UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 3 March 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA): The IAEA is a United Nations based organisation responsible for promoting the peaceful use of nuclear energy. The Additional Protocol of the IAEA allows for more stringent inspections of nuclear facilities to ensure peaceful use. India is not a member of the IAEA as it is not a signatory to the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT). How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A The IAEA is a UN-based international organization dedicated to promoting the peaceful use of nuclear energy (statement 1 is correct). It was established in 1957 as an autonomous organization within the United Nations system; though governed by its own founding treaty, the organization reports to both the General Assembly and the Security Council of the United Nations, and is headquartered at the UN Office at Vienna, Austria. The Additional Protocol allows the IAEA to conduct more intrusive inspections to ensure that nuclear materials are used for peaceful purposes (statement 2 is correct). However, despite India not being a signatory to the NPT, it is a member of the IAEA and works with the organization under its safeguards agreements (statement 3 is incorrect). Incorrect Solution: A The IAEA is a UN-based international organization dedicated to promoting the peaceful use of nuclear energy (statement 1 is correct). It was established in 1957 as an autonomous organization within the United Nations system; though governed by its own founding treaty, the organization reports to both the General Assembly and the Security Council of the United Nations, and is headquartered at the UN Office at Vienna, Austria. The Additional Protocol allows the IAEA to conduct more intrusive inspections to ensure that nuclear materials are used for peaceful purposes (statement 2 is correct). However, despite India not being a signatory to the NPT, it is a member of the IAEA and works with the organization under its safeguards agreements (statement 3 is incorrect).

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA):

• The IAEA is a United Nations based organisation responsible for promoting the peaceful use of nuclear energy.

• The Additional Protocol of the IAEA allows for more stringent inspections of nuclear facilities to ensure peaceful use.

• India is not a member of the IAEA as it is not a signatory to the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• The IAEA is a UN-based international organization dedicated to promoting the peaceful use of nuclear energy (statement 1 is correct).

• It was established in 1957 as an autonomous organization within the United Nations system; though governed by its own founding treaty, the organization reports to both the General Assembly and the Security Council of the United Nations, and is headquartered at the UN Office at Vienna, Austria.

• The Additional Protocol allows the IAEA to conduct more intrusive inspections to ensure that nuclear materials are used for peaceful purposes (statement 2 is correct).

• However, despite India not being a signatory to the NPT, it is a member of the IAEA and works with the organization under its safeguards agreements (statement 3 is incorrect).

Solution: A

• The IAEA is a UN-based international organization dedicated to promoting the peaceful use of nuclear energy (statement 1 is correct).

• The Additional Protocol allows the IAEA to conduct more intrusive inspections to ensure that nuclear materials are used for peaceful purposes (statement 2 is correct).

• However, despite India not being a signatory to the NPT, it is a member of the IAEA and works with the organization under its safeguards agreements (statement 3 is incorrect).

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Solar Radiation Management (SRM) and the use of diamond dust: SRM aims to reduce greenhouse gases in the atmosphere by increasing the amount of sunlight that reaches the Earth’s surface. Diamond dust is considered for SRM due to its low reflectivity and minimal effect on solar radiation. The Mount Pinatubo eruption is an example of natural SRM effects, where sulfur dioxide release led to a temporary cooling of the Earth’s surface. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A The Mount Pinatubo eruption in 1991 released vast amounts of sulfur dioxide, which created a reflective aerosol layer in the stratosphere. This layer temporarily cooled the Earth by approximately 0.5°C, demonstrating a natural form of SRM. Statement 1 is incorrect because SRM does not reduce greenhouse gases; instead, it aims to reduce the amount of heat reaching the Earth’s surface by reflecting sunlight back into space. Statement 2 is incorrect because diamond dust is considered for SRM due to its high reflectivity, making it highly effective at scattering solar radiation and potentially reducing global temperatures if dispersed in the stratosphere. This approach mimics volcanic cooling effects without altering atmospheric greenhouse gas levels. Incorrect Solution: A The Mount Pinatubo eruption in 1991 released vast amounts of sulfur dioxide, which created a reflective aerosol layer in the stratosphere. This layer temporarily cooled the Earth by approximately 0.5°C, demonstrating a natural form of SRM. Statement 1 is incorrect because SRM does not reduce greenhouse gases; instead, it aims to reduce the amount of heat reaching the Earth’s surface by reflecting sunlight back into space. Statement 2 is incorrect because diamond dust is considered for SRM due to its high reflectivity, making it highly effective at scattering solar radiation and potentially reducing global temperatures if dispersed in the stratosphere. This approach mimics volcanic cooling effects without altering atmospheric greenhouse gas levels.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Solar Radiation Management (SRM) and the use of diamond dust:

• SRM aims to reduce greenhouse gases in the atmosphere by increasing the amount of sunlight that reaches the Earth’s surface.

• Diamond dust is considered for SRM due to its low reflectivity and minimal effect on solar radiation.

• The Mount Pinatubo eruption is an example of natural SRM effects, where sulfur dioxide release led to a temporary cooling of the Earth’s surface.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

The Mount Pinatubo eruption in 1991 released vast amounts of sulfur dioxide, which created a reflective aerosol layer in the stratosphere. This layer temporarily cooled the Earth by approximately 0.5°C, demonstrating a natural form of SRM.

Statement 1 is incorrect because SRM does not reduce greenhouse gases; instead, it aims to reduce the amount of heat reaching the Earth’s surface by reflecting sunlight back into space.

Statement 2 is incorrect because diamond dust is considered for SRM due to its high reflectivity, making it highly effective at scattering solar radiation and potentially reducing global temperatures if dispersed in the stratosphere. This approach mimics volcanic cooling effects without altering atmospheric greenhouse gas levels.

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect because SRM does not reduce greenhouse gases; instead, it aims to reduce the amount of heat reaching the Earth’s surface by reflecting sunlight back into space.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the distribution and lifestyle of the Indian flapshell turtle: The Indian flapshell turtle is found across South Asia, including countries like Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and Bangladesh. This species is omnivorous, feeding on a variety of plants, insects, and small animals. It is well adapted to drought conditions and can survive in low-water environments. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The Indian flapshell turtle has a wide distribution across South Asia, including India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bangladesh, and Myanmar. Statement 2 is correct. The species is omnivorous, consuming plants, insects, small fish, and other small animals. Statement 3 is correct. The Indian flapshell turtle has evolved to survive in drought-prone areas and can live in low-water or even dried-out conditions. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The Indian flapshell turtle has a wide distribution across South Asia, including India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bangladesh, and Myanmar. Statement 2 is correct. The species is omnivorous, consuming plants, insects, small fish, and other small animals. Statement 3 is correct. The Indian flapshell turtle has evolved to survive in drought-prone areas and can live in low-water or even dried-out conditions.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the distribution and lifestyle of the Indian flapshell turtle:

• The Indian flapshell turtle is found across South Asia, including countries like Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and Bangladesh.

• This species is omnivorous, feeding on a variety of plants, insects, and small animals.

• It is well adapted to drought conditions and can survive in low-water environments.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

Statement 1 is correct. The Indian flapshell turtle has a wide distribution across South Asia, including India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bangladesh, and Myanmar.

Statement 2 is correct. The species is omnivorous, consuming plants, insects, small fish, and other small animals.

Statement 3 is correct. The Indian flapshell turtle has evolved to survive in drought-prone areas and can live in low-water or even dried-out conditions.

Solution: D

Statement 1 is correct. The Indian flapshell turtle has a wide distribution across South Asia, including India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bangladesh, and Myanmar.

Statement 2 is correct. The species is omnivorous, consuming plants, insects, small fish, and other small animals.

Statement 3 is correct. The Indian flapshell turtle has evolved to survive in drought-prone areas and can live in low-water or even dried-out conditions.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Match the following movements with their corresponding leaders or key contributions of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: Movements Contributions by Sardar Patel A. Kheda Satyagraha 1. Mobilized significant funds for Khadi promotion B. Bardoli Satyagraha 2. Gained the title “Sardar” for successful leadership C. Quit India Movement 3. Called for mass protests against British Salt Laws D. Non-Cooperation Movement 4. Supported farmers during a famine against tax collection Select the correct match: (a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 (c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (d) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 Correct Solution: D In the Kheda Satyagraha (A-4), Patel led the protest against tax collection from farmers suffering from a famine. The Bardoli Satyagraha (B-2) was where Patel earned the title “Sardar” after successfully opposing unfair revenue assessments. During the Quit India Movement (C-3), he called for extensive protests, showing his commitment to independence. In the Non-Cooperation Movement (D-1), he played a crucial role by mobilizing people, funds, and promoting Khadi, underscoring his support for economic self-reliance and resistance to British goods. Incorrect Solution: D In the Kheda Satyagraha (A-4), Patel led the protest against tax collection from farmers suffering from a famine. The Bardoli Satyagraha (B-2) was where Patel earned the title “Sardar” after successfully opposing unfair revenue assessments. During the Quit India Movement (C-3), he called for extensive protests, showing his commitment to independence. In the Non-Cooperation Movement (D-1), he played a crucial role by mobilizing people, funds, and promoting Khadi, underscoring his support for economic self-reliance and resistance to British goods.

#### 4. Question

Match the following movements with their corresponding leaders or key contributions of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:

Movements | Contributions by Sardar Patel

A. Kheda Satyagraha | 1. Mobilized significant funds for Khadi promotion

B. Bardoli Satyagraha | 2. Gained the title “Sardar” for successful leadership

C. Quit India Movement | 3. Called for mass protests against British Salt Laws

D. Non-Cooperation Movement | 4. Supported farmers during a famine against tax collection

Select the correct match:

• (a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

• (b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

• (c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

• (d) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

Solution: D

• In the Kheda Satyagraha (A-4), Patel led the protest against tax collection from farmers suffering from a famine.

• The Bardoli Satyagraha (B-2) was where Patel earned the title “Sardar” after successfully opposing unfair revenue assessments.

• During the Quit India Movement (C-3), he called for extensive protests, showing his commitment to independence.

• In the Non-Cooperation Movement (D-1), he played a crucial role by mobilizing people, funds, and promoting Khadi, underscoring his support for economic self-reliance and resistance to British goods.

Solution: D

• In the Kheda Satyagraha (A-4), Patel led the protest against tax collection from farmers suffering from a famine.

• The Bardoli Satyagraha (B-2) was where Patel earned the title “Sardar” after successfully opposing unfair revenue assessments.

• During the Quit India Movement (C-3), he called for extensive protests, showing his commitment to independence.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the conservation status and threats to the Great Indian Bustard: The Great Indian Bustard is listed under Appendix II of CITES. The primary threats to its survival include habitat destruction, power line collisions, and human interference. It is included under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, in India. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Great Indian Bustard is listed under Appendix I of CITES, which provides the highest level of protection for endangered species in international trade. Statement 2 is correct. Major threats to the Great Indian Bustard include habitat destruction, collisions with power lines, and human interference, all of which have drastically reduced its population. Statement 3 is incorrect. The species is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which ensures maximum protection under Indian law. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Great Indian Bustard is listed under Appendix I of CITES, which provides the highest level of protection for endangered species in international trade. Statement 2 is correct. Major threats to the Great Indian Bustard include habitat destruction, collisions with power lines, and human interference, all of which have drastically reduced its population. Statement 3 is incorrect. The species is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which ensures maximum protection under Indian law.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the conservation status and threats to the Great Indian Bustard:

• The Great Indian Bustard is listed under Appendix II of CITES.

• The primary threats to its survival include habitat destruction, power line collisions, and human interference.

• It is included under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, in India.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Great Indian Bustard is listed under Appendix I of CITES, which provides the highest level of protection for endangered species in international trade.

Statement 2 is correct. Major threats to the Great Indian Bustard include habitat destruction, collisions with power lines, and human interference, all of which have drastically reduced its population.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The species is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which ensures maximum protection under Indian law.

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Great Indian Bustard is listed under Appendix I of CITES, which provides the highest level of protection for endangered species in international trade.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The species is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which ensures maximum protection under Indian law.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI) and Cirrus Cloud Thinning (CCT): Both SAI and CCT target shortwave solar radiation to mitigate global warming. SAI involves dispersing reflective aerosols in the troposphere, while CCT focuses on reducing the amount of longwave radiation emitted by cirrus clouds. Both techniques aim to increase the Earth’s albedo to reduce the amount of heat absorbed by the surface. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Both Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI) and Cirrus Cloud Thinning (CCT) are aimed at increasing the Earth’s albedo. SAI focuses on reflecting shortwave solar radiation by injecting reflective aerosols like sulfur dioxide into the stratosphere. CCT, on the other hand, aims to reduce cirrus clouds’ thickness and cover to allow more longwave radiation to escape into space, thus reducing the greenhouse effect. Statement 1 is incorrect because while SAI targets shortwave solar radiation, CCT focuses on longwave radiation emitted by cirrus clouds. Statement 2 is incorrect because SAI targets the stratosphere, not the troposphere, and CCT reduces the greenhouse effect by affecting longwave radiation, not shortwave solar radiation. Incorrect Solution: B Both Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI) and Cirrus Cloud Thinning (CCT) are aimed at increasing the Earth’s albedo. SAI focuses on reflecting shortwave solar radiation by injecting reflective aerosols like sulfur dioxide into the stratosphere. CCT, on the other hand, aims to reduce cirrus clouds’ thickness and cover to allow more longwave radiation to escape into space, thus reducing the greenhouse effect. Statement 1 is incorrect because while SAI targets shortwave solar radiation, CCT focuses on longwave radiation emitted by cirrus clouds. Statement 2 is incorrect because SAI targets the stratosphere, not the troposphere, and CCT reduces the greenhouse effect by affecting longwave radiation, not shortwave solar radiation.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI) and Cirrus Cloud Thinning (CCT):

• Both SAI and CCT target shortwave solar radiation to mitigate global warming.

• SAI involves dispersing reflective aerosols in the troposphere, while CCT focuses on reducing the amount of longwave radiation emitted by cirrus clouds.

• Both techniques aim to increase the Earth’s albedo to reduce the amount of heat absorbed by the surface.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Both Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI) and Cirrus Cloud Thinning (CCT) are aimed at increasing the Earth’s albedo. SAI focuses on reflecting shortwave solar radiation by injecting reflective aerosols like sulfur dioxide into the stratosphere. CCT, on the other hand, aims to reduce cirrus clouds’ thickness and cover to allow more longwave radiation to escape into space, thus reducing the greenhouse effect.

Statement 1 is incorrect because while SAI targets shortwave solar radiation, CCT focuses on longwave radiation emitted by cirrus clouds.

Statement 2 is incorrect because SAI targets the stratosphere, not the troposphere, and CCT reduces the greenhouse effect by affecting longwave radiation, not shortwave solar radiation.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect because while SAI targets shortwave solar radiation, CCT focuses on longwave radiation emitted by cirrus clouds.

Statement 2 is incorrect because SAI targets the stratosphere, not the troposphere, and CCT reduces the greenhouse effect by affecting longwave radiation, not shortwave solar radiation.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the composition and formation of coking coal: Coking coal has high sulphur and phosphorus levels, making it ideal for steel production. It is formed from the carbonization process, which produces metallurgical coke at high temperatures. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Statement 2 is correct: Coking coal undergoes a carbonization process at high temperatures to produce metallurgical coke, which is crucial for steel production. Statement 1 is incorrect. Coking coal must have low sulphur and phosphorus levels to avoid contamination in steel production, and a high, not low, carbon content is essential to provide the required strength and efficiency in the blast furnace process. These factors underline the significance of specific chemical and physical properties of coking coal in its role within the steel industry. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 2 is correct: Coking coal undergoes a carbonization process at high temperatures to produce metallurgical coke, which is crucial for steel production. Statement 1 is incorrect. Coking coal must have low sulphur and phosphorus levels to avoid contamination in steel production, and a high, not low, carbon content is essential to provide the required strength and efficiency in the blast furnace process. These factors underline the significance of specific chemical and physical properties of coking coal in its role within the steel industry.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about the composition and formation of coking coal:

• Coking coal has high sulphur and phosphorus levels, making it ideal for steel production.

• It is formed from the carbonization process, which produces metallurgical coke at high temperatures.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Statement 2 is correct: Coking coal undergoes a carbonization process at high temperatures to produce metallurgical coke, which is crucial for steel production.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Coking coal must have low sulphur and phosphorus levels to avoid contamination in steel production, and a high, not low, carbon content is essential to provide the required strength and efficiency in the blast furnace process. These factors underline the significance of specific chemical and physical properties of coking coal in its role within the steel industry.

Solution: B

Statement 2 is correct: Coking coal undergoes a carbonization process at high temperatures to produce metallurgical coke, which is crucial for steel production.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding protections and legal recourse for victims of Digital Arrest Scams in India: The Information Technology Act, 2000, punishes cheating by impersonation through electronic means. Victims can report incidents on the National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal or call the cybercrime helpline. Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) actively blocks accounts linked to digital arrest scams. Cyber awareness platforms like “Cyberdost” offer real-time legal aid to scam victims. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: C Digital arrest scams in India are addressed under Section 66D of the Information Technology Act, 2000, which penalizes acts of impersonation through digital mediums, making statement 1 correct. Victims have resources such as the National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal and the helpline (1930) to report incidents, as stated in statement 2. The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) also plays a proactive role in blocking accounts associated with scams, including accounts on communication platforms like Skype used by scammers, making statement 3 correct. Statement 4 is incorrect, however, as the “Cyberdost” platform focuses on awareness and prevention tips, not real-time legal aid. It educates the public on common cyber threats, providing preventive measures rather than direct legal support. Incorrect Solution: C Digital arrest scams in India are addressed under Section 66D of the Information Technology Act, 2000, which penalizes acts of impersonation through digital mediums, making statement 1 correct. Victims have resources such as the National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal and the helpline (1930) to report incidents, as stated in statement 2. The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) also plays a proactive role in blocking accounts associated with scams, including accounts on communication platforms like Skype used by scammers, making statement 3 correct. Statement 4 is incorrect, however, as the “Cyberdost” platform focuses on awareness and prevention tips, not real-time legal aid. It educates the public on common cyber threats, providing preventive measures rather than direct legal support.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding protections and legal recourse for victims of Digital Arrest Scams in India:

• The Information Technology Act, 2000, punishes cheating by impersonation through electronic means.

• Victims can report incidents on the National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal or call the cybercrime helpline.

• Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) actively blocks accounts linked to digital arrest scams.

• Cyber awareness platforms like “Cyberdost” offer real-time legal aid to scam victims.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: C

• Digital arrest scams in India are addressed under Section 66D of the Information Technology Act, 2000, which penalizes acts of impersonation through digital mediums, making statement 1 correct.

• Victims have resources such as the National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal and the helpline (1930) to report incidents, as stated in statement 2.

• The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) also plays a proactive role in blocking accounts associated with scams, including accounts on communication platforms like Skype used by scammers, making statement 3 correct.

• Statement 4 is incorrect, however, as the “Cyberdost” platform focuses on awareness and prevention tips, not real-time legal aid. It educates the public on common cyber threats, providing preventive measures rather than direct legal support.

Solution: C

• Victims have resources such as the National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal and the helpline (1930) to report incidents, as stated in statement 2.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Gallium and germanium? Both minerals are crucial for the production of semiconductors and solar cells. Gallium is known for its application in defense sectors, particularly in missile guidance systems. Germanium plays a vital role in fiber-optic systems and infrared technology. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Gallium and germanium are important for producing semiconductors and solar cells. Germanium is also used in fiber-optic systems and infrared technology. However, gallium’s primary role is not in defense sectors like missile guidance systems, making statement 2 incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B Gallium and germanium are important for producing semiconductors and solar cells. Germanium is also used in fiber-optic systems and infrared technology. However, gallium’s primary role is not in defense sectors like missile guidance systems, making statement 2 incorrect.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Gallium and germanium?

• Both minerals are crucial for the production of semiconductors and solar cells.

• Gallium is known for its application in defense sectors, particularly in missile guidance systems.

• Germanium plays a vital role in fiber-optic systems and infrared technology.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

Gallium and germanium are important for producing semiconductors and solar cells. Germanium is also used in fiber-optic systems and infrared technology. However, gallium’s primary role is not in defense sectors like missile guidance systems, making statement 2 incorrect.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding regarding the Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS) under PM-AASHA? Farmers are compensated when market prices fall below the MSP. It involves procurement of crops by the government to stabilize market prices. The scheme applies to non-MSP crops as well. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS), under the Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA), compensates farmers when the market price of their produce falls below the Minimum Support Price (MSP). This ensures that farmers receive financial assistance to make up for the difference between the MSP and the market price, making statement 1 correct. However, unlike other schemes such as the Price Support Scheme (PSS), PDPS does not involve the procurement of crops by the government to stabilize market prices. Instead, the focus is on compensating farmers for price shortfalls, making statement 2 incorrect. The PDPS is limited to crops covered under the MSP, meaning it does not apply to non-MSP crops, making statement 3 incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A The Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS), under the Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA), compensates farmers when the market price of their produce falls below the Minimum Support Price (MSP). This ensures that farmers receive financial assistance to make up for the difference between the MSP and the market price, making statement 1 correct. However, unlike other schemes such as the Price Support Scheme (PSS), PDPS does not involve the procurement of crops by the government to stabilize market prices. Instead, the focus is on compensating farmers for price shortfalls, making statement 2 incorrect. The PDPS is limited to crops covered under the MSP, meaning it does not apply to non-MSP crops, making statement 3 incorrect.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding regarding the Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS) under PM-AASHA?

• Farmers are compensated when market prices fall below the MSP.

• It involves procurement of crops by the government to stabilize market prices.

• The scheme applies to non-MSP crops as well.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

The Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS), under the Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA), compensates farmers when the market price of their produce falls below the Minimum Support Price (MSP). This ensures that farmers receive financial assistance to make up for the difference between the MSP and the market price, making statement 1 correct.

However, unlike other schemes such as the Price Support Scheme (PSS), PDPS does not involve the procurement of crops by the government to stabilize market prices. Instead, the focus is on compensating farmers for price shortfalls, making statement 2 incorrect.

The PDPS is limited to crops covered under the MSP, meaning it does not apply to non-MSP crops, making statement 3 incorrect.

Solution: A

The PDPS is limited to crops covered under the MSP, meaning it does not apply to non-MSP crops, making statement 3 incorrect.

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