UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 3 June 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Shirui Lily: The Shirui Lily is endemic to the entire Himalayan range, found across multiple states. The flower holds cultural significance for the Tangkhul Naga tribe. Its conservation status is ‘Least Concern’ due to successful widespread cultivation efforts. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Shirui Lily is endemic to a narrow altitudinal range in the Shirui Hills of Ukhrul District, Manipur, at an elevation of around 2,673 m. It is not found across the entire Himalayan range. Statement 2 is correct. The Shirui Lily, locally known as Kashong Timrawon, is deeply embedded in the culture of the Tangkhul Naga tribe. It is considered a spiritual and ecological emblem and is believed to be protected by the mythic deity Philava. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Shirui Lily is an endangered species. Its habitat is threatened by factors such as habitat loss, climate change, and the spread of invasive species. About Shirui Lily Festival: What is the Shirui Lily Festival? Organised by: Manipur Tourism Department First Held: 2017 Venue: Ukhrul district, home to the Tangkhul Naga tribe Occasion: Coincides with the blooming season of the Shirui Lily in May Objective: Promote eco-tourism and raise awareness about the endangered lily species Key Features of the Festival: Cultural Programs: Traditional dances, music, and folk performances. Eco-Initiatives: Trash collection drives and awareness campaigns. Competitions: Cooking contests, beauty pageants, and sports events. Duration: Held from May 20 to May 25 annually during bloom season. About Shirui Lily (Lilium mackliniae): What is the Shirui Lily? Botanical Name: Lilium mackliniae, named by botanist Frank Kingdon-Ward after his wife Jean Macklin Local Name: Kashong Timrawon Found In: Shirui Hills, Ukhrul District, Manipur at 2,673 m elevation Discovery: Identified in 1946, though locally known for centuries Features & Significance: Unique Habitat: Endemic to a narrow altitudinal range in Shirui Hill range. Conservation Status: Endangered due to habitat loss, climate change, and invasive species. Cultural Symbolism: Protected by mythic deity Philava, spiritual and ecological emblem of the Tangkhul community. State Flower: Recognised as the official state flower of Manipur. Scientific Efforts: ICAR-NEH scientists led by Dr. Manas Sahoo undertook lab-to-land micropropagation to conserve the species. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Shirui Lily is endemic to a narrow altitudinal range in the Shirui Hills of Ukhrul District, Manipur, at an elevation of around 2,673 m. It is not found across the entire Himalayan range. Statement 2 is correct. The Shirui Lily, locally known as Kashong Timrawon, is deeply embedded in the culture of the Tangkhul Naga tribe. It is considered a spiritual and ecological emblem and is believed to be protected by the mythic deity Philava. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Shirui Lily is an endangered species. Its habitat is threatened by factors such as habitat loss, climate change, and the spread of invasive species. About Shirui Lily Festival: What is the Shirui Lily Festival? Organised by: Manipur Tourism Department First Held: 2017 Venue: Ukhrul district, home to the Tangkhul Naga tribe Occasion: Coincides with the blooming season of the Shirui Lily in May Objective: Promote eco-tourism and raise awareness about the endangered lily species Key Features of the Festival: Cultural Programs: Traditional dances, music, and folk performances. Eco-Initiatives: Trash collection drives and awareness campaigns. Competitions: Cooking contests, beauty pageants, and sports events. Duration: Held from May 20 to May 25 annually during bloom season. About Shirui Lily (Lilium mackliniae): What is the Shirui Lily? Botanical Name: Lilium mackliniae, named by botanist Frank Kingdon-Ward after his wife Jean Macklin Local Name: Kashong Timrawon Found In: Shirui Hills, Ukhrul District, Manipur at 2,673 m elevation Discovery: Identified in 1946, though locally known for centuries Features & Significance: Unique Habitat: Endemic to a narrow altitudinal range in Shirui Hill range. Conservation Status: Endangered due to habitat loss, climate change, and invasive species. Cultural Symbolism: Protected by mythic deity Philava, spiritual and ecological emblem of the Tangkhul community. State Flower: Recognised as the official state flower of Manipur. Scientific Efforts: ICAR-NEH scientists led by Dr. Manas Sahoo undertook lab-to-land micropropagation to conserve the species.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Shirui Lily:

• The Shirui Lily is endemic to the entire Himalayan range, found across multiple states.

• The flower holds cultural significance for the Tangkhul Naga tribe.

• Its conservation status is ‘Least Concern’ due to successful widespread cultivation efforts.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Shirui Lily is endemic to a narrow altitudinal range in the Shirui Hills of Ukhrul District, Manipur, at an elevation of around 2,673 m. It is not found across the entire Himalayan range.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Shirui Lily, locally known as Kashong Timrawon, is deeply embedded in the culture of the Tangkhul Naga tribe. It is considered a spiritual and ecological emblem and is believed to be protected by the mythic deity Philava.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Shirui Lily is an endangered species. Its habitat is threatened by factors such as habitat loss, climate change, and the spread of invasive species.

About Shirui Lily Festival:

• What is the Shirui Lily Festival?

• Organised by: Manipur Tourism Department First Held: 2017 Venue: Ukhrul district, home to the Tangkhul Naga tribe Occasion: Coincides with the blooming season of the Shirui Lily in May Objective: Promote eco-tourism and raise awareness about the endangered lily species

• Organised by: Manipur Tourism Department

• First Held: 2017

• Venue: Ukhrul district, home to the Tangkhul Naga tribe

• Occasion: Coincides with the blooming season of the Shirui Lily in May

• Objective: Promote eco-tourism and raise awareness about the endangered lily species

• Key Features of the Festival:

• Cultural Programs: Traditional dances, music, and folk performances. Eco-Initiatives: Trash collection drives and awareness campaigns. Competitions: Cooking contests, beauty pageants, and sports events. Duration: Held from May 20 to May 25 annually during bloom season.

• Cultural Programs: Traditional dances, music, and folk performances.

• Eco-Initiatives: Trash collection drives and awareness campaigns.

• Competitions: Cooking contests, beauty pageants, and sports events.

• Duration: Held from May 20 to May 25 annually during bloom season.

About Shirui Lily (Lilium mackliniae):

• What is the Shirui Lily?

• Botanical Name: Lilium mackliniae, named by botanist Frank Kingdon-Ward after his wife Jean Macklin

• Local Name: Kashong Timrawon

• Found In: Shirui Hills, Ukhrul District, Manipur at 2,673 m elevation

• Discovery: Identified in 1946, though locally known for centuries

• Features & Significance:

• Unique Habitat: Endemic to a narrow altitudinal range in Shirui Hill range. Conservation Status: Endangered due to habitat loss, climate change, and invasive species. Cultural Symbolism: Protected by mythic deity Philava, spiritual and ecological emblem of the Tangkhul community. State Flower: Recognised as the official state flower of Manipur. Scientific Efforts: ICAR-NEH scientists led by Dr. Manas Sahoo undertook lab-to-land micropropagation to conserve the species.

• Unique Habitat: Endemic to a narrow altitudinal range in Shirui Hill range.

• Conservation Status: Endangered due to habitat loss, climate change, and invasive species.

• Cultural Symbolism: Protected by mythic deity Philava, spiritual and ecological emblem of the Tangkhul community.

• State Flower: Recognised as the official state flower of Manipur.

• Scientific Efforts: ICAR-NEH scientists led by Dr. Manas Sahoo undertook lab-to-land micropropagation to conserve the species.

Solution: b)

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Shirui Lily is an endangered species. Its habitat is threatened by factors such as habitat loss, climate change, and the spread of invasive species.

About Shirui Lily Festival:

• What is the Shirui Lily Festival?

• Organised by: Manipur Tourism Department

• First Held: 2017

• Venue: Ukhrul district, home to the Tangkhul Naga tribe

• Occasion: Coincides with the blooming season of the Shirui Lily in May

• Objective: Promote eco-tourism and raise awareness about the endangered lily species

• Key Features of the Festival:

• Cultural Programs: Traditional dances, music, and folk performances.

• Eco-Initiatives: Trash collection drives and awareness campaigns.

• Competitions: Cooking contests, beauty pageants, and sports events.

• Duration: Held from May 20 to May 25 annually during bloom season.

About Shirui Lily (Lilium mackliniae):

• What is the Shirui Lily?

• Botanical Name: Lilium mackliniae, named by botanist Frank Kingdon-Ward after his wife Jean Macklin

• Local Name: Kashong Timrawon

• Found In: Shirui Hills, Ukhrul District, Manipur at 2,673 m elevation

• Discovery: Identified in 1946, though locally known for centuries

• Features & Significance:

• Unique Habitat: Endemic to a narrow altitudinal range in Shirui Hill range.

• Conservation Status: Endangered due to habitat loss, climate change, and invasive species.

• Cultural Symbolism: Protected by mythic deity Philava, spiritual and ecological emblem of the Tangkhul community.

• State Flower: Recognised as the official state flower of Manipur.

• Scientific Efforts: ICAR-NEH scientists led by Dr. Manas Sahoo undertook lab-to-land micropropagation to conserve the species.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Prostate Cancer: Prostate cancer exclusively affects men over the age of 70 and is extremely rare before this age. The primary cause of prostate cancer is viral infections, similar to cervical cancer. India has the highest global incidence and mortality rate for prostate cancer, surpassing all other nations. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. While the risk of prostate cancer increases sharply after age 50, and it is most common in older men, it does not exclusively affect men over 70, nor is it extremely rare before this age. Cases can and do occur in men in their 50s and 60s. Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary causes and risk factors for prostate cancer are not viral infections. Key risk factors include age, family history, genetics (e.g., BRCA1/2 mutations, Lynch syndrome), race (higher risk in men of African ancestry), and diet & lifestyle (high intake of red meat, fats, sedentary habits). Viral infections are not identified as a primary cause. Statement 3 is incorrect. Globally, prostate cancer is the 2nd most diagnosed cancer in men. While India has a rising incidence, particularly in urban areas, and it ranks among the top 10 cancers in men in the country (with 37,948 new cases and 18,386 deaths in 2022 according to GLOBOCAN), it does not have the highest global incidence or mortality rate. Many Western countries have higher incidence rates. What is Prostate Cancer? Prostate cancer arises in the prostate gland, a small organ in men that produces seminal fluid. It is one of the most common cancers in men, particularly after age 50. Global and Indian Scenario: Globally: Prostate cancer is the 2nd most diagnosed cancer in men with over 1.4 million new cases and nearly 400,000 deaths in 2022 (GLOBOCAN). India: It ranks among the top 10 cancers in men, with 37,948 new cases and 18,386 deaths in 2022, and rising incidence in urban areas. Causes and Risk Factors: Age: Risk increases sharply after age 50. Family History: A close relative with prostate cancer doubles one’s risk. Genetics: BRCA1/2 mutations and Lynch syndrome increase vulnerability. Race: Men of African ancestry have higher risk and severity. Diet & Lifestyle: High intake of red meat, fats, and sedentary habits contribute. Common Symptoms of Prostate Cancer: Frequent or painful urination: Indicates urinary tract irritation due to prostate enlargement or tumor pressure. Weak urine flow or dribbling: Caused by blockage in the urethra due to prostate gland swelling. Erectile dysfunction: Tumor or treatment may impair nerves or blood vessels linked to erection. Blood in urine or semen: A sign of inflammation, prostate damage, or tumor-related bleeding. Bone pain (in advanced stages): Metastatic cancer often spreads to bones, causing persistent pain. Diagnosis Methods: PSA Blood Test: Detects elevated prostate-specific antigen, often a marker of cancer presence. Digital Rectal Exam (DRE): A doctor manually examines the prostate for lumps or hardness. Biopsy: Tissue samples from the prostate confirm cancer by microscopic analysis. Imaging (MRI/Bone Scans): Helps determine how far the cancer has spread within the body. Treatment Options: Active Surveillance: Regular monitoring without immediate treatment for low-risk cancers. Surgery (Prostatectomy): Surgical removal of the prostate to eliminate localized cancer. Radiation Therapy: Targets and destroys cancer cells using focused radiation beams. Hormone Therapy: Lowers testosterone levels to slow or stop cancer cell growth. Chemotherapy & Immunotherapy: Used when cancer is advanced or unresponsive to other treatments. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. While the risk of prostate cancer increases sharply after age 50, and it is most common in older men, it does not exclusively affect men over 70, nor is it extremely rare before this age. Cases can and do occur in men in their 50s and 60s. Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary causes and risk factors for prostate cancer are not viral infections. Key risk factors include age, family history, genetics (e.g., BRCA1/2 mutations, Lynch syndrome), race (higher risk in men of African ancestry), and diet & lifestyle (high intake of red meat, fats, sedentary habits). Viral infections are not identified as a primary cause. Statement 3 is incorrect. Globally, prostate cancer is the 2nd most diagnosed cancer in men. While India has a rising incidence, particularly in urban areas, and it ranks among the top 10 cancers in men in the country (with 37,948 new cases and 18,386 deaths in 2022 according to GLOBOCAN), it does not have the highest global incidence or mortality rate. Many Western countries have higher incidence rates. What is Prostate Cancer? Prostate cancer arises in the prostate gland, a small organ in men that produces seminal fluid. It is one of the most common cancers in men, particularly after age 50. Global and Indian Scenario: Globally: Prostate cancer is the 2nd most diagnosed cancer in men with over 1.4 million new cases and nearly 400,000 deaths in 2022 (GLOBOCAN). India: It ranks among the top 10 cancers in men, with 37,948 new cases and 18,386 deaths in 2022, and rising incidence in urban areas. Causes and Risk Factors: Age: Risk increases sharply after age 50. Family History: A close relative with prostate cancer doubles one’s risk. Genetics: BRCA1/2 mutations and Lynch syndrome increase vulnerability. Race: Men of African ancestry have higher risk and severity. Diet & Lifestyle: High intake of red meat, fats, and sedentary habits contribute. Common Symptoms of Prostate Cancer: Frequent or painful urination: Indicates urinary tract irritation due to prostate enlargement or tumor pressure. Weak urine flow or dribbling: Caused by blockage in the urethra due to prostate gland swelling. Erectile dysfunction: Tumor or treatment may impair nerves or blood vessels linked to erection. Blood in urine or semen: A sign of inflammation, prostate damage, or tumor-related bleeding. Bone pain (in advanced stages): Metastatic cancer often spreads to bones, causing persistent pain. Diagnosis Methods: PSA Blood Test: Detects elevated prostate-specific antigen, often a marker of cancer presence. Digital Rectal Exam (DRE): A doctor manually examines the prostate for lumps or hardness. Biopsy: Tissue samples from the prostate confirm cancer by microscopic analysis. Imaging (MRI/Bone Scans): Helps determine how far the cancer has spread within the body. Treatment Options: Active Surveillance: Regular monitoring without immediate treatment for low-risk cancers. Surgery (Prostatectomy): Surgical removal of the prostate to eliminate localized cancer. Radiation Therapy: Targets and destroys cancer cells using focused radiation beams. Hormone Therapy: Lowers testosterone levels to slow or stop cancer cell growth. Chemotherapy & Immunotherapy: Used when cancer is advanced or unresponsive to other treatments.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Prostate Cancer:

• Prostate cancer exclusively affects men over the age of 70 and is extremely rare before this age.

• The primary cause of prostate cancer is viral infections, similar to cervical cancer.

• India has the highest global incidence and mortality rate for prostate cancer, surpassing all other nations.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the risk of prostate cancer increases sharply after age 50, and it is most common in older men, it does not exclusively affect men over 70, nor is it extremely rare before this age. Cases can and do occur in men in their 50s and 60s.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary causes and risk factors for prostate cancer are not viral infections. Key risk factors include age, family history, genetics (e.g., BRCA1/2 mutations, Lynch syndrome), race (higher risk in men of African ancestry), and diet & lifestyle (high intake of red meat, fats, sedentary habits). Viral infections are not identified as a primary cause.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Globally, prostate cancer is the 2nd most diagnosed cancer in men. While India has a rising incidence, particularly in urban areas, and it ranks among the top 10 cancers in men in the country (with 37,948 new cases and 18,386 deaths in 2022 according to GLOBOCAN), it does not have the highest global incidence or mortality rate. Many Western countries have higher incidence rates.

• What is Prostate Cancer?

• Prostate cancer arises in the prostate gland, a small organ in men that produces seminal fluid. It is one of the most common cancers in men, particularly after age 50.

• Prostate cancer arises in the prostate gland, a small organ in men that produces seminal fluid.

• It is one of the most common cancers in men, particularly after age 50.

• Global and Indian Scenario:

• Globally: Prostate cancer is the 2nd most diagnosed cancer in men with over 1.4 million new cases and nearly 400,000 deaths in 2022 (GLOBOCAN). India: It ranks among the top 10 cancers in men, with 37,948 new cases and 18,386 deaths in 2022, and rising incidence in urban areas.

• Globally: Prostate cancer is the 2nd most diagnosed cancer in men with over 1.4 million new cases and nearly 400,000 deaths in 2022 (GLOBOCAN).

• India: It ranks among the top 10 cancers in men, with 37,948 new cases and 18,386 deaths in 2022, and rising incidence in urban areas.

• Causes and Risk Factors:

• Age: Risk increases sharply after age 50. Family History: A close relative with prostate cancer doubles one’s risk. Genetics: BRCA1/2 mutations and Lynch syndrome increase vulnerability. Race: Men of African ancestry have higher risk and severity. Diet & Lifestyle: High intake of red meat, fats, and sedentary habits contribute.

• Age: Risk increases sharply after age 50.

• Family History: A close relative with prostate cancer doubles one’s risk.

• Genetics: BRCA1/2 mutations and Lynch syndrome increase vulnerability.

• Race: Men of African ancestry have higher risk and severity.

• Diet & Lifestyle: High intake of red meat, fats, and sedentary habits contribute.

• Common Symptoms of Prostate Cancer:

• Frequent or painful urination: Indicates urinary tract irritation due to prostate enlargement or tumor pressure. Weak urine flow or dribbling: Caused by blockage in the urethra due to prostate gland swelling. Erectile dysfunction: Tumor or treatment may impair nerves or blood vessels linked to erection. Blood in urine or semen: A sign of inflammation, prostate damage, or tumor-related bleeding. Bone pain (in advanced stages): Metastatic cancer often spreads to bones, causing persistent pain.

• Frequent or painful urination: Indicates urinary tract irritation due to prostate enlargement or tumor pressure.

• Weak urine flow or dribbling: Caused by blockage in the urethra due to prostate gland swelling.

• Erectile dysfunction: Tumor or treatment may impair nerves or blood vessels linked to erection.

• Blood in urine or semen: A sign of inflammation, prostate damage, or tumor-related bleeding.

• Bone pain (in advanced stages): Metastatic cancer often spreads to bones, causing persistent pain.

• Diagnosis Methods:

• PSA Blood Test: Detects elevated prostate-specific antigen, often a marker of cancer presence. Digital Rectal Exam (DRE): A doctor manually examines the prostate for lumps or hardness. Biopsy: Tissue samples from the prostate confirm cancer by microscopic analysis. Imaging (MRI/Bone Scans): Helps determine how far the cancer has spread within the body.

• PSA Blood Test: Detects elevated prostate-specific antigen, often a marker of cancer presence.

• Digital Rectal Exam (DRE): A doctor manually examines the prostate for lumps or hardness.

• Biopsy: Tissue samples from the prostate confirm cancer by microscopic analysis.

• Imaging (MRI/Bone Scans): Helps determine how far the cancer has spread within the body.

• Treatment Options:

• Active Surveillance: Regular monitoring without immediate treatment for low-risk cancers. Surgery (Prostatectomy): Surgical removal of the prostate to eliminate localized cancer. Radiation Therapy: Targets and destroys cancer cells using focused radiation beams. Hormone Therapy: Lowers testosterone levels to slow or stop cancer cell growth. Chemotherapy & Immunotherapy: Used when cancer is advanced or unresponsive to other treatments.

• Active Surveillance: Regular monitoring without immediate treatment for low-risk cancers.

• Surgery (Prostatectomy): Surgical removal of the prostate to eliminate localized cancer.

• Radiation Therapy: Targets and destroys cancer cells using focused radiation beams.

• Hormone Therapy: Lowers testosterone levels to slow or stop cancer cell growth.

• Chemotherapy & Immunotherapy: Used when cancer is advanced or unresponsive to other treatments.

Solution: d)

• What is Prostate Cancer?

• Prostate cancer arises in the prostate gland, a small organ in men that produces seminal fluid. It is one of the most common cancers in men, particularly after age 50.

• Prostate cancer arises in the prostate gland, a small organ in men that produces seminal fluid.

• It is one of the most common cancers in men, particularly after age 50.

• Global and Indian Scenario:

• Globally: Prostate cancer is the 2nd most diagnosed cancer in men with over 1.4 million new cases and nearly 400,000 deaths in 2022 (GLOBOCAN).

• India: It ranks among the top 10 cancers in men, with 37,948 new cases and 18,386 deaths in 2022, and rising incidence in urban areas.

• Causes and Risk Factors:

• Age: Risk increases sharply after age 50.

• Family History: A close relative with prostate cancer doubles one’s risk.

• Genetics: BRCA1/2 mutations and Lynch syndrome increase vulnerability.

• Race: Men of African ancestry have higher risk and severity.

• Diet & Lifestyle: High intake of red meat, fats, and sedentary habits contribute.

• Common Symptoms of Prostate Cancer:

• Frequent or painful urination: Indicates urinary tract irritation due to prostate enlargement or tumor pressure.

• Weak urine flow or dribbling: Caused by blockage in the urethra due to prostate gland swelling.

• Erectile dysfunction: Tumor or treatment may impair nerves or blood vessels linked to erection.

• Blood in urine or semen: A sign of inflammation, prostate damage, or tumor-related bleeding.

• Bone pain (in advanced stages): Metastatic cancer often spreads to bones, causing persistent pain.

• Diagnosis Methods:

• PSA Blood Test: Detects elevated prostate-specific antigen, often a marker of cancer presence.

• Digital Rectal Exam (DRE): A doctor manually examines the prostate for lumps or hardness.

• Biopsy: Tissue samples from the prostate confirm cancer by microscopic analysis.

• Imaging (MRI/Bone Scans): Helps determine how far the cancer has spread within the body.

• Treatment Options:

• Active Surveillance: Regular monitoring without immediate treatment for low-risk cancers.

• Surgery (Prostatectomy): Surgical removal of the prostate to eliminate localized cancer.

• Radiation Therapy: Targets and destroys cancer cells using focused radiation beams.

• Hormone Therapy: Lowers testosterone levels to slow or stop cancer cell growth.

• Chemotherapy & Immunotherapy: Used when cancer is advanced or unresponsive to other treatments.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Trachoma: Trachoma is a non-contagious genetic eye condition primarily affecting elderly populations. India was the first country globally to receive WHO certification for eliminating Trachoma as a public health problem. Trachomatous trichiasis, a complication of advanced Trachoma, involves inward turning of eyelashes causing corneal scraping. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Trachoma is a contagious bacterial eye disease caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is spread through direct contact with eye/nose discharge of infected persons, contaminated hands, clothes, bedding, and by flies. While it can lead to blindness if untreated, it primarily affects communities with poor hygiene and sanitation, with children being the main reservoir for transmission, not exclusively elderly populations, nor is it a genetic condition. Statement 2 is incorrect. India is the third country in the WHO South-East Asia Region (after Nepal and Myanmar) to eliminate trachoma as a public health problem. Globally, 21 countries have been validated by WHO for eliminating it, including others like China, Iran, Morocco, etc., before India. Statement 3 is correct. In advanced stages of Trachoma, a condition called Trachomatous Trichiasis (TT) can develop. This is characterized by the inward turning of eyelashes, which then scrape against the cornea with every blink. This constant abrasion can lead to corneal opacity and eventually irreversible blindness. Women are noted to be up to four times more likely to be affected due to their caregiving roles. About Elimination of Trachoma: What is Trachoma? Definition: A contagious bacterial eye disease caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Transmission: Spread via direct contact (hands, clothes, bedding) and vectors like flies carrying discharge from infected eyes/nose. Reservoir: Children are the main source of transmission in endemic communities. Global and Indian Data: Global burden: Endemic in 38 countries. Affects 1.9 million people with visual impairment or blindness. In 2023, 130,746 surgeries and 32.9 million antibiotic treatments were conducted globally. Recently Papua New Guinea (PNG) and Mauritania has been validated by the WHO for eliminating trachoma as a public health problem. India: Active surveillance through NPCBVI since 2019. National Trichiasis Survey conducted in 200 districts (2021–24). Declared trachoma-free in October 2023, certified in May 2025. Symptoms and Impact: Early: Red eyes, discharge, eye pain, photophobia. Advanced: Trachomatous trichiasis (inward eyelashes scraping cornea) leads corneal opacity which in turn lead to irreversible blindness. Women are 4 times more likely to be affected due to frequent exposure from caregiving roles. Transmission and Risk Factors: Close contact in crowded homes: Living in close quarters increases the likelihood of direct transmission of eye and nasal discharges. Poor hygiene, lack of water and sanitation: Unclean environments support bacterial survival and spread due to infrequent face washing and poor waste disposal. Spread mainly among preschool-aged children in endemic zones: Young children are frequent carriers due to repeated infections and close interactions. Flies act as vectors in unsanitary settings: Eye-seeking flies transfer the bacteria from infected discharges to others in unhygienic environments. Distribution: Endemic in Africa, South Asia, parts of Latin America, Australia, and the Middle East. 21 countries validated by WHO as having eliminated it, including India, China, Nepal, Pakistan, Iran, Morocco, and Vietnam. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Trachoma is a contagious bacterial eye disease caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is spread through direct contact with eye/nose discharge of infected persons, contaminated hands, clothes, bedding, and by flies. While it can lead to blindness if untreated, it primarily affects communities with poor hygiene and sanitation, with children being the main reservoir for transmission, not exclusively elderly populations, nor is it a genetic condition. Statement 2 is incorrect. India is the third country in the WHO South-East Asia Region (after Nepal and Myanmar) to eliminate trachoma as a public health problem. Globally, 21 countries have been validated by WHO for eliminating it, including others like China, Iran, Morocco, etc., before India. Statement 3 is correct. In advanced stages of Trachoma, a condition called Trachomatous Trichiasis (TT) can develop. This is characterized by the inward turning of eyelashes, which then scrape against the cornea with every blink. This constant abrasion can lead to corneal opacity and eventually irreversible blindness. Women are noted to be up to four times more likely to be affected due to their caregiving roles. About Elimination of Trachoma: What is Trachoma? Definition: A contagious bacterial eye disease caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Transmission: Spread via direct contact (hands, clothes, bedding) and vectors like flies carrying discharge from infected eyes/nose. Reservoir: Children are the main source of transmission in endemic communities. Global and Indian Data: Global burden: Endemic in 38 countries. Affects 1.9 million people with visual impairment or blindness. In 2023, 130,746 surgeries and 32.9 million antibiotic treatments were conducted globally. Recently Papua New Guinea (PNG) and Mauritania has been validated by the WHO for eliminating trachoma as a public health problem. India: Active surveillance through NPCBVI since 2019. National Trichiasis Survey conducted in 200 districts (2021–24). Declared trachoma-free in October 2023, certified in May 2025. Symptoms and Impact: Early: Red eyes, discharge, eye pain, photophobia. Advanced: Trachomatous trichiasis (inward eyelashes scraping cornea) leads corneal opacity which in turn lead to irreversible blindness. Women are 4 times more likely to be affected due to frequent exposure from caregiving roles. Transmission and Risk Factors: Close contact in crowded homes: Living in close quarters increases the likelihood of direct transmission of eye and nasal discharges. Poor hygiene, lack of water and sanitation: Unclean environments support bacterial survival and spread due to infrequent face washing and poor waste disposal. Spread mainly among preschool-aged children in endemic zones: Young children are frequent carriers due to repeated infections and close interactions. Flies act as vectors in unsanitary settings: Eye-seeking flies transfer the bacteria from infected discharges to others in unhygienic environments. Distribution: Endemic in Africa, South Asia, parts of Latin America, Australia, and the Middle East. 21 countries validated by WHO as having eliminated it, including India, China, Nepal, Pakistan, Iran, Morocco, and Vietnam.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Trachoma:

• Trachoma is a non-contagious genetic eye condition primarily affecting elderly populations.

• India was the first country globally to receive WHO certification for eliminating Trachoma as a public health problem.

• Trachomatous trichiasis, a complication of advanced Trachoma, involves inward turning of eyelashes causing corneal scraping.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Trachoma is a contagious bacterial eye disease caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is spread through direct contact with eye/nose discharge of infected persons, contaminated hands, clothes, bedding, and by flies. While it can lead to blindness if untreated, it primarily affects communities with poor hygiene and sanitation, with children being the main reservoir for transmission, not exclusively elderly populations, nor is it a genetic condition.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. India is the third country in the WHO South-East Asia Region (after Nepal and Myanmar) to eliminate trachoma as a public health problem. Globally, 21 countries have been validated by WHO for eliminating it, including others like China, Iran, Morocco, etc., before India.

• Statement 3 is correct. In advanced stages of Trachoma, a condition called Trachomatous Trichiasis (TT) can develop. This is characterized by the inward turning of eyelashes, which then scrape against the cornea with every blink. This constant abrasion can lead to corneal opacity and eventually irreversible blindness. Women are noted to be up to four times more likely to be affected due to their caregiving roles.

About Elimination of Trachoma:

• What is Trachoma?

• Definition: A contagious bacterial eye disease caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Transmission: Spread via direct contact (hands, clothes, bedding) and vectors like flies carrying discharge from infected eyes/nose. Reservoir: Children are the main source of transmission in endemic communities.

• Definition: A contagious bacterial eye disease caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.

• Transmission: Spread via direct contact (hands, clothes, bedding) and vectors like flies carrying discharge from infected eyes/nose.

• Reservoir: Children are the main source of transmission in endemic communities.

• Global and Indian Data:

• Global burden: Endemic in 38 countries. Affects 1.9 million people with visual impairment or blindness. In 2023, 130,746 surgeries and 32.9 million antibiotic treatments were conducted globally. Recently Papua New Guinea (PNG) and Mauritania has been validated by the WHO for eliminating trachoma as a public health problem. India: Active surveillance through NPCBVI since 2019. National Trichiasis Survey conducted in 200 districts (2021–24). Declared trachoma-free in October 2023, certified in May 2025.

• Endemic in 38 countries.

• Affects 1.9 million people with visual impairment or blindness.

• In 2023, 130,746 surgeries and 32.9 million antibiotic treatments were conducted globally.

• Recently Papua New Guinea (PNG) and Mauritania has been validated by the WHO for eliminating trachoma as a public health problem.

• India: Active surveillance through NPCBVI since 2019. National Trichiasis Survey conducted in 200 districts (2021–24). Declared trachoma-free in October 2023, certified in May 2025.

• Active surveillance through NPCBVI since 2019.

• National Trichiasis Survey conducted in 200 districts (2021–24).

• Declared trachoma-free in October 2023, certified in May 2025.

• Symptoms and Impact:

• Early: Red eyes, discharge, eye pain, photophobia. Advanced: Trachomatous trichiasis (inward eyelashes scraping cornea) leads corneal opacity which in turn lead to irreversible blindness. Women are 4 times more likely to be affected due to frequent exposure from caregiving roles.

• Early: Red eyes, discharge, eye pain, photophobia.

• Advanced: Trachomatous trichiasis (inward eyelashes scraping cornea) leads corneal opacity which in turn lead to irreversible blindness. Women are 4 times more likely to be affected due to frequent exposure from caregiving roles.

• Women are 4 times more likely to be affected due to frequent exposure from caregiving roles.

• Transmission and Risk Factors: Close contact in crowded homes: Living in close quarters increases the likelihood of direct transmission of eye and nasal discharges. Poor hygiene, lack of water and sanitation: Unclean environments support bacterial survival and spread due to infrequent face washing and poor waste disposal. Spread mainly among preschool-aged children in endemic zones: Young children are frequent carriers due to repeated infections and close interactions. Flies act as vectors in unsanitary settings: Eye-seeking flies transfer the bacteria from infected discharges to others in unhygienic environments.

• Close contact in crowded homes: Living in close quarters increases the likelihood of direct transmission of eye and nasal discharges.

• Poor hygiene, lack of water and sanitation: Unclean environments support bacterial survival and spread due to infrequent face washing and poor waste disposal.

• Spread mainly among preschool-aged children in endemic zones: Young children are frequent carriers due to repeated infections and close interactions.

• Flies act as vectors in unsanitary settings: Eye-seeking flies transfer the bacteria from infected discharges to others in unhygienic environments.

• Distribution:

• Endemic in Africa, South Asia, parts of Latin America, Australia, and the Middle East. 21 countries validated by WHO as having eliminated it, including India, China, Nepal, Pakistan, Iran, Morocco, and Vietnam.

• Endemic in Africa, South Asia, parts of Latin America, Australia, and the Middle East.

• 21 countries validated by WHO as having eliminated it, including India, China, Nepal, Pakistan, Iran, Morocco, and Vietnam.

Solution: a)

About Elimination of Trachoma:

• What is Trachoma?

• Definition: A contagious bacterial eye disease caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.

• Transmission: Spread via direct contact (hands, clothes, bedding) and vectors like flies carrying discharge from infected eyes/nose.

• Reservoir: Children are the main source of transmission in endemic communities.

• Global and Indian Data:

• Endemic in 38 countries.

• Affects 1.9 million people with visual impairment or blindness.

• In 2023, 130,746 surgeries and 32.9 million antibiotic treatments were conducted globally.

• Recently Papua New Guinea (PNG) and Mauritania has been validated by the WHO for eliminating trachoma as a public health problem.

• India: Active surveillance through NPCBVI since 2019. National Trichiasis Survey conducted in 200 districts (2021–24). Declared trachoma-free in October 2023, certified in May 2025.

• Active surveillance through NPCBVI since 2019.

• National Trichiasis Survey conducted in 200 districts (2021–24).

• Declared trachoma-free in October 2023, certified in May 2025.

• Symptoms and Impact:

• Early: Red eyes, discharge, eye pain, photophobia.

• Women are 4 times more likely to be affected due to frequent exposure from caregiving roles.

• Close contact in crowded homes: Living in close quarters increases the likelihood of direct transmission of eye and nasal discharges.

• Poor hygiene, lack of water and sanitation: Unclean environments support bacterial survival and spread due to infrequent face washing and poor waste disposal.

• Spread mainly among preschool-aged children in endemic zones: Young children are frequent carriers due to repeated infections and close interactions.

• Flies act as vectors in unsanitary settings: Eye-seeking flies transfer the bacteria from infected discharges to others in unhygienic environments.

• Distribution:

• Endemic in Africa, South Asia, parts of Latin America, Australia, and the Middle East.

• 21 countries validated by WHO as having eliminated it, including India, China, Nepal, Pakistan, Iran, Morocco, and Vietnam.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Match the digital initiative with its primary aim: Column A: Initiative Column B: Primary Aim 1. Depot Darpan A. Empower field-level PDS stakeholders with real-time data access. 2. Anna Mitra B. Provide advanced, accessible grievance redressal for PM-GKAY beneficiaries. 3. Anna Sahayata C. Improve infrastructure and operational performance of food grain depots under FCI & CWC. Select the correct match: (a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B (b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B (c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C (d) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A Correct Solution: b) Depot Darpan Initiative aims to improve the infrastructure and operational performance of food grain depots under the Food Corporation of India (FCI) and Central Warehousing Corporation (CWC). It involves a digital self-assessment portal for performance tracking, composite ratings based on operations and infrastructure (60:40 ratio), IoT integration for real-time monitoring, and significant capital infusion for upgrades. So, 1 matches with C. Anna Mitra Initiative aims to empower field-level Public Distribution System (PDS) stakeholders such as Fair Price Shop (FPS) dealers, District Food and Supplies Officer (DFSO) officers, and food inspectors through real-time data access. It is a mobile app providing stock details, sales reports, alerts, and enabling geo-tagged inspections. So, 2 matches with A. Anna Sahayata Initiative aims to provide advanced, accessible grievance redressal for Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY) beneficiaries. It utilizes WhatsApp, Interactive Voice Response System (IVRS), and Automatic Speech Recognition (ASR) for filing complaints, focusing on accessibility, speed, and multilingual reach. So, 3 matches with B. About Three Digital Initiatives to Streamline PDS: The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution has unveiled three tech-driven initiatives to modernize warehousing, empower frontline workers, and improve grievance redressal under PM-GKAY and NFSA. Depot Darpan Initiative: Aim: Improve infrastructure and operational performance of food grain depots under FCI and CWC. Key Features: Digital self-assessment portal for depot-level performance tracking. Composite ratings based on a 60:40 ratio (Operations: Infrastructure). IoT integration for real-time monitoring, CCTV surveillance, and live analytics. Capital infusion: ₹1000 crore (FCI) & ₹280 crore (CWC) for depot upgrades. Anna Mitra Initiative: Aim: Empower field-level PDS stakeholders through real-time data access. Key Features: Mobile app launched for FPS dealers, DFSO officers, and food inspectors. Enables access to stock details, sales reports, alerts, and FPS performance. Conducts geo-tagged inspections and stock verifications. Currently rolled out in Assam, Uttarakhand, Tripura, and Punjab in Hindi and English. Anna Sahayata Initiative: Aim: Provide advanced, accessible grievance redressal for PMGKAY Key Features: Utilizes WhatsApp, IVRS, and Automatic Speech Recognition (ASR) for filing complaints. Built for accessibility, speed, and multilingual reach. Pilot phase in Gujarat, Jharkhand, Telangana, Tripura, and Uttar Pradesh in 5 languages. Incorrect Solution: b) Depot Darpan Initiative aims to improve the infrastructure and operational performance of food grain depots under the Food Corporation of India (FCI) and Central Warehousing Corporation (CWC). It involves a digital self-assessment portal for performance tracking, composite ratings based on operations and infrastructure (60:40 ratio), IoT integration for real-time monitoring, and significant capital infusion for upgrades. So, 1 matches with C. Anna Mitra Initiative aims to empower field-level Public Distribution System (PDS) stakeholders such as Fair Price Shop (FPS) dealers, District Food and Supplies Officer (DFSO) officers, and food inspectors through real-time data access. It is a mobile app providing stock details, sales reports, alerts, and enabling geo-tagged inspections. So, 2 matches with A. Anna Sahayata Initiative aims to provide advanced, accessible grievance redressal for Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY) beneficiaries. It utilizes WhatsApp, Interactive Voice Response System (IVRS), and Automatic Speech Recognition (ASR) for filing complaints, focusing on accessibility, speed, and multilingual reach. So, 3 matches with B. About Three Digital Initiatives to Streamline PDS: The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution has unveiled three tech-driven initiatives to modernize warehousing, empower frontline workers, and improve grievance redressal under PM-GKAY and NFSA. Depot Darpan Initiative: Aim: Improve infrastructure and operational performance of food grain depots under FCI and CWC. Key Features: Digital self-assessment portal for depot-level performance tracking. Composite ratings based on a 60:40 ratio (Operations: Infrastructure). IoT integration for real-time monitoring, CCTV surveillance, and live analytics. Capital infusion: ₹1000 crore (FCI) & ₹280 crore (CWC) for depot upgrades. Anna Mitra Initiative: Aim: Empower field-level PDS stakeholders through real-time data access. Key Features: Mobile app launched for FPS dealers, DFSO officers, and food inspectors. Enables access to stock details, sales reports, alerts, and FPS performance. Conducts geo-tagged inspections and stock verifications. Currently rolled out in Assam, Uttarakhand, Tripura, and Punjab in Hindi and English. Anna Sahayata Initiative: Aim: Provide advanced, accessible grievance redressal for PMGKAY Key Features: Utilizes WhatsApp, IVRS, and Automatic Speech Recognition (ASR) for filing complaints. Built for accessibility, speed, and multilingual reach. Pilot phase in Gujarat, Jharkhand, Telangana, Tripura, and Uttar Pradesh in 5 languages.

#### 4. Question

Match the digital initiative with its primary aim:

Column A: Initiative | Column B: Primary Aim

1.Depot Darpan | A. Empower field-level PDS stakeholders with real-time data access.
2.Anna Mitra | B. Provide advanced, accessible grievance redressal for PM-GKAY beneficiaries.
3.Anna Sahayata | C. Improve infrastructure and operational performance of food grain depots under FCI & CWC.

Select the correct match:

• (a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B

• (b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B

• (c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C

• (d) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A

Solution: b)

• Depot Darpan Initiative aims to improve the infrastructure and operational performance of food grain depots under the Food Corporation of India (FCI) and Central Warehousing Corporation (CWC). It involves a digital self-assessment portal for performance tracking, composite ratings based on operations and infrastructure (60:40 ratio), IoT integration for real-time monitoring, and significant capital infusion for upgrades. So, 1 matches with C.

• Anna Mitra Initiative aims to empower field-level Public Distribution System (PDS) stakeholders such as Fair Price Shop (FPS) dealers, District Food and Supplies Officer (DFSO) officers, and food inspectors through real-time data access. It is a mobile app providing stock details, sales reports, alerts, and enabling geo-tagged inspections. So, 2 matches with A.

• Anna Sahayata Initiative aims to provide advanced, accessible grievance redressal for Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY) beneficiaries. It utilizes WhatsApp, Interactive Voice Response System (IVRS), and Automatic Speech Recognition (ASR) for filing complaints, focusing on accessibility, speed, and multilingual reach. So, 3 matches with B.

About Three Digital Initiatives to Streamline PDS:

The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution has unveiled three tech-driven initiatives to modernize warehousing, empower frontline workers, and improve grievance redressal under PM-GKAY and NFSA.

Depot Darpan Initiative:

• Aim: Improve infrastructure and operational performance of food grain depots under FCI and CWC. Key Features: Digital self-assessment portal for depot-level performance tracking. Composite ratings based on a 60:40 ratio (Operations: Infrastructure). IoT integration for real-time monitoring, CCTV surveillance, and live analytics.

• Aim: Improve infrastructure and operational performance of food grain depots under FCI and CWC.

• Key Features: Digital self-assessment portal for depot-level performance tracking. Composite ratings based on a 60:40 ratio (Operations: Infrastructure). IoT integration for real-time monitoring, CCTV surveillance, and live analytics.

• Digital self-assessment portal for depot-level performance tracking.

• Composite ratings based on a 60:40 ratio (Operations: Infrastructure).

• IoT integration for real-time monitoring, CCTV surveillance, and live analytics.

• Capital infusion: ₹1000 crore (FCI) & ₹280 crore (CWC) for depot upgrades.

Anna Mitra Initiative:

• Aim: Empower field-level PDS stakeholders through real-time data access. Key Features: Mobile app launched for FPS dealers, DFSO officers, and food inspectors. Enables access to stock details, sales reports, alerts, and FPS performance. Conducts geo-tagged inspections and stock verifications.

• Aim: Empower field-level PDS stakeholders through real-time data access.

• Key Features: Mobile app launched for FPS dealers, DFSO officers, and food inspectors. Enables access to stock details, sales reports, alerts, and FPS performance. Conducts geo-tagged inspections and stock verifications.

• Mobile app launched for FPS dealers, DFSO officers, and food inspectors.

• Enables access to stock details, sales reports, alerts, and FPS performance.

• Conducts geo-tagged inspections and stock verifications.

• Currently rolled out in Assam, Uttarakhand, Tripura, and Punjab in Hindi and English.

Anna Sahayata Initiative:

• Aim: Provide advanced, accessible grievance redressal for PMGKAY Key Features: Utilizes WhatsApp, IVRS, and Automatic Speech Recognition (ASR) for filing complaints. Built for accessibility, speed, and multilingual reach.

• Aim: Provide advanced, accessible grievance redressal for PMGKAY

• Key Features: Utilizes WhatsApp, IVRS, and Automatic Speech Recognition (ASR) for filing complaints. Built for accessibility, speed, and multilingual reach.

• Utilizes WhatsApp, IVRS, and Automatic Speech Recognition (ASR) for filing complaints.

• Built for accessibility, speed, and multilingual reach.

• Pilot phase in Gujarat, Jharkhand, Telangana, Tripura, and Uttar Pradesh in 5 languages.

Solution: b)

About Three Digital Initiatives to Streamline PDS:

Depot Darpan Initiative:

• Aim: Improve infrastructure and operational performance of food grain depots under FCI and CWC.

• Digital self-assessment portal for depot-level performance tracking.

• Composite ratings based on a 60:40 ratio (Operations: Infrastructure).

• IoT integration for real-time monitoring, CCTV surveillance, and live analytics.

• Capital infusion: ₹1000 crore (FCI) & ₹280 crore (CWC) for depot upgrades.

Anna Mitra Initiative:

• Aim: Empower field-level PDS stakeholders through real-time data access.

• Mobile app launched for FPS dealers, DFSO officers, and food inspectors.

• Enables access to stock details, sales reports, alerts, and FPS performance.

• Conducts geo-tagged inspections and stock verifications.

• Currently rolled out in Assam, Uttarakhand, Tripura, and Punjab in Hindi and English.

Anna Sahayata Initiative:

• Aim: Provide advanced, accessible grievance redressal for PMGKAY

• Key Features: Utilizes WhatsApp, IVRS, and Automatic Speech Recognition (ASR) for filing complaints. Built for accessibility, speed, and multilingual reach.

• Utilizes WhatsApp, IVRS, and Automatic Speech Recognition (ASR) for filing complaints.

• Built for accessibility, speed, and multilingual reach.

• Pilot phase in Gujarat, Jharkhand, Telangana, Tripura, and Uttar Pradesh in 5 languages.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Overseas Citizen of India (OCI). Statement-I: An Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) cardholder enjoys parity with Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in the matter of purchasing agricultural land in India. Statement-II: The OCI scheme was introduced to strengthen India’s ties with its global diaspora by granting them rights similar to long-term residency, with some exceptions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: d) Statement-I is incorrect. OCI cardholders have parity with NRIs in several areas, such as the adoption of Indian children, admission in Indian educational institutions against NRI seats, and the purchase of non-agricultural properties. However, a key restriction is that OCI cardholders cannot buy agricultural or plantation property in India. This right is not extended to them. Statement-II is correct. The Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) scheme, introduced in August 2005 under Section 7A of the Citizenship Act, 1955, was indeed conceptualized with the objective of strengthening India’s connections with its global diaspora. It achieves this by granting them a form of permanent residency, allowing them to live and work in India indefinitely and bestowing multiple rights akin to those of long-term residents, although certain restrictions (like voting rights, holding constitutional posts, or buying agricultural land) apply. About Overseas Citizen of India (OCI): What is the OCI Card? The Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) card is a form of permanent residency available to Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs), allowing them to live and work in India indefinitely, with certain exceptions. Introduced in: August 2005 under Section 7A of the Citizenship Act, 1955. Objective: Strengthen India’s ties with the global Indian diaspora by granting multiple rights akin to long-term residency. Eligibility Criteria for OCI: A person is eligible for OCI if they: Were citizens of India on or after 26th January 1950, or eligible to become citizens then. Are children, grandchildren, or great-grandchildren of such individuals. Are a minor child of Indian citizens or of OCI cardholders. Are a foreign spouse of an Indian citizen/OCI holder, with marriage subsisting for 2+ years (subject to security clearance). Not eligible: If applicant or their ancestors were ever citizens of Pakistan or Bangladesh. If applicant is serving or retired foreign military personnel. Key Benefits of an OCI Cardholder: Lifelong, multiple-entry visa for visiting India. Exemption from FRRO registration, irrespective of duration of stay. Parity with Indian citizens in domestic airfares and ticket fees for national monuments and parks. Parity with NRIs in: Adoption of Indian children. Admission in Indian educational institutions against NRI or supernumerary seats. Purchase of non-agricultural properties. Pursuing professions like doctors, lawyers, architects, and CAs. Faculty appointments allowed in premier institutes like IITs, NITs, IIMs, and AIIMS. Latest Rules & Restrictions (as of 2021 notification): OCI cardholders must take special permission for: Research, missionary, journalistic activities, or mountaineering. Visiting restricted/protected/prohibited areas. Interning with or working in foreign diplomatic missions in India. Also, OCIs are treated at par with foreign nationals under FEMA 2003, reversing earlier parity with NRIs in economic/financial matters. Key Restrictions on OCI cardholders: Cannot vote or contest elections. Cannot hold Indian constitutional positions (e.g., President, Vice President, Supreme Court Judge). Cannot hold regular government jobs. Cannot buy agricultural or plantation property. Renunciation of OCI: Any OCI cardholder may voluntarily renounce OCI status. Upon registration of renunciation, they cease to be OCI holders. The same applies to their minor children registered under the OCI scheme. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement-I is incorrect. OCI cardholders have parity with NRIs in several areas, such as the adoption of Indian children, admission in Indian educational institutions against NRI seats, and the purchase of non-agricultural properties. However, a key restriction is that OCI cardholders cannot buy agricultural or plantation property in India. This right is not extended to them. Statement-II is correct. The Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) scheme, introduced in August 2005 under Section 7A of the Citizenship Act, 1955, was indeed conceptualized with the objective of strengthening India’s connections with its global diaspora. It achieves this by granting them a form of permanent residency, allowing them to live and work in India indefinitely and bestowing multiple rights akin to those of long-term residents, although certain restrictions (like voting rights, holding constitutional posts, or buying agricultural land) apply. About Overseas Citizen of India (OCI): What is the OCI Card? The Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) card is a form of permanent residency available to Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs), allowing them to live and work in India indefinitely, with certain exceptions. Introduced in: August 2005 under Section 7A of the Citizenship Act, 1955. Objective: Strengthen India’s ties with the global Indian diaspora by granting multiple rights akin to long-term residency. Eligibility Criteria for OCI: A person is eligible for OCI if they: Were citizens of India on or after 26th January 1950, or eligible to become citizens then. Are children, grandchildren, or great-grandchildren of such individuals. Are a minor child of Indian citizens or of OCI cardholders. Are a foreign spouse of an Indian citizen/OCI holder, with marriage subsisting for 2+ years (subject to security clearance). Not eligible: If applicant or their ancestors were ever citizens of Pakistan or Bangladesh. If applicant is serving or retired foreign military personnel. Key Benefits of an OCI Cardholder: Lifelong, multiple-entry visa for visiting India. Exemption from FRRO registration, irrespective of duration of stay. Parity with Indian citizens in domestic airfares and ticket fees for national monuments and parks. Parity with NRIs in: Adoption of Indian children. Admission in Indian educational institutions against NRI or supernumerary seats. Purchase of non-agricultural properties. Pursuing professions like doctors, lawyers, architects, and CAs. Faculty appointments allowed in premier institutes like IITs, NITs, IIMs, and AIIMS. Latest Rules & Restrictions (as of 2021 notification): OCI cardholders must take special permission for: Research, missionary, journalistic activities, or mountaineering. Visiting restricted/protected/prohibited areas. Interning with or working in foreign diplomatic missions in India. Also, OCIs are treated at par with foreign nationals under FEMA 2003, reversing earlier parity with NRIs in economic/financial matters. Key Restrictions on OCI cardholders: Cannot vote or contest elections. Cannot hold Indian constitutional positions (e.g., President, Vice President, Supreme Court Judge). Cannot hold regular government jobs. Cannot buy agricultural or plantation property. Renunciation of OCI: Any OCI cardholder may voluntarily renounce OCI status. Upon registration of renunciation, they cease to be OCI holders. The same applies to their minor children registered under the OCI scheme.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Overseas Citizen of India (OCI).

Statement-I: An Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) cardholder enjoys parity with Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in the matter of purchasing agricultural land in India.

Statement-II: The OCI scheme was introduced to strengthen India’s ties with its global diaspora by granting them rights similar to long-term residency, with some exceptions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: d)

• Statement-I is incorrect. OCI cardholders have parity with NRIs in several areas, such as the adoption of Indian children, admission in Indian educational institutions against NRI seats, and the purchase of non-agricultural properties. However, a key restriction is that OCI cardholders cannot buy agricultural or plantation property in India. This right is not extended to them.

• Statement-II is correct. The Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) scheme, introduced in August 2005 under Section 7A of the Citizenship Act, 1955, was indeed conceptualized with the objective of strengthening India’s connections with its global diaspora. It achieves this by granting them a form of permanent residency, allowing them to live and work in India indefinitely and bestowing multiple rights akin to those of long-term residents, although certain restrictions (like voting rights, holding constitutional posts, or buying agricultural land) apply.

About Overseas Citizen of India (OCI):

• What is the OCI Card? The Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) card is a form of permanent residency available to Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs), allowing them to live and work in India indefinitely, with certain exceptions.

• The Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) card is a form of permanent residency available to Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs), allowing them to live and work in India indefinitely, with certain exceptions.

• Introduced in: August 2005 under Section 7A of the Citizenship Act, 1955.

• Objective: Strengthen India’s ties with the global Indian diaspora by granting multiple rights akin to long-term residency.

• Eligibility Criteria for OCI: A person is eligible for OCI if they:

• A person is eligible for OCI if they:

• Were citizens of India on or after 26th January 1950, or eligible to become citizens then. Are children, grandchildren, or great-grandchildren of such individuals. Are a minor child of Indian citizens or of OCI cardholders. Are a foreign spouse of an Indian citizen/OCI holder, with marriage subsisting for 2+ years (subject to security clearance).

• Were citizens of India on or after 26th January 1950, or eligible to become citizens then.

• Are children, grandchildren, or great-grandchildren of such individuals.

• Are a minor child of Indian citizens or of OCI cardholders.

• Are a foreign spouse of an Indian citizen/OCI holder, with marriage subsisting for 2+ years (subject to security clearance).

• Not eligible:

• If applicant or their ancestors were ever citizens of Pakistan or Bangladesh. If applicant is serving or retired foreign military personnel.

• If applicant or their ancestors were ever citizens of Pakistan or Bangladesh.

• If applicant is serving or retired foreign military personnel.

• Key Benefits of an OCI Cardholder:

• Lifelong, multiple-entry visa for visiting India. Exemption from FRRO registration, irrespective of duration of stay. Parity with Indian citizens in domestic airfares and ticket fees for national monuments and parks. Parity with NRIs in: Adoption of Indian children. Admission in Indian educational institutions against NRI or supernumerary seats. Purchase of non-agricultural properties. Pursuing professions like doctors, lawyers, architects, and CAs. Faculty appointments allowed in premier institutes like IITs, NITs, IIMs, and AIIMS.

• Lifelong, multiple-entry visa for visiting India.

• Exemption from FRRO registration, irrespective of duration of stay.

• Parity with Indian citizens in domestic airfares and ticket fees for national monuments and parks.

• Parity with NRIs in: Adoption of Indian children. Admission in Indian educational institutions against NRI or supernumerary seats. Purchase of non-agricultural properties. Pursuing professions like doctors, lawyers, architects, and CAs.

• Adoption of Indian children.

• Admission in Indian educational institutions against NRI or supernumerary seats.

• Purchase of non-agricultural properties.

• Pursuing professions like doctors, lawyers, architects, and CAs.

• Faculty appointments allowed in premier institutes like IITs, NITs, IIMs, and AIIMS.

• Latest Rules & Restrictions (as of 2021 notification): OCI cardholders must take special permission for:

• OCI cardholders must take special permission for:

• Research, missionary, journalistic activities, or mountaineering. Visiting restricted/protected/prohibited areas. Interning with or working in foreign diplomatic missions in India.

• Research, missionary, journalistic activities, or mountaineering.

• Visiting restricted/protected/prohibited areas.

• Interning with or working in foreign diplomatic missions in India.

• Also, OCIs are treated at par with foreign nationals under FEMA 2003, reversing earlier parity with NRIs in economic/financial matters.

• Key Restrictions on OCI cardholders:

• Cannot vote or contest elections. Cannot hold Indian constitutional positions (e.g., President, Vice President, Supreme Court Judge). Cannot hold regular government jobs. Cannot buy agricultural or plantation property.

• Cannot vote or contest elections.

• Cannot hold Indian constitutional positions (e.g., President, Vice President, Supreme Court Judge).

• Cannot hold regular government jobs.

• Cannot buy agricultural or plantation property.

• Renunciation of OCI:

• Any OCI cardholder may voluntarily renounce OCI status. Upon registration of renunciation, they cease to be OCI holders. The same applies to their minor children registered under the OCI scheme.

• Any OCI cardholder may voluntarily renounce OCI status.

• Upon registration of renunciation, they cease to be OCI holders.

• The same applies to their minor children registered under the OCI scheme.

Solution: d)

About Overseas Citizen of India (OCI):

• Introduced in: August 2005 under Section 7A of the Citizenship Act, 1955.

• Objective: Strengthen India’s ties with the global Indian diaspora by granting multiple rights akin to long-term residency.

• Eligibility Criteria for OCI: A person is eligible for OCI if they:

• A person is eligible for OCI if they:

• Were citizens of India on or after 26th January 1950, or eligible to become citizens then.

• Are children, grandchildren, or great-grandchildren of such individuals.

• Are a minor child of Indian citizens or of OCI cardholders.

• Are a foreign spouse of an Indian citizen/OCI holder, with marriage subsisting for 2+ years (subject to security clearance).

• Not eligible:

• If applicant or their ancestors were ever citizens of Pakistan or Bangladesh. If applicant is serving or retired foreign military personnel.

• If applicant or their ancestors were ever citizens of Pakistan or Bangladesh.

• If applicant is serving or retired foreign military personnel.

• Key Benefits of an OCI Cardholder:

• Lifelong, multiple-entry visa for visiting India.

• Exemption from FRRO registration, irrespective of duration of stay.

• Parity with Indian citizens in domestic airfares and ticket fees for national monuments and parks.

• Adoption of Indian children.

• Admission in Indian educational institutions against NRI or supernumerary seats.

• Purchase of non-agricultural properties.

• Pursuing professions like doctors, lawyers, architects, and CAs.

• Faculty appointments allowed in premier institutes like IITs, NITs, IIMs, and AIIMS.

• Latest Rules & Restrictions (as of 2021 notification): OCI cardholders must take special permission for:

• OCI cardholders must take special permission for:

• Research, missionary, journalistic activities, or mountaineering. Visiting restricted/protected/prohibited areas. Interning with or working in foreign diplomatic missions in India.

• Research, missionary, journalistic activities, or mountaineering.

• Visiting restricted/protected/prohibited areas.

• Interning with or working in foreign diplomatic missions in India.

• Also, OCIs are treated at par with foreign nationals under FEMA 2003, reversing earlier parity with NRIs in economic/financial matters.

• Key Restrictions on OCI cardholders:

• Cannot vote or contest elections.

• Cannot hold Indian constitutional positions (e.g., President, Vice President, Supreme Court Judge).

• Cannot hold regular government jobs.

• Cannot buy agricultural or plantation property.

• Renunciation of OCI:

• Any OCI cardholder may voluntarily renounce OCI status.

• Upon registration of renunciation, they cease to be OCI holders.

• The same applies to their minor children registered under the OCI scheme.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Regarding the architectural and historical aspects of the Golden Temple, consider the following statements: The temple is constructed on a higher plinth to signify its supreme spiritual status. It features a single entrance on the eastern side, symbolizing the dawn of spiritual awakening. Baba Budha Ji was appointed as the first granthi of the Golden Temple. The temple was repeatedly attacked during Mughal and Afghan invasions in the 18th century. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Golden Temple is uniquely built on a lower level compared to its surroundings. This architectural design is intentional and symbolizes humility and egalitarianism, core tenets of Sikhism. Worshippers must step down to enter, signifying the importance of shedding ego. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Golden Temple has four entrances, one on each side (North, South, East, West). These four entrances symbolize that the shrine is open to people from all castes, creeds, religions, and walks of life, signifying universal access and welcome. Statement 3 is correct. Baba Budha Ji, a revered figure in Sikh history, was appointed by Guru Arjan Dev Ji as the first granthi (reader or custodian of the Guru Granth Sahib) at the Harmandir Sahib (Golden Temple) after the Adi Granth was installed there in 1604. Statement 4 is correct. The Golden Temple has faced numerous desecrations and attacks throughout its history, particularly during 18th century, which saw repeated invasions by Mughal governors and Afghan rulers like Ahmad Shah Abdali. It was rebuilt multiple times by the Sikh community. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Golden Temple is uniquely built on a lower level compared to its surroundings. This architectural design is intentional and symbolizes humility and egalitarianism, core tenets of Sikhism. Worshippers must step down to enter, signifying the importance of shedding ego. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Golden Temple has four entrances, one on each side (North, South, East, West). These four entrances symbolize that the shrine is open to people from all castes, creeds, religions, and walks of life, signifying universal access and welcome. Statement 3 is correct. Baba Budha Ji, a revered figure in Sikh history, was appointed by Guru Arjan Dev Ji as the first granthi (reader or custodian of the Guru Granth Sahib) at the Harmandir Sahib (Golden Temple) after the Adi Granth was installed there in 1604. Statement 4 is correct. The Golden Temple has faced numerous desecrations and attacks throughout its history, particularly during 18th century, which saw repeated invasions by Mughal governors and Afghan rulers like Ahmad Shah Abdali. It was rebuilt multiple times by the Sikh community.

#### 6. Question

Regarding the architectural and historical aspects of the Golden Temple, consider the following statements:

• The temple is constructed on a higher plinth to signify its supreme spiritual status.

• It features a single entrance on the eastern side, symbolizing the dawn of spiritual awakening.

• Baba Budha Ji was appointed as the first granthi of the Golden Temple.

• The temple was repeatedly attacked during Mughal and Afghan invasions in the 18th century.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Golden Temple is uniquely built on a lower level compared to its surroundings. This architectural design is intentional and symbolizes humility and egalitarianism, core tenets of Sikhism. Worshippers must step down to enter, signifying the importance of shedding ego.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Golden Temple has four entrances, one on each side (North, South, East, West). These four entrances symbolize that the shrine is open to people from all castes, creeds, religions, and walks of life, signifying universal access and welcome.

• Statement 3 is correct. Baba Budha Ji, a revered figure in Sikh history, was appointed by Guru Arjan Dev Ji as the first granthi (reader or custodian of the Guru Granth Sahib) at the Harmandir Sahib (Golden Temple) after the Adi Granth was installed there in 1604.

• Statement 4 is correct. The Golden Temple has faced numerous desecrations and attacks throughout its history, particularly during 18th century, which saw repeated invasions by Mughal governors and Afghan rulers like Ahmad Shah Abdali. It was rebuilt multiple times by the Sikh community.

Solution: b)

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Mount Lewotobi Laki-laki: It is a dormant volcano located on the island of Sumatra, Indonesia. The volcano forms part of a twin volcanic system, often symbolized as a “husband-wife” pair. Its eruptions are primarily characterized by slow lava flows with minimal ash production. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Mount Lewotobi Laki-laki is an active stratovolcano, not dormant. It is known for frequent eruptions, and it erupted multiple times recently, prompting a high alert. It is located on Southeast Flores Island, Indonesia, not Sumatra. Statement 2 is correct. Mount Lewotobi Laki-laki forms part of a twin volcanic system with Lewotobi Perempuan. These are often symbolized as a “husband-wife” pair, with Laki-laki (male) being the more active and Perempuan (female) being less active. Statement 3 is incorrect. The volcano is known for frequent eruptions, pyroclastic activity, and ash columns reaching over 5 km. This indicates explosive activity with significant ash production, not just slow lava flows with minimal ash. About Mount Lewotobi Laki-laki: What it is: A stratovolcano forming part of a twin volcanic system with Lewotobi Perempuan, often symbolised as a “husband-wife” pair. Located in: Southeast Flores Island, Indonesia; part of the Lesser Sunda Islands volcanic arc. Geological Features: Twin peaks: Laki-laki (more active) and Perempuan (less active). Formed due to subduction of the Indo-Australian Plate beneath the Eurasian Plate. Known for frequent eruptions, pyroclastic activity, and ash columns reaching over 5 km. About Indonesia: Location: Archipelagic country in Southeast Asia; lies between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean. Capital: Jakarta (on the island of Java). Indonesia is relocating its capital from Jakarta to a new city called Nusantara. Borders: Shares land borders with Malaysia, Papua New Guinea, and Timor-Leste. Geological Features: Islands: Over 17,000 islands – major ones include Sumatra, Java, Borneo (Kalimantan), Sulawesi, New Guinea (Papua). Mountains/Volcanoes: Over 100 active volcanoes including Merapi, Agung, Sinabung, and Krakatoa; part of the Pacific Ring of Fire. Rivers: Longest: Kapuas (1,140 km) in Kalimantan. Others: Barito, Mahakam, Mamberamo. Tectonic Setting: Junction of Indo-Australian, Eurasian, and Pacific plates—making it one of the most seismically active regions globally. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Mount Lewotobi Laki-laki is an active stratovolcano, not dormant. It is known for frequent eruptions, and it erupted multiple times recently, prompting a high alert. It is located on Southeast Flores Island, Indonesia, not Sumatra. Statement 2 is correct. Mount Lewotobi Laki-laki forms part of a twin volcanic system with Lewotobi Perempuan. These are often symbolized as a “husband-wife” pair, with Laki-laki (male) being the more active and Perempuan (female) being less active. Statement 3 is incorrect. The volcano is known for frequent eruptions, pyroclastic activity, and ash columns reaching over 5 km. This indicates explosive activity with significant ash production, not just slow lava flows with minimal ash. About Mount Lewotobi Laki-laki: What it is: A stratovolcano forming part of a twin volcanic system with Lewotobi Perempuan, often symbolised as a “husband-wife” pair. Located in: Southeast Flores Island, Indonesia; part of the Lesser Sunda Islands volcanic arc. Geological Features: Twin peaks: Laki-laki (more active) and Perempuan (less active). Formed due to subduction of the Indo-Australian Plate beneath the Eurasian Plate. Known for frequent eruptions, pyroclastic activity, and ash columns reaching over 5 km. About Indonesia: Location: Archipelagic country in Southeast Asia; lies between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean. Capital: Jakarta (on the island of Java). Indonesia is relocating its capital from Jakarta to a new city called Nusantara. Borders: Shares land borders with Malaysia, Papua New Guinea, and Timor-Leste. Geological Features: Islands: Over 17,000 islands – major ones include Sumatra, Java, Borneo (Kalimantan), Sulawesi, New Guinea (Papua). Mountains/Volcanoes: Over 100 active volcanoes including Merapi, Agung, Sinabung, and Krakatoa; part of the Pacific Ring of Fire. Rivers: Longest: Kapuas (1,140 km) in Kalimantan. Others: Barito, Mahakam, Mamberamo. Tectonic Setting: Junction of Indo-Australian, Eurasian, and Pacific plates—making it one of the most seismically active regions globally.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Mount Lewotobi Laki-laki:

• It is a dormant volcano located on the island of Sumatra, Indonesia.

• The volcano forms part of a twin volcanic system, often symbolized as a “husband-wife” pair.

• Its eruptions are primarily characterized by slow lava flows with minimal ash production.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Mount Lewotobi Laki-laki is an active stratovolcano, not dormant. It is known for frequent eruptions, and it erupted multiple times recently, prompting a high alert. It is located on Southeast Flores Island, Indonesia, not Sumatra.

• Statement 2 is correct. Mount Lewotobi Laki-laki forms part of a twin volcanic system with Lewotobi Perempuan. These are often symbolized as a “husband-wife” pair, with Laki-laki (male) being the more active and Perempuan (female) being less active.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The volcano is known for frequent eruptions, pyroclastic activity, and ash columns reaching over 5 km. This indicates explosive activity with significant ash production, not just slow lava flows with minimal ash.

About Mount Lewotobi Laki-laki:

• What it is: A stratovolcano forming part of a twin volcanic system with Lewotobi Perempuan, often symbolised as a “husband-wife” pair.

• Located in: Southeast Flores Island, Indonesia; part of the Lesser Sunda Islands volcanic arc.

• Geological Features:

• Twin peaks: Laki-laki (more active) and Perempuan (less active).

• Formed due to subduction of the Indo-Australian Plate beneath the Eurasian Plate.

• Known for frequent eruptions, pyroclastic activity, and ash columns reaching over 5 km.

About Indonesia:

• Location: Archipelagic country in Southeast Asia; lies between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean.

• Capital: Jakarta (on the island of Java).

• Indonesia is relocating its capital from Jakarta to a new city called Nusantara.

• Borders: Shares land borders with Malaysia, Papua New Guinea, and Timor-Leste.

• Geological Features:

• Islands: Over 17,000 islands – major ones include Sumatra, Java, Borneo (Kalimantan), Sulawesi, New Guinea (Papua).

• Mountains/Volcanoes: Over 100 active volcanoes including Merapi, Agung, Sinabung, and Krakatoa; part of the Pacific Ring of Fire.

• Rivers: Longest: Kapuas (1,140 km) in Kalimantan. Others: Barito, Mahakam, Mamberamo.

• Longest: Kapuas (1,140 km) in Kalimantan.

• Others: Barito, Mahakam, Mamberamo.

• Tectonic Setting: Junction of Indo-Australian, Eurasian, and Pacific plates—making it one of the most seismically active regions globally.

Solution: a)

About Mount Lewotobi Laki-laki:

• What it is: A stratovolcano forming part of a twin volcanic system with Lewotobi Perempuan, often symbolised as a “husband-wife” pair.

• Located in: Southeast Flores Island, Indonesia; part of the Lesser Sunda Islands volcanic arc.

• Geological Features:

• Twin peaks: Laki-laki (more active) and Perempuan (less active).

• Formed due to subduction of the Indo-Australian Plate beneath the Eurasian Plate.

• Known for frequent eruptions, pyroclastic activity, and ash columns reaching over 5 km.

About Indonesia:

• Location: Archipelagic country in Southeast Asia; lies between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean.

• Capital: Jakarta (on the island of Java).

• Indonesia is relocating its capital from Jakarta to a new city called Nusantara.

• Borders: Shares land borders with Malaysia, Papua New Guinea, and Timor-Leste.

• Geological Features:

• Islands: Over 17,000 islands – major ones include Sumatra, Java, Borneo (Kalimantan), Sulawesi, New Guinea (Papua).

• Mountains/Volcanoes: Over 100 active volcanoes including Merapi, Agung, Sinabung, and Krakatoa; part of the Pacific Ring of Fire.

• Rivers: Longest: Kapuas (1,140 km) in Kalimantan. Others: Barito, Mahakam, Mamberamo.

• Longest: Kapuas (1,140 km) in Kalimantan.

• Others: Barito, Mahakam, Mamberamo.

• Tectonic Setting: Junction of Indo-Australian, Eurasian, and Pacific plates—making it one of the most seismically active regions globally.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Who is the author of the short story collection “Heart Lamp,” which won the International Booker Prize 2025? a) Geetanjali Shree b) Daisy Rockwell c) Banu Mushtaq d) Deepa Bhasthi Correct Solution: c) Banu Mushtaq, a distinguished Kannada author and activist, is the author of the short story collection “Heart Lamp.” This work, translated into English by Deepa Bhasthi, was awarded the International Booker Prize in 2025. This achievement is notable as “Heart Lamp” is the first Kannada work to win this prestigious international literary award. The International Booker Prize recognizes both the author and the translator for the finest translated work of fiction. About International Booker Prize, 2025: Established: 2005 Given By: Booker Prize Foundation, UK Frequency: Annually awarded Purpose: Honors the best translated work of fiction into English from any language. Award Amount: £50,000 (shared equally between author and translator) Key Features: Focuses exclusively on translated fiction, unlike the Booker Prize which is for English-original works. Recognizes literary excellence, cultural richness, and the art of translation. Indian Winners (International Booker) Geetanjali Shree – Tomb of Sand (2022), translated by Daisy Rockwell (First Hindi work to win) Banu Mushtaq – Heart Lamp (2025), translated by Deepa Bhasthi (First Kannada work to win About Banu Mushtaq: Born: April 3, 1948, Hassan, Karnataka Professions: Advocate, journalist, writer, women’s rights activist, former municipal councillor Associated with: Bandaya Movement – Kannada protest literature for social justice Literary Career: Began writing in 1974, first published in Prajamatha. Reported for Lankesh Patrike (1981–1990), mentored by P. Lankesh. Transitioned to law and continued writing on gender, caste, and religious issues. Heart Lamp (2025 Winner): A collection of 12 short stories written between 1990 and 2023. Portrays the lives of ordinary South Indian Muslim women, dealing with patriarchy, faith, family, and autonomy. Translated from Kannada by Deepa Bhasthi, who also became the first Indian translator to win this prize. Other Notable Works: Benki Male (1999) – Karnataka Sahitya Academy Award Haseena Mattu Itara Kathegalu (2015) – Translated as Haseena and Other Stories Her short story “Black Cobra” was adapted into the award-winning film Hasina by Girish Kasaravalli. Incorrect Solution: c) Banu Mushtaq, a distinguished Kannada author and activist, is the author of the short story collection “Heart Lamp.” This work, translated into English by Deepa Bhasthi, was awarded the International Booker Prize in 2025. This achievement is notable as “Heart Lamp” is the first Kannada work to win this prestigious international literary award. The International Booker Prize recognizes both the author and the translator for the finest translated work of fiction. About International Booker Prize, 2025: Established: 2005 Given By: Booker Prize Foundation, UK Frequency: Annually awarded Purpose: Honors the best translated work of fiction into English from any language. Award Amount: £50,000 (shared equally between author and translator) Key Features: Focuses exclusively on translated fiction, unlike the Booker Prize which is for English-original works. Recognizes literary excellence, cultural richness, and the art of translation. Indian Winners (International Booker) Geetanjali Shree – Tomb of Sand (2022), translated by Daisy Rockwell (First Hindi work to win) Banu Mushtaq – Heart Lamp (2025), translated by Deepa Bhasthi (First Kannada work to win About Banu Mushtaq: Born: April 3, 1948, Hassan, Karnataka Professions: Advocate, journalist, writer, women’s rights activist, former municipal councillor Associated with: Bandaya Movement – Kannada protest literature for social justice Literary Career: Began writing in 1974, first published in Prajamatha. Reported for Lankesh Patrike (1981–1990), mentored by P. Lankesh. Transitioned to law and continued writing on gender, caste, and religious issues. Heart Lamp (2025 Winner): A collection of 12 short stories written between 1990 and 2023. Portrays the lives of ordinary South Indian Muslim women, dealing with patriarchy, faith, family, and autonomy. Translated from Kannada by Deepa Bhasthi, who also became the first Indian translator to win this prize. Other Notable Works: Benki Male (1999) – Karnataka Sahitya Academy Award Haseena Mattu Itara Kathegalu (2015) – Translated as Haseena and Other Stories Her short story “Black Cobra” was adapted into the award-winning film Hasina by Girish Kasaravalli.

#### 8. Question

Who is the author of the short story collection “Heart Lamp,” which won the International Booker Prize 2025?

• a) Geetanjali Shree

• b) Daisy Rockwell

• c) Banu Mushtaq

• d) Deepa Bhasthi

Solution: c)

Banu Mushtaq, a distinguished Kannada author and activist, is the author of the short story collection “Heart Lamp.” This work, translated into English by Deepa Bhasthi, was awarded the International Booker Prize in 2025. This achievement is notable as “Heart Lamp” is the first Kannada work to win this prestigious international literary award. The International Booker Prize recognizes both the author and the translator for the finest translated work of fiction.

About International Booker Prize, 2025:

• Established: 2005

• Given By: Booker Prize Foundation, UK

• Frequency: Annually awarded

• Purpose: Honors the best translated work of fiction into English from any language.

• Award Amount: £50,000 (shared equally between author and translator)

Key Features:

• Focuses exclusively on translated fiction, unlike the Booker Prize which is for English-original works.

• Recognizes literary excellence, cultural richness, and the art of translation.

• Indian Winners (International Booker)

• Geetanjali Shree – Tomb of Sand (2022), translated by Daisy Rockwell (First Hindi work to win)

• Banu Mushtaq – Heart Lamp (2025), translated by Deepa Bhasthi (First Kannada work to win

About Banu Mushtaq:

• Born: April 3, 1948, Hassan, Karnataka

• Professions: Advocate, journalist, writer, women’s rights activist, former municipal councillor

• Associated with: Bandaya Movement – Kannada protest literature for social justice

• Literary Career:

• Began writing in 1974, first published in Prajamatha.

• Reported for Lankesh Patrike (1981–1990), mentored by P. Lankesh.

• Transitioned to law and continued writing on gender, caste, and religious issues.

• Heart Lamp (2025 Winner):

• A collection of 12 short stories written between 1990 and 2023.

• Portrays the lives of ordinary South Indian Muslim women, dealing with patriarchy, faith, family, and autonomy.

• Translated from Kannada by Deepa Bhasthi, who also became the first Indian translator to win this prize.

• Other Notable Works:

• Benki Male (1999) – Karnataka Sahitya Academy Award

• Haseena Mattu Itara Kathegalu (2015) – Translated as Haseena and Other Stories

• Her short story “Black Cobra” was adapted into the award-winning film Hasina by Girish Kasaravalli.

Solution: c)

About International Booker Prize, 2025:

• Established: 2005

• Given By: Booker Prize Foundation, UK

• Frequency: Annually awarded

• Purpose: Honors the best translated work of fiction into English from any language.

• Award Amount: £50,000 (shared equally between author and translator)

Key Features:

• Focuses exclusively on translated fiction, unlike the Booker Prize which is for English-original works.

• Recognizes literary excellence, cultural richness, and the art of translation.

• Indian Winners (International Booker)

• Geetanjali Shree – Tomb of Sand (2022), translated by Daisy Rockwell (First Hindi work to win)

• Banu Mushtaq – Heart Lamp (2025), translated by Deepa Bhasthi (First Kannada work to win

About Banu Mushtaq:

• Born: April 3, 1948, Hassan, Karnataka

• Professions: Advocate, journalist, writer, women’s rights activist, former municipal councillor

• Associated with: Bandaya Movement – Kannada protest literature for social justice

• Literary Career:

• Began writing in 1974, first published in Prajamatha.

• Reported for Lankesh Patrike (1981–1990), mentored by P. Lankesh.

• Transitioned to law and continued writing on gender, caste, and religious issues.

• Heart Lamp (2025 Winner):

• A collection of 12 short stories written between 1990 and 2023.

• Portrays the lives of ordinary South Indian Muslim women, dealing with patriarchy, faith, family, and autonomy.

• Translated from Kannada by Deepa Bhasthi, who also became the first Indian translator to win this prize.

• Other Notable Works:

• Benki Male (1999) – Karnataka Sahitya Academy Award

• Haseena Mattu Itara Kathegalu (2015) – Translated as Haseena and Other Stories

• Her short story “Black Cobra” was adapted into the award-winning film Hasina by Girish Kasaravalli.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points According to the ULLAS scheme’s benchmark, a state is considered ‘fully literate’ when its literacy rate exceeds: a) 90% b) 92% c) 95% d) 99% Correct Solution: c) The concept of ‘full literacy’ for a state in India, as per the benchmark defined under the ULLAS (Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society) scheme, is achieved when its literacy rate exceeds 95%. Mizoram was declared India’s first fully literate state by achieving a literacy rate of 98.2% as per the PLFS 2023–24, surpassing this 95% threshold. The ULLAS scheme, launched for FY 2022–2027, is a centrally sponsored initiative by the Ministry of Education. It aims to promote inclusive adult education, targeting non-literates aged 15 and above, and focuses on foundational literacy and numeracy, critical life skills, basic education, vocational skills, and continuing education. This benchmark is crucial for evaluating the success of literacy programs and achieving national educational goals aligned with NEP 2020. Incorrect Solution: c) The concept of ‘full literacy’ for a state in India, as per the benchmark defined under the ULLAS (Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society) scheme, is achieved when its literacy rate exceeds 95%. Mizoram was declared India’s first fully literate state by achieving a literacy rate of 98.2% as per the PLFS 2023–24, surpassing this 95% threshold. The ULLAS scheme, launched for FY 2022–2027, is a centrally sponsored initiative by the Ministry of Education. It aims to promote inclusive adult education, targeting non-literates aged 15 and above, and focuses on foundational literacy and numeracy, critical life skills, basic education, vocational skills, and continuing education. This benchmark is crucial for evaluating the success of literacy programs and achieving national educational goals aligned with NEP 2020.

#### 9. Question

According to the ULLAS scheme’s benchmark, a state is considered ‘fully literate’ when its literacy rate exceeds:

Solution: c)

• The concept of ‘full literacy’ for a state in India, as per the benchmark defined under the ULLAS (Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society) scheme, is achieved when its literacy rate exceeds 95%. Mizoram was declared India’s first fully literate state by achieving a literacy rate of 98.2% as per the PLFS 2023–24, surpassing this 95% threshold.

• The ULLAS scheme, launched for FY 2022–2027, is a centrally sponsored initiative by the Ministry of Education. It aims to promote inclusive adult education, targeting non-literates aged 15 and above, and focuses on foundational literacy and numeracy, critical life skills, basic education, vocational skills, and continuing education. This benchmark is crucial for evaluating the success of literacy programs and achieving national educational goals aligned with NEP 2020.

Solution: c)

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Asiatic Lions: They are exclusively found in the Gir National Park in Gujarat. A distinct feature of Asiatic lions is a prominent belly fold, more so than in African lions. Their social structure involves large, complex prides similar to African lions. The 16th Asiatic Lion Census was conducted solely through direct beat verification. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. While Gir National Park is their primary habitat, the 16th census noted a notable range expansion beyond Gir forest, with stable sub-populations outside protected areas, covering 35,000 sq km across 11 districts. Statement 2 is correct. A distinguishing physical feature of Asiatic lions is a visible longitudinal fold of skin running along their belly (belly fold), which is less prominent or absent in African lions. Their mane is also generally less developed compared to their African counterparts. Statement 3 is incorrect. Asiatic lions live in small prides, which are generally lesser in size and complexity than the prides of African lions. This difference in social structure is a key behavioral distinction. Statement 4 is incorrect. The 16th Asiatic Lion Census was conducted in two phases: Phase 1 involved Direct Beat Verification, and Phase 2 was the Final Enumeration. This multi-phase approach ensures more accurate population estimation. About 16th Asiatic Lion Census: Conducted By: Gujarat Forest Department under the supervision of the State Wildlife Division. Total Lion Population: 891 lions, including 196 adult males and rest include females, sub-adults, and cubs. Area Coverage: Spanned 35,000 sq km across 58 talukas in 11 districts. Census Methodology: Conducted in two phases: Phase 1: Direct Beat Verification Phase 2: Final Enumeration Data Insights: Notable range expansion beyond Gir forest. Growing habitat connectivity and stable sub-populations outside protected areas. About Asiatic Lions (Panthera leo persica): IUCN Red List: Vulnerable (Recently it was reclassified as Vulnerable from Endangered status) CITES: Appendix I Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I Habitat: Current Range: Gir National Park and surrounding areas in the Saurashtra region of Gujarat. Historical Range: From West Bengal to Madhya Pradesh in central India, and parts of West Asia. Biological & Physical Features: Size: Males: 160–190 kg; Females: 110–120 kg. Height: Approx. 110 cm at shoulder; length up to 2.92 m (including tail). Distinct Feature: A visible belly fold, less prominent mane compared to African lions. Coat Color: Varies from sandy to buff-grey, sometimes with a silvery sheen. Social Structure: Lives in small prides, lesser in size and complexity than African lion groups. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. While Gir National Park is their primary habitat, the 16th census noted a notable range expansion beyond Gir forest, with stable sub-populations outside protected areas, covering 35,000 sq km across 11 districts. Statement 2 is correct. A distinguishing physical feature of Asiatic lions is a visible longitudinal fold of skin running along their belly (belly fold), which is less prominent or absent in African lions. Their mane is also generally less developed compared to their African counterparts. Statement 3 is incorrect. Asiatic lions live in small prides, which are generally lesser in size and complexity than the prides of African lions. This difference in social structure is a key behavioral distinction. Statement 4 is incorrect. The 16th Asiatic Lion Census was conducted in two phases: Phase 1 involved Direct Beat Verification, and Phase 2 was the Final Enumeration. This multi-phase approach ensures more accurate population estimation. About 16th Asiatic Lion Census: Conducted By: Gujarat Forest Department under the supervision of the State Wildlife Division. Total Lion Population: 891 lions, including 196 adult males and rest include females, sub-adults, and cubs. Area Coverage: Spanned 35,000 sq km across 58 talukas in 11 districts. Census Methodology: Conducted in two phases: Phase 1: Direct Beat Verification Phase 2: Final Enumeration Data Insights: Notable range expansion beyond Gir forest. Growing habitat connectivity and stable sub-populations outside protected areas. About Asiatic Lions (Panthera leo persica): IUCN Red List: Vulnerable (Recently it was reclassified as Vulnerable from Endangered status) CITES: Appendix I Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I Habitat: Current Range: Gir National Park and surrounding areas in the Saurashtra region of Gujarat. Historical Range: From West Bengal to Madhya Pradesh in central India, and parts of West Asia. Biological & Physical Features: Size: Males: 160–190 kg; Females: 110–120 kg. Height: Approx. 110 cm at shoulder; length up to 2.92 m (including tail). Distinct Feature: A visible belly fold, less prominent mane compared to African lions. Coat Color: Varies from sandy to buff-grey, sometimes with a silvery sheen. Social Structure: Lives in small prides, lesser in size and complexity than African lion groups.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about Asiatic Lions:

• They are exclusively found in the Gir National Park in Gujarat.

• A distinct feature of Asiatic lions is a prominent belly fold, more so than in African lions.

• Their social structure involves large, complex prides similar to African lions.

• The 16th Asiatic Lion Census was conducted solely through direct beat verification.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While Gir National Park is their primary habitat, the 16th census noted a notable range expansion beyond Gir forest, with stable sub-populations outside protected areas, covering 35,000 sq km across 11 districts.

• Statement 2 is correct. A distinguishing physical feature of Asiatic lions is a visible longitudinal fold of skin running along their belly (belly fold), which is less prominent or absent in African lions. Their mane is also generally less developed compared to their African counterparts.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Asiatic lions live in small prides, which are generally lesser in size and complexity than the prides of African lions. This difference in social structure is a key behavioral distinction.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The 16th Asiatic Lion Census was conducted in two phases: Phase 1 involved Direct Beat Verification, and Phase 2 was the Final Enumeration. This multi-phase approach ensures more accurate population estimation.

About 16th Asiatic Lion Census:

• Conducted By: Gujarat Forest Department under the supervision of the State Wildlife Division.

• Total Lion Population: 891 lions, including 196 adult males and rest include females, sub-adults, and cubs.

• Area Coverage: Spanned 35,000 sq km across 58 talukas in 11 districts.

• Census Methodology:

• Conducted in two phases:

• Phase 1: Direct Beat Verification Phase 2: Final Enumeration

• Phase 1: Direct Beat Verification

• Phase 2: Final Enumeration

• Data Insights:

• Notable range expansion beyond Gir forest. Growing habitat connectivity and stable sub-populations outside protected areas.

• Notable range expansion beyond Gir forest.

• Growing habitat connectivity and stable sub-populations outside protected areas.

About Asiatic Lions (Panthera leo persica):

• IUCN Red List: Vulnerable (Recently it was reclassified as Vulnerable from Endangered status)

• CITES: Appendix I

• Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I

• Habitat:

• Current Range: Gir National Park and surrounding areas in the Saurashtra region of Gujarat. Historical Range: From West Bengal to Madhya Pradesh in central India, and parts of West Asia.

• Current Range: Gir National Park and surrounding areas in the Saurashtra region of Gujarat.

• Historical Range: From West Bengal to Madhya Pradesh in central India, and parts of West Asia.

• Biological & Physical Features:

• Size: Males: 160–190 kg; Females: 110–120 kg. Height: Approx. 110 cm at shoulder; length up to 2.92 m (including tail). Distinct Feature: A visible belly fold, less prominent mane compared to African lions. Coat Color: Varies from sandy to buff-grey, sometimes with a silvery sheen. Social Structure: Lives in small prides, lesser in size and complexity than African lion groups.

• Size: Males: 160–190 kg; Females: 110–120 kg.

• Height: Approx. 110 cm at shoulder; length up to 2.92 m (including tail).

• Distinct Feature: A visible belly fold, less prominent mane compared to African lions.

• Coat Color: Varies from sandy to buff-grey, sometimes with a silvery sheen.

• Social Structure: Lives in small prides, lesser in size and complexity than African lion groups.

Solution: a)

About 16th Asiatic Lion Census:

• Conducted By: Gujarat Forest Department under the supervision of the State Wildlife Division.

• Total Lion Population: 891 lions, including 196 adult males and rest include females, sub-adults, and cubs.

• Area Coverage: Spanned 35,000 sq km across 58 talukas in 11 districts.

• Census Methodology:

• Conducted in two phases:

• Phase 1: Direct Beat Verification Phase 2: Final Enumeration

• Phase 1: Direct Beat Verification

• Phase 2: Final Enumeration

• Data Insights:

• Notable range expansion beyond Gir forest. Growing habitat connectivity and stable sub-populations outside protected areas.

• Notable range expansion beyond Gir forest.

• Growing habitat connectivity and stable sub-populations outside protected areas.

About Asiatic Lions (Panthera leo persica):

• IUCN Red List: Vulnerable (Recently it was reclassified as Vulnerable from Endangered status)

• CITES: Appendix I

• Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I

• Habitat:

• Current Range: Gir National Park and surrounding areas in the Saurashtra region of Gujarat.

• Historical Range: From West Bengal to Madhya Pradesh in central India, and parts of West Asia.

• Biological & Physical Features:

• Size: Males: 160–190 kg; Females: 110–120 kg.

• Height: Approx. 110 cm at shoulder; length up to 2.92 m (including tail).

• Distinct Feature: A visible belly fold, less prominent mane compared to African lions.

• Coat Color: Varies from sandy to buff-grey, sometimes with a silvery sheen.

• Social Structure: Lives in small prides, lesser in size and complexity than African lion groups.

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