UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 3 May 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points In agriculture, Nano Sulphur is primarily used for which of the following purposes? As a broad-spectrum fungicide. As a nitrogen-fixing agent in soil. As a micronutrient supplement. As an insecticide against specific pests. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: c) Statement 2 is incorrect. Nano Sulphur plays multiple roles in agriculture due to its enhanced reactivity and nanoscale particle size, which improves absorption and efficacy. Statement 1 is correct – it acts as a broad-spectrum fungicide, effectively combating fungal pathogens such as powdery mildew and rust. Statement 3 is also correct, as sulphur is a vital micronutrient, essential for synthesizing amino acids, enzymes, and chlorophyll in plants. Statement 4 is correct as well, since Nano Sulphur can function as a biopesticide, disrupting pests’ physiological processes, although its primary use remains as a fungicide and nutrient. However, Statement 2 is incorrect – Nano Sulphur does not serve as a nitrogen-fixing agent. Nitrogen fixation is a biological process typically carried out by certain bacteria (e.g., Rhizobium, Azotobacter) in association with leguminous plants, not by sulphur compounds. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 2 is incorrect. Nano Sulphur plays multiple roles in agriculture due to its enhanced reactivity and nanoscale particle size, which improves absorption and efficacy. Statement 1 is correct – it acts as a broad-spectrum fungicide, effectively combating fungal pathogens such as powdery mildew and rust. Statement 3 is also correct, as sulphur is a vital micronutrient, essential for synthesizing amino acids, enzymes, and chlorophyll in plants. Statement 4 is correct as well, since Nano Sulphur can function as a biopesticide, disrupting pests’ physiological processes, although its primary use remains as a fungicide and nutrient. However, Statement 2 is incorrect – Nano Sulphur does not serve as a nitrogen-fixing agent. Nitrogen fixation is a biological process typically carried out by certain bacteria (e.g., Rhizobium, Azotobacter) in association with leguminous plants, not by sulphur compounds.

#### 1. Question

In agriculture, Nano Sulphur is primarily used for which of the following purposes?

• As a broad-spectrum fungicide.

• As a nitrogen-fixing agent in soil.

• As a micronutrient supplement.

• As an insecticide against specific pests.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: c)

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Nano Sulphur plays multiple roles in agriculture due to its enhanced reactivity and nanoscale particle size, which improves absorption and efficacy.

• Statement 1 is correct – it acts as a broad-spectrum fungicide, effectively combating fungal pathogens such as powdery mildew and rust.

• Statement 3 is also correct, as sulphur is a vital micronutrient, essential for synthesizing amino acids, enzymes, and chlorophyll in plants.

• Statement 4 is correct as well, since Nano Sulphur can function as a biopesticide, disrupting pests’ physiological processes, although its primary use remains as a fungicide and nutrient.

• However, Statement 2 is incorrect – Nano Sulphur does not serve as a nitrogen-fixing agent. Nitrogen fixation is a biological process typically carried out by certain bacteria (e.g., Rhizobium, Azotobacter) in association with leguminous plants, not by sulphur compounds.

Solution: c)

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Nano Sulphur plays multiple roles in agriculture due to its enhanced reactivity and nanoscale particle size, which improves absorption and efficacy.

• Statement 1 is correct – it acts as a broad-spectrum fungicide, effectively combating fungal pathogens such as powdery mildew and rust.

• Statement 3 is also correct, as sulphur is a vital micronutrient, essential for synthesizing amino acids, enzymes, and chlorophyll in plants.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which of the following is a key feature of the Next-Generation Health Management Information System (HMIS) for Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS) beneficiaries? a) Mandatory physical verification of all beneficiaries annually. b) PAN-based unique identification of beneficiaries. c) Decentralized medicine procurement and distribution. d) Exclusive access to private hospitals empanelled under CGHS. Correct Solution: b) The Next-Generation Health Management Information System (HMIS) for CGHS beneficiaries is a digitally advanced platform aimed at streamlining healthcare services under the Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS). One of its key features is PAN-based unique identification of beneficiaries. This measure is intended to ensure accurate tracking, avoid duplication, and enhance the efficiency of entitlement verification across departments and facilities. This system integrates several digital services, such as real-time tracking of card applications, online modification of CGHS cards, digital verification of contributions, and centralized data management for improved transparency and accessibility. It is part of the broader digitization and governance reforms under the National Digital Health Mission (NDHM). Incorrect Solution: b) The Next-Generation Health Management Information System (HMIS) for CGHS beneficiaries is a digitally advanced platform aimed at streamlining healthcare services under the Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS). One of its key features is PAN-based unique identification of beneficiaries. This measure is intended to ensure accurate tracking, avoid duplication, and enhance the efficiency of entitlement verification across departments and facilities. This system integrates several digital services, such as real-time tracking of card applications, online modification of CGHS cards, digital verification of contributions, and centralized data management for improved transparency and accessibility. It is part of the broader digitization and governance reforms under the National Digital Health Mission (NDHM).

#### 2. Question

Which of the following is a key feature of the Next-Generation Health Management Information System (HMIS) for Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS) beneficiaries?

• a) Mandatory physical verification of all beneficiaries annually.

• b) PAN-based unique identification of beneficiaries.

• c) Decentralized medicine procurement and distribution.

• d) Exclusive access to private hospitals empanelled under CGHS.

Solution: b)

• The Next-Generation Health Management Information System (HMIS) for CGHS beneficiaries is a digitally advanced platform aimed at streamlining healthcare services under the Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS).

• One of its key features is PAN-based unique identification of beneficiaries. This measure is intended to ensure accurate tracking, avoid duplication, and enhance the efficiency of entitlement verification across departments and facilities.

• This system integrates several digital services, such as real-time tracking of card applications, online modification of CGHS cards, digital verification of contributions, and centralized data management for improved transparency and accessibility.

• It is part of the broader digitization and governance reforms under the National Digital Health Mission (NDHM).

Solution: b)

• It is part of the broader digitization and governance reforms under the National Digital Health Mission (NDHM).

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following sources of PM10 pollution: Direct emissions from vehicles (primary particles). Formation from gaseous pollutants like SO2 and NOx (secondary particles). Wind-blown dust from construction sites. Which of the above contribute to PM10 pollution? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: d) All three listed sources significantly contribute to PM10 (particulate matter ≤10 microns) pollution, making option d) the correct choice. Statement 1 is correct: Direct emissions from vehicles include primary PM10 particles such as soot, unburned hydrocarbons, and brake or tire dust. These are released directly into the atmosphere and inhalable due to their small size. Statement 2 is correct: Secondary PM10 particles form in the atmosphere through chemical reactions involving gases like sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ). These gases undergo oxidation and react with ammonia and water vapor, forming sulfates and nitrates, which contribute to fine and coarse particulates including PM10. Statement 3 is correct: Wind-blown dust from construction sites, unpaved roads, and open soil surfaces directly contributes large quantities of coarse PM10 particles, especially in urban areas with active infrastructure projects and minimal dust control measures. Incorrect Solution: d) All three listed sources significantly contribute to PM10 (particulate matter ≤10 microns) pollution, making option d) the correct choice. Statement 1 is correct: Direct emissions from vehicles include primary PM10 particles such as soot, unburned hydrocarbons, and brake or tire dust. These are released directly into the atmosphere and inhalable due to their small size. Statement 2 is correct: Secondary PM10 particles form in the atmosphere through chemical reactions involving gases like sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ). These gases undergo oxidation and react with ammonia and water vapor, forming sulfates and nitrates, which contribute to fine and coarse particulates including PM10. Statement 3 is correct: Wind-blown dust from construction sites, unpaved roads, and open soil surfaces directly contributes large quantities of coarse PM10 particles, especially in urban areas with active infrastructure projects and minimal dust control measures.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following sources of PM10 pollution:

• Direct emissions from vehicles (primary particles).

• Formation from gaseous pollutants like SO2 and NOx (secondary particles).

• Wind-blown dust from construction sites.

Which of the above contribute to PM10 pollution?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: d)

All three listed sources significantly contribute to PM10 (particulate matter ≤10 microns) pollution, making option d) the correct choice.

• Statement 1 is correct: Direct emissions from vehicles include primary PM10 particles such as soot, unburned hydrocarbons, and brake or tire dust. These are released directly into the atmosphere and inhalable due to their small size.

• Statement 2 is correct: Secondary PM10 particles form in the atmosphere through chemical reactions involving gases like sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ). These gases undergo oxidation and react with ammonia and water vapor, forming sulfates and nitrates, which contribute to fine and coarse particulates including PM10.

• Statement 3 is correct: Wind-blown dust from construction sites, unpaved roads, and open soil surfaces directly contributes large quantities of coarse PM10 particles, especially in urban areas with active infrastructure projects and minimal dust control measures.

Solution: d)

All three listed sources significantly contribute to PM10 (particulate matter ≤10 microns) pollution, making option d) the correct choice.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points According to the US Constitution, if both the President and the Vice President are unable to discharge the powers and duties of the office, who is next in the line of succession? a) The President Pro Tempore of the Senate. b) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. c) The Secretary of State. d) The Speaker of the House of Representatives. Correct Solution: d) Under the United States Constitution and the Presidential Succession Act of 1947, if both the President and Vice President are unable to discharge the powers and duties of the office—due to death, resignation, removal, or incapacitation—the Speaker of the House of Representatives is next in line to assume the presidency. This succession plan ensures continuity of executive leadership in times of crisis. The Presidential Succession Act was enacted to clearly define the order of replacement beyond the Vice President. After the Speaker, the line of succession continues with the President Pro Tempore of the Senate, followed by Cabinet members beginning with the Secretary of State, based on the order in which their departments were established. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, although a high-ranking constitutional officer, is not part of the presidential line of succession. Incorrect Solution: d) Under the United States Constitution and the Presidential Succession Act of 1947, if both the President and Vice President are unable to discharge the powers and duties of the office—due to death, resignation, removal, or incapacitation—the Speaker of the House of Representatives is next in line to assume the presidency. This succession plan ensures continuity of executive leadership in times of crisis. The Presidential Succession Act was enacted to clearly define the order of replacement beyond the Vice President. After the Speaker, the line of succession continues with the President Pro Tempore of the Senate, followed by Cabinet members beginning with the Secretary of State, based on the order in which their departments were established. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, although a high-ranking constitutional officer, is not part of the presidential line of succession.

#### 4. Question

According to the US Constitution, if both the President and the Vice President are unable to discharge the powers and duties of the office, who is next in the line of succession?

• a) The President Pro Tempore of the Senate.

• b) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

• c) The Secretary of State.

• d) The Speaker of the House of Representatives.

Solution: d)

• Under the United States Constitution and the Presidential Succession Act of 1947, if both the President and Vice President are unable to discharge the powers and duties of the office—due to death, resignation, removal, or incapacitation—the Speaker of the House of Representatives is next in line to assume the presidency.

• This succession plan ensures continuity of executive leadership in times of crisis. The Presidential Succession Act was enacted to clearly define the order of replacement beyond the Vice President. After the Speaker, the line of succession continues with the President Pro Tempore of the Senate, followed by Cabinet members beginning with the Secretary of State, based on the order in which their departments were established.

• The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, although a high-ranking constitutional officer, is not part of the presidential line of succession.

Solution: d)

• The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, although a high-ranking constitutional officer, is not part of the presidential line of succession.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points What are the expected benefits of implementing the Next-Generation Health Management Information System (HMIS) for Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS)? Improved service delivery and administrative efficiency. Elimination of duplicate records and streamlined entitlements. Real-time digital access to health information for beneficiaries. Complete autonomy for individual beneficiaries in choosing empanelled hospitals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1, 2, and 3 only b) 2, 3, and 4 only c) 1 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 Correct Solution: a) The Next-Generation Health Management Information System (HMIS) for CGHS is designed to enhance the efficiency, transparency, and user experience of the Central Government Health Scheme. Statement 1 is correct: By digitizing workflows, HMIS significantly improves service delivery and administrative efficiency, reducing delays in processing and enabling smoother coordination among CGHS wellness centres, dispensaries, and empanelled hospitals. Statement 2 is correct: The system introduces PAN-based unique identification, which helps eliminate duplicate entries and ensures that beneficiaries’ entitlements are streamlined and accurately verified. Statement 3 is correct: The platform provides real-time digital access to health records, application status, and entitlements, empowering beneficiaries with timely and personalized information. Statement 4 is incorrect: While beneficiaries can select from empanelled hospitals, they do not enjoy complete autonomy. Their choice is still governed by CGHS policies, referral norms, and treatment eligibility criteria. Incorrect Solution: a) The Next-Generation Health Management Information System (HMIS) for CGHS is designed to enhance the efficiency, transparency, and user experience of the Central Government Health Scheme. Statement 1 is correct: By digitizing workflows, HMIS significantly improves service delivery and administrative efficiency, reducing delays in processing and enabling smoother coordination among CGHS wellness centres, dispensaries, and empanelled hospitals. Statement 2 is correct: The system introduces PAN-based unique identification, which helps eliminate duplicate entries and ensures that beneficiaries’ entitlements are streamlined and accurately verified. Statement 3 is correct: The platform provides real-time digital access to health records, application status, and entitlements, empowering beneficiaries with timely and personalized information. Statement 4 is incorrect: While beneficiaries can select from empanelled hospitals, they do not enjoy complete autonomy. Their choice is still governed by CGHS policies, referral norms, and treatment eligibility criteria.

#### 5. Question

What are the expected benefits of implementing the Next-Generation Health Management Information System (HMIS) for Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS)?

• Improved service delivery and administrative efficiency.

• Elimination of duplicate records and streamlined entitlements.

• Real-time digital access to health information for beneficiaries.

• Complete autonomy for individual beneficiaries in choosing empanelled hospitals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• a) 1, 2, and 3 only

• b) 2, 3, and 4 only

• c) 1 and 4 only

• d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Solution: a)

The Next-Generation Health Management Information System (HMIS) for CGHS is designed to enhance the efficiency, transparency, and user experience of the Central Government Health Scheme.

• Statement 1 is correct: By digitizing workflows, HMIS significantly improves service delivery and administrative efficiency, reducing delays in processing and enabling smoother coordination among CGHS wellness centres, dispensaries, and empanelled hospitals.

• Statement 2 is correct: The system introduces PAN-based unique identification, which helps eliminate duplicate entries and ensures that beneficiaries’ entitlements are streamlined and accurately verified.

• Statement 3 is correct: The platform provides real-time digital access to health records, application status, and entitlements, empowering beneficiaries with timely and personalized information.

• Statement 4 is incorrect: While beneficiaries can select from empanelled hospitals, they do not enjoy complete autonomy. Their choice is still governed by CGHS policies, referral norms, and treatment eligibility criteria.

Solution: a)

The Next-Generation Health Management Information System (HMIS) for CGHS is designed to enhance the efficiency, transparency, and user experience of the Central Government Health Scheme.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to the SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme (SVES), which of the following statements is correct? a) It allows all citizens of SAARC countries to travel without a visa to any other SAARC nation. b) It is applicable only to government officials of SAARC member states. c) It grants special visa-free entry to specified categories of people from SAARC countries. d) It was introduced after 2015 to boost tourism in South Asia. Correct Solution: c) The SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme was launched in 1992 to promote people-to-people contact in South Asia. It does not give blanket visa-free travel to all citizens; instead, it provides special travel permits (visa stickers) to certain entitled categories of individuals (currently 24 categories, such as dignitaries, judges, parliamentarians, senior officials, journalists, sportspersons, etc.). Option (b) is incorrect because the scheme isn’t limited to officials; it includes various civilian categories as well. Option (d) is wrong on the timeframe: the decision to create SVES was made in 1988 and it became operational in the early 1990s. Recently India suspended SVES privileges for Pakistani nationals after a terror attack). Incorrect Solution: c) The SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme was launched in 1992 to promote people-to-people contact in South Asia. It does not give blanket visa-free travel to all citizens; instead, it provides special travel permits (visa stickers) to certain entitled categories of individuals (currently 24 categories, such as dignitaries, judges, parliamentarians, senior officials, journalists, sportspersons, etc.). Option (b) is incorrect because the scheme isn’t limited to officials; it includes various civilian categories as well. Option (d) is wrong on the timeframe: the decision to create SVES was made in 1988 and it became operational in the early 1990s. Recently India suspended SVES privileges for Pakistani nationals after a terror attack).

#### 6. Question

With reference to the SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme (SVES), which of the following statements is correct?

• a) It allows all citizens of SAARC countries to travel without a visa to any other SAARC nation.

• b) It is applicable only to government officials of SAARC member states.

• c) It grants special visa-free entry to specified categories of people from SAARC countries.

• d) It was introduced after 2015 to boost tourism in South Asia.

Solution: c)

• The SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme was launched in 1992 to promote people-to-people contact in South Asia. It does not give blanket visa-free travel to all citizens; instead, it provides special travel permits (visa stickers) to certain entitled categories of individuals (currently 24 categories, such as dignitaries, judges, parliamentarians, senior officials, journalists, sportspersons, etc.).

• Option (b) is incorrect because the scheme isn’t limited to officials; it includes various civilian categories as well.

• Option (d) is wrong on the timeframe: the decision to create SVES was made in 1988 and it became operational in the early 1990s.

• Recently India suspended SVES privileges for Pakistani nationals after a terror attack).

Solution: c)

• Option (b) is incorrect because the scheme isn’t limited to officials; it includes various civilian categories as well.

• Option (d) is wrong on the timeframe: the decision to create SVES was made in 1988 and it became operational in the early 1990s.

• Recently India suspended SVES privileges for Pakistani nationals after a terror attack).

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points The HAL Dhruv helicopter, often seen in news, is: a) a single-engine attack helicopter developed with Russian assistance. b) a twin-engine utility helicopter indigenously developed in India. c) a heavy-lift transport helicopter jointly built by India and the USA. d) an unmanned helicopter used by the Indian Navy. Correct Solution: b) The HAL Dhruv is a twin-engine Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH) designed and developed in India by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). It is a multi-role utility helicopter, meaning it’s used for transport, search-and-rescue, reconnaissance, medical evacuation, etc., rather than being a dedicated attack platform. This eliminates option (a), since Dhruv is not single-engine nor primarily an attack helicopter (India’s attack helos are different models like the AH-64 Apache or HAL’s Rudra/LCH which are derived from the Dhruv design). Option (c) is incorrect because Dhruv is not a heavy-lift chopper (heavy-lift examples would be the Mi-26 or CH-47 Chinook) and it wasn’t jointly built with the USA – it was an indigenous project of India (with some foreign sub-systems). Option (d) is also wrong as Dhruv is a manned helicopter; HAL has worked on unmanned variants but the Dhruv itself is piloted. Incorrect Solution: b) The HAL Dhruv is a twin-engine Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH) designed and developed in India by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). It is a multi-role utility helicopter, meaning it’s used for transport, search-and-rescue, reconnaissance, medical evacuation, etc., rather than being a dedicated attack platform. This eliminates option (a), since Dhruv is not single-engine nor primarily an attack helicopter (India’s attack helos are different models like the AH-64 Apache or HAL’s Rudra/LCH which are derived from the Dhruv design). Option (c) is incorrect because Dhruv is not a heavy-lift chopper (heavy-lift examples would be the Mi-26 or CH-47 Chinook) and it wasn’t jointly built with the USA – it was an indigenous project of India (with some foreign sub-systems). Option (d) is also wrong as Dhruv is a manned helicopter; HAL has worked on unmanned variants but the Dhruv itself is piloted.

#### 7. Question

The HAL Dhruv helicopter, often seen in news, is:

• a) a single-engine attack helicopter developed with Russian assistance.

• b) a twin-engine utility helicopter indigenously developed in India.

• c) a heavy-lift transport helicopter jointly built by India and the USA.

• d) an unmanned helicopter used by the Indian Navy.

Solution: b)

• The HAL Dhruv is a twin-engine Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH) designed and developed in India by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). It is a multi-role utility helicopter, meaning it’s used for transport, search-and-rescue, reconnaissance, medical evacuation, etc., rather than being a dedicated attack platform.

• This eliminates option (a), since Dhruv is not single-engine nor primarily an attack helicopter (India’s attack helos are different models like the AH-64 Apache or HAL’s Rudra/LCH which are derived from the Dhruv design).

• Option (c) is incorrect because Dhruv is not a heavy-lift chopper (heavy-lift examples would be the Mi-26 or CH-47 Chinook) and it wasn’t jointly built with the USA – it was an indigenous project of India (with some foreign sub-systems).

• Option (d) is also wrong as Dhruv is a manned helicopter; HAL has worked on unmanned variants but the Dhruv itself is piloted.

Solution: b)

• Option (d) is also wrong as Dhruv is a manned helicopter; HAL has worked on unmanned variants but the Dhruv itself is piloted.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) of 1960 has been in news. Which of the following statements about the treaty is/are correct? It allocated the water of three “eastern” rivers of the Indus system to India, and the three “western” rivers primarily to Pakistan. It allows India to construct run-of-river hydropower projects on the western rivers within specified design constraints. It permits either country to unilaterally suspend and exit the treaty at any time. Select the correct answer using the code below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: a) Under the Indus Waters Treaty brokered by the World Bank, the Indus river system’s waters were divided between India and Pakistan. Pakistan received unrestricted use of the three western rivers (Indus main stem, Jhelum, Chenab), whereas India got rights over the eastern rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej). India is allowed limited use of the western rivers as well – for example, it can build run-of-river hydropower projects and use water for irrigation and domestic needs on those rivers, within strict design and storage limits. This means India can construct dams without large storage (to avoid affecting downstream flow) on western rivers, a fact affirmed by the treaty’s technical provisions and arbitral decisions over projects like Kishanganga. Statement 3 is incorrect: the IWT has no provision for unilateral suspension or termination by one party. It is a permanent treaty; modifications or termination require mutual consent (and potentially arbitration). Incorrect Solution: a) Under the Indus Waters Treaty brokered by the World Bank, the Indus river system’s waters were divided between India and Pakistan. Pakistan received unrestricted use of the three western rivers (Indus main stem, Jhelum, Chenab), whereas India got rights over the eastern rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej). India is allowed limited use of the western rivers as well – for example, it can build run-of-river hydropower projects and use water for irrigation and domestic needs on those rivers, within strict design and storage limits. This means India can construct dams without large storage (to avoid affecting downstream flow) on western rivers, a fact affirmed by the treaty’s technical provisions and arbitral decisions over projects like Kishanganga. Statement 3 is incorrect: the IWT has no provision for unilateral suspension or termination by one party. It is a permanent treaty; modifications or termination require mutual consent (and potentially arbitration).

#### 8. Question

Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) of 1960 has been in news. Which of the following statements about the treaty is/are correct?

• It allocated the water of three “eastern” rivers of the Indus system to India, and the three “western” rivers primarily to Pakistan.

• It allows India to construct run-of-river hydropower projects on the western rivers within specified design constraints.

• It permits either country to unilaterally suspend and exit the treaty at any time.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 1 and 3 only

• c) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a)

• Under the Indus Waters Treaty brokered by the World Bank, the Indus river system’s waters were divided between India and Pakistan.

• Pakistan received unrestricted use of the three western rivers (Indus main stem, Jhelum, Chenab), whereas India got rights over the eastern rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej).

• India is allowed limited use of the western rivers as well – for example, it can build run-of-river hydropower projects and use water for irrigation and domestic needs on those rivers, within strict design and storage limits. This means India can construct dams without large storage (to avoid affecting downstream flow) on western rivers, a fact affirmed by the treaty’s technical provisions and arbitral decisions over projects like Kishanganga.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: the IWT has no provision for unilateral suspension or termination by one party. It is a permanent treaty; modifications or termination require mutual consent (and potentially arbitration).

Solution: a)

• Under the Indus Waters Treaty brokered by the World Bank, the Indus river system’s waters were divided between India and Pakistan.

• Pakistan received unrestricted use of the three western rivers (Indus main stem, Jhelum, Chenab), whereas India got rights over the eastern rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej).

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Kashmir Valley is drained by the Jhelum River. Pahalgam is situated at the confluence of a stream from Sheshnag Lake and the Lidder River. The Pir Panjal Range lies to the northeast of the Kashmir Valley. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct – the Kashmir Valley (the Vale of Kashmir) is a fertile valley through which the Jhelum River flows in a meandering course. The Jhelum is the main river draining the valley, collecting waters from various tributaries (such as the Lidder, Sind, etc.) before flowing out via the Baramulla gorge. Statement 2 is also correct. Pahalgam, a famous hill station in Anantnag district of J&K, lies at the confluence of two streams: one coming from Sheshnag Lake (along the route of the Amarnath Yatra) and the other being the main Lidder River flowing from the Kolahoi Glacier side. These streams meet at Pahalgam, which is at about 2130 m altitude. This confluence forms the Lidder River that continues through the Lidder Valley and eventually joins the Jhelum. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Kashmir Valley is bounded on the southwest by the Pir Panjal Range and on the northeast by the Great Himalayan Range. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct – the Kashmir Valley (the Vale of Kashmir) is a fertile valley through which the Jhelum River flows in a meandering course. The Jhelum is the main river draining the valley, collecting waters from various tributaries (such as the Lidder, Sind, etc.) before flowing out via the Baramulla gorge. Statement 2 is also correct. Pahalgam, a famous hill station in Anantnag district of J&K, lies at the confluence of two streams: one coming from Sheshnag Lake (along the route of the Amarnath Yatra) and the other being the main Lidder River flowing from the Kolahoi Glacier side. These streams meet at Pahalgam, which is at about 2130 m altitude. This confluence forms the Lidder River that continues through the Lidder Valley and eventually joins the Jhelum. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Kashmir Valley is bounded on the southwest by the Pir Panjal Range and on the northeast by the Great Himalayan Range.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Kashmir Valley is drained by the Jhelum River.

• Pahalgam is situated at the confluence of a stream from Sheshnag Lake and the Lidder River.

• The Pir Panjal Range lies to the northeast of the Kashmir Valley.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is correct – the Kashmir Valley (the Vale of Kashmir) is a fertile valley through which the Jhelum River flows in a meandering course. The Jhelum is the main river draining the valley, collecting waters from various tributaries (such as the Lidder, Sind, etc.) before flowing out via the Baramulla gorge.

• Statement 2 is also correct. Pahalgam, a famous hill station in Anantnag district of J&K, lies at the confluence of two streams: one coming from Sheshnag Lake (along the route of the Amarnath Yatra) and the other being the main Lidder River flowing from the Kolahoi Glacier side. These streams meet at Pahalgam, which is at about 2130 m altitude. This confluence forms the Lidder River that continues through the Lidder Valley and eventually joins the Jhelum.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Kashmir Valley is bounded on the southwest by the Pir Panjal Range and on the northeast by the Great Himalayan Range.

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Kashmir Valley is bounded on the southwest by the Pir Panjal Range and on the northeast by the Great Himalayan Range.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about the Sea of Marmara is/are correct? It is an inland sea located entirely within the territory of Turkey. It connects the Black Sea to the Aegean Sea through the Bosporus and Dardanelles straits. It lies along a major fault line, making the region prone to frequent earthquakes. It is one of the largest seas in the world by surface area. Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: a) The Sea of Marmara is a small inland sea entirely within Turkey. It serves as a connection between the Black Sea and the Aegean (Mediterranean) Sea: to its northeast, the Bosporus Strait links it to the Black Sea, and to its southwest, the Dardanelles Strait links it to the Aegean Sea. Geologically, Marmara lies on the North Anatolian Fault (NAF), a major active transform fault boundary between the Anatolian and Eurasian plates. As a result, this region experiences frequent earthquakes; in fact, the sea floor of Marmara is essentially an extension of this fault system, which has produced devastating quakes that have struck cities like Istanbul in the past. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Sea of Marmara is actually quite small in area (about 11,350 km²). It is nowhere near one of the largest seas. Marmara’s significance comes from its location, not size. Incorrect Solution: a) The Sea of Marmara is a small inland sea entirely within Turkey. It serves as a connection between the Black Sea and the Aegean (Mediterranean) Sea: to its northeast, the Bosporus Strait links it to the Black Sea, and to its southwest, the Dardanelles Strait links it to the Aegean Sea. Geologically, Marmara lies on the North Anatolian Fault (NAF), a major active transform fault boundary between the Anatolian and Eurasian plates. As a result, this region experiences frequent earthquakes; in fact, the sea floor of Marmara is essentially an extension of this fault system, which has produced devastating quakes that have struck cities like Istanbul in the past. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Sea of Marmara is actually quite small in area (about 11,350 km²). It is nowhere near one of the largest seas. Marmara’s significance comes from its location, not size.

#### 10. Question

Which of the following statements about the Sea of Marmara is/are correct?

• It is an inland sea located entirely within the territory of Turkey.

• It connects the Black Sea to the Aegean Sea through the Bosporus and Dardanelles straits.

• It lies along a major fault line, making the region prone to frequent earthquakes.

• It is one of the largest seas in the world by surface area.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: a)

• The Sea of Marmara is a small inland sea entirely within Turkey. It serves as a connection between the Black Sea and the Aegean (Mediterranean) Sea: to its northeast, the Bosporus Strait links it to the Black Sea, and to its southwest, the Dardanelles Strait links it to the Aegean Sea.

• Geologically, Marmara lies on the North Anatolian Fault (NAF), a major active transform fault boundary between the Anatolian and Eurasian plates. As a result, this region experiences frequent earthquakes; in fact, the sea floor of Marmara is essentially an extension of this fault system, which has produced devastating quakes that have struck cities like Istanbul in the past. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The Sea of Marmara is actually quite small in area (about 11,350 km²). It is nowhere near one of the largest seas. Marmara’s significance comes from its location, not size.

Solution: a)

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