, error-free, and verified,” aligning with the legal requirements for voter registration (like citizenship) stipulated in the Representation of the People Act, 1950.

• Statement-II provides the legal and foundational reason why the ECI is conducting the SIR described in Statement-I. The Representation of the People Act, 1950, governs the preparation and revision of electoral rolls. The SIR is the method (a document-based verification) being used to enforce the provisions of that Act. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which of the following events in Sardar Patel’s public life is in the correct chronological order (earliest to latest)? (a) Bardoli Satyagraha -> Kheda Satyagraha -> President of INC -> Integration of Hyderabad (b) Bardoli Satyagraha -> President of INC -> Kheda Satyagraha -> Integration of Hyderabad (c) Kheda Satyagraha -> President of INC -> Bardoli Satyagraha -> Integration of Hyderabad (d) Kheda Satyagraha -> Bardoli Satyagraha -> President of INC -> Integration of Hyderabad Correct Solution: D Kheda Satyagraha (1918): This was one of Patel’s first major involvements in the freedom struggle alongside Mahatma Gandhi, advocating for farmers’ rights in Gujarat. Bardoli Satyagraha (1928): Patel led this successful farmers’ agitation against oppressive taxation, which earned him the title “Sardar” from the women of Bardoli. President of INC (1931): Sardar Patel presided over the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress. Integration of Hyderabad (1948): This occurred after India’s independence (1947) while Patel was serving as the Home Minister, through Operation Polo. Incorrect Solution: D Kheda Satyagraha (1918): This was one of Patel’s first major involvements in the freedom struggle alongside Mahatma Gandhi, advocating for farmers’ rights in Gujarat. Bardoli Satyagraha (1928): Patel led this successful farmers’ agitation against oppressive taxation, which earned him the title “Sardar” from the women of Bardoli. President of INC (1931): Sardar Patel presided over the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress. Integration of Hyderabad (1948): This occurred after India’s independence (1947) while Patel was serving as the Home Minister, through Operation Polo.

#### 10. Question

Which of the following events in Sardar Patel’s public life is in the correct chronological order (earliest to latest)?

• (a) Bardoli Satyagraha -> Kheda Satyagraha -> President of INC -> Integration of Hyderabad

• (b) Bardoli Satyagraha -> President of INC -> Kheda Satyagraha -> Integration of Hyderabad

• (c) Kheda Satyagraha -> President of INC -> Bardoli Satyagraha -> Integration of Hyderabad

• (d) Kheda Satyagraha -> Bardoli Satyagraha -> President of INC -> Integration of Hyderabad

Solution: D

• Kheda Satyagraha (1918): This was one of Patel’s first major involvements in the freedom struggle alongside Mahatma Gandhi, advocating for farmers’ rights in Gujarat.

• Bardoli Satyagraha (1928): Patel led this successful farmers’ agitation against oppressive taxation, which earned him the title “Sardar” from the women of Bardoli.

• President of INC (1931): Sardar Patel presided over the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress.

• Integration of Hyderabad (1948): This occurred after India’s independence (1947) while Patel was serving as the Home Minister, through Operation Polo.

Solution: D

• Kheda Satyagraha (1918): This was one of Patel’s first major involvements in the freedom struggle alongside Mahatma Gandhi, advocating for farmers’ rights in Gujarat.

• Bardoli Satyagraha (1928): Patel led this successful farmers’ agitation against oppressive taxation, which earned him the title “Sardar” from the women of Bardoli.

• President of INC (1931): Sardar Patel presided over the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress.

• Integration of Hyderabad (1948): This occurred after India’s independence (1947) while Patel was serving as the Home Minister, through Operation Polo.

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