UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 3 July 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Digital India programme: It is a flagship programme of the Ministry of Communications. The programme aims to provide digital infrastructure as a core utility only to urban citizens. e-Kranti is one of the core pillars, focusing on the electronic delivery of services like health and education. Promoting domestic electronics manufacturing is a key objective of the programme. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Digital India programme is managed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), not the Ministry of Communications. Statement 2 is incorrect. One of the core visions of Digital India is to provide digital infrastructure as a utility to every citizen, with a special focus on connecting rural and remote areas through initiatives like Broadband Highways and Universal Mobile Access. Statement 3 is correct. e-Kranti is a crucial pillar of Digital India, aimed at transforming governance by delivering a wide range of government services electronically, including those in critical sectors like education, health, and agriculture. Statement 4 is correct. ‘Electronics Manufacturing’ is one of the nine pillars of Digital India. It aims to boost domestic production of electronic goods to achieve net-zero imports, thereby creating jobs and promoting self-reliance in the electronics sector. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Digital India programme is managed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), not the Ministry of Communications. Statement 2 is incorrect. One of the core visions of Digital India is to provide digital infrastructure as a utility to every citizen, with a special focus on connecting rural and remote areas through initiatives like Broadband Highways and Universal Mobile Access. Statement 3 is correct. e-Kranti is a crucial pillar of Digital India, aimed at transforming governance by delivering a wide range of government services electronically, including those in critical sectors like education, health, and agriculture. Statement 4 is correct. ‘Electronics Manufacturing’ is one of the nine pillars of Digital India. It aims to boost domestic production of electronic goods to achieve net-zero imports, thereby creating jobs and promoting self-reliance in the electronics sector.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about the Digital India programme:

• It is a flagship programme of the Ministry of Communications.

• The programme aims to provide digital infrastructure as a core utility only to urban citizens.

• e-Kranti is one of the core pillars, focusing on the electronic delivery of services like health and education.

• Promoting domestic electronics manufacturing is a key objective of the programme.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Digital India programme is managed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), not the Ministry of Communications.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. One of the core visions of Digital India is to provide digital infrastructure as a utility to every citizen, with a special focus on connecting rural and remote areas through initiatives like Broadband Highways and Universal Mobile Access.

• Statement 3 is correct. e-Kranti is a crucial pillar of Digital India, aimed at transforming governance by delivering a wide range of government services electronically, including those in critical sectors like education, health, and agriculture.

• Statement 4 is correct. ‘Electronics Manufacturing’ is one of the nine pillars of Digital India. It aims to boost domestic production of electronic goods to achieve net-zero imports, thereby creating jobs and promoting self-reliance in the electronics sector.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Digital India programme is managed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), not the Ministry of Communications.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With reference to the RailOne App, consider the following statements: It integrates both reserved and unreserved ticketing systems into a single platform. The app was developed by the Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation (IRCTC). The app provides a discount on unreserved tickets booked using its R-Wallet feature. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The RailOne App is designed as an all-in-one platform that combines services for both unreserved ticketing (UTS) and other passenger services, reducing the need for multiple applications. The future vision also includes an upgraded Passenger Reservation System (PRS). Statement 2 is incorrect. The app was developed by the Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS), which is the IT wing of the Ministry of Railways, not by IRCTC. IRCTC is authorized to integrate its services, but CRIS is the developer. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the app is promoting digital payments. It offers a 3% discount on the base fare for unreserved tickets booked through the R-Wallet, encouraging cashless transactions. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The RailOne App is designed as an all-in-one platform that combines services for both unreserved ticketing (UTS) and other passenger services, reducing the need for multiple applications. The future vision also includes an upgraded Passenger Reservation System (PRS). Statement 2 is incorrect. The app was developed by the Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS), which is the IT wing of the Ministry of Railways, not by IRCTC. IRCTC is authorized to integrate its services, but CRIS is the developer. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the app is promoting digital payments. It offers a 3% discount on the base fare for unreserved tickets booked through the R-Wallet, encouraging cashless transactions.

#### 2. Question

With reference to the RailOne App, consider the following statements:

• It integrates both reserved and unreserved ticketing systems into a single platform.

• The app was developed by the Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation (IRCTC).

• The app provides a discount on unreserved tickets booked using its R-Wallet feature.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The RailOne App is designed as an all-in-one platform that combines services for both unreserved ticketing (UTS) and other passenger services, reducing the need for multiple applications. The future vision also includes an upgraded Passenger Reservation System (PRS).

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The app was developed by the Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS), which is the IT wing of the Ministry of Railways, not by IRCTC. IRCTC is authorized to integrate its services, but CRIS is the developer.

• Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the app is promoting digital payments. It offers a 3% discount on the base fare for unreserved tickets booked through the R-Wallet, encouraging cashless transactions.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme: The scheme is administered by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. It provides incentives to employers for a maximum period of two years across all sectors. Both first-time employees and their employers are eligible for incentives under this scheme. The incentive for employees is disbursed in a single installment after one year of continuous service. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The ELI Scheme is under the purview of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the standard incentive period for employers is two years, there is an extended benefit of up to four years for the manufacturing sector to give it a special boost. Statement 3 is correct. The scheme has two parts: Part A provides incentives to first-time salaried employees, and Part B provides incentives to employers for hiring new workers, thus covering both sides of the employment relationship. Statement 4 is incorrect. The incentive for employees is paid in two installments: the first after six months of continuous service, and the second after twelve months of service plus completion of a financial literacy course. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The ELI Scheme is under the purview of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the standard incentive period for employers is two years, there is an extended benefit of up to four years for the manufacturing sector to give it a special boost. Statement 3 is correct. The scheme has two parts: Part A provides incentives to first-time salaried employees, and Part B provides incentives to employers for hiring new workers, thus covering both sides of the employment relationship. Statement 4 is incorrect. The incentive for employees is paid in two installments: the first after six months of continuous service, and the second after twelve months of service plus completion of a financial literacy course.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme:

• The scheme is administered by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.

• It provides incentives to employers for a maximum period of two years across all sectors.

• Both first-time employees and their employers are eligible for incentives under this scheme.

• The incentive for employees is disbursed in a single installment after one year of continuous service.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The ELI Scheme is under the purview of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the standard incentive period for employers is two years, there is an extended benefit of up to four years for the manufacturing sector to give it a special boost.

• Statement 3 is correct. The scheme has two parts: Part A provides incentives to first-time salaried employees, and Part B provides incentives to employers for hiring new workers, thus covering both sides of the employment relationship.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The incentive for employees is paid in two installments: the first after six months of continuous service, and the second after twelve months of service plus completion of a financial literacy course.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The ELI Scheme is under the purview of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to the Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI), consider the following statements: SECI was established to implement the National Action Plan on Climate Change. It operates exclusively in the solar energy sector. SECI acts as a turnkey project developer for Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs). Its ‘Navratna’ status allows it to make investment decisions without any upper limit. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. SECI was established in 2011 specifically to implement the National Solar Mission (NSM), which is one of the eight missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change, not the entire plan itself. Statement 2 is incorrect. Although initially focused on solar energy, SECI’s mandate has expanded to cover the entire renewable energy spectrum, including wind, hybrid, and Round-the-Clock (RTC) power projects. It is slated to be renamed the Renewable Energy Corporation of India (RECI). Statement 3 is correct. One of the key functions of SECI is to provide turnkey project development services for various PSUs, helping them set up renewable energy plants from concept to commissioning. Statement 4 is incorrect. While its Navratna status (2024) grants significant financial autonomy, it allows SECI to invest up to ₹1,000 crore without seeking central government approval. There is an upper limit, not unlimited investment power. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. SECI was established in 2011 specifically to implement the National Solar Mission (NSM), which is one of the eight missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change, not the entire plan itself. Statement 2 is incorrect. Although initially focused on solar energy, SECI’s mandate has expanded to cover the entire renewable energy spectrum, including wind, hybrid, and Round-the-Clock (RTC) power projects. It is slated to be renamed the Renewable Energy Corporation of India (RECI). Statement 3 is correct. One of the key functions of SECI is to provide turnkey project development services for various PSUs, helping them set up renewable energy plants from concept to commissioning. Statement 4 is incorrect. While its Navratna status (2024) grants significant financial autonomy, it allows SECI to invest up to ₹1,000 crore without seeking central government approval. There is an upper limit, not unlimited investment power.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI), consider the following statements:

• SECI was established to implement the National Action Plan on Climate Change.

• It operates exclusively in the solar energy sector.

• SECI acts as a turnkey project developer for Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).

• Its ‘Navratna’ status allows it to make investment decisions without any upper limit.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. SECI was established in 2011 specifically to implement the National Solar Mission (NSM), which is one of the eight missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change, not the entire plan itself.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Although initially focused on solar energy, SECI’s mandate has expanded to cover the entire renewable energy spectrum, including wind, hybrid, and Round-the-Clock (RTC) power projects. It is slated to be renamed the Renewable Energy Corporation of India (RECI).

• Statement 3 is correct. One of the key functions of SECI is to provide turnkey project development services for various PSUs, helping them set up renewable energy plants from concept to commissioning.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. While its Navratna status (2024) grants significant financial autonomy, it allows SECI to invest up to ₹1,000 crore without seeking central government approval. There is an upper limit, not unlimited investment power.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Project 17A frigates: They are a follow-on class to the Talwar-class frigates. These frigates are being constructed exclusively by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd (MDL). They feature advanced stealth characteristics and a high percentage of indigenous content. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Project 17A frigates are a follow-on class to the Shivalik-class (Project 17) frigates, not the Talwar-class. The Shivalik-class was the first class of stealth frigates built in India. Statement 2 is incorrect. The construction of the seven frigates under Project 17A is divided between two shipyards: Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd (MDL) in Mumbai and Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE) in Kolkata. Statement 3 is correct. The defining features of Project 17A ships are their enhanced stealth design to reduce radar cross-section and their high level of indigenization. Around 75% of the orders for equipment and systems are from indigenous firms, aligning with the ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ initiative. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Project 17A frigates are a follow-on class to the Shivalik-class (Project 17) frigates, not the Talwar-class. The Shivalik-class was the first class of stealth frigates built in India. Statement 2 is incorrect. The construction of the seven frigates under Project 17A is divided between two shipyards: Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd (MDL) in Mumbai and Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE) in Kolkata. Statement 3 is correct. The defining features of Project 17A ships are their enhanced stealth design to reduce radar cross-section and their high level of indigenization. Around 75% of the orders for equipment and systems are from indigenous firms, aligning with the ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ initiative.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Project 17A frigates:

• They are a follow-on class to the Talwar-class frigates.

• These frigates are being constructed exclusively by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd (MDL).

• They feature advanced stealth characteristics and a high percentage of indigenous content.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Project 17A frigates are a follow-on class to the Shivalik-class (Project 17) frigates, not the Talwar-class. The Shivalik-class was the first class of stealth frigates built in India.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The construction of the seven frigates under Project 17A is divided between two shipyards: Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd (MDL) in Mumbai and Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE) in Kolkata.

• Statement 3 is correct. The defining features of Project 17A ships are their enhanced stealth design to reduce radar cross-section and their high level of indigenization. Around 75% of the orders for equipment and systems are from indigenous firms, aligning with the ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ initiative.

Solution: A

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following actions taken by a company: Offering a voluntary exit programme with severance benefits. Dissolving specific teams and departments, leading to redundancies. Mandating a strict return-to-office policy for employees hired for remote work. Implementing performance improvement plans with stringent targets. How many of the above can be considered methods of ‘backdoor layoffs’? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D ‘Backdoor layoffs’ refer to indirect strategies used by companies to reduce their workforce without resorting to formal, declared layoffs. All four actions fit this description: Voluntary Exit Programmes (VEP): These entice employees to resign in exchange for a financial package, effectively reducing headcount without formal terminations. Strategic Role Dissolution: By eliminating entire teams or functions, companies force employees out as their roles cease to exist. Enforcing Unfavourable Work Conditions: Changing work terms, such as forcing remote workers back to the office, can create conditions that prompt employees to resign, achieving the goal of downsizing. Stringent Performance Plans: While legitimate in principle, these can be used to push out employees by setting unachievable goals, leading them to either resign or be terminated for performance issues, which is different from a layoff. Incorrect Solution: D ‘Backdoor layoffs’ refer to indirect strategies used by companies to reduce their workforce without resorting to formal, declared layoffs. All four actions fit this description: Voluntary Exit Programmes (VEP): These entice employees to resign in exchange for a financial package, effectively reducing headcount without formal terminations. Strategic Role Dissolution: By eliminating entire teams or functions, companies force employees out as their roles cease to exist. Enforcing Unfavourable Work Conditions: Changing work terms, such as forcing remote workers back to the office, can create conditions that prompt employees to resign, achieving the goal of downsizing. Stringent Performance Plans: While legitimate in principle, these can be used to push out employees by setting unachievable goals, leading them to either resign or be terminated for performance issues, which is different from a layoff.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following actions taken by a company:

• Offering a voluntary exit programme with severance benefits.

• Dissolving specific teams and departments, leading to redundancies.

• Mandating a strict return-to-office policy for employees hired for remote work.

• Implementing performance improvement plans with stringent targets.

How many of the above can be considered methods of ‘backdoor layoffs’?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

‘Backdoor layoffs’ refer to indirect strategies used by companies to reduce their workforce without resorting to formal, declared layoffs. All four actions fit this description:

• Voluntary Exit Programmes (VEP): These entice employees to resign in exchange for a financial package, effectively reducing headcount without formal terminations.

• Strategic Role Dissolution: By eliminating entire teams or functions, companies force employees out as their roles cease to exist.

• Enforcing Unfavourable Work Conditions: Changing work terms, such as forcing remote workers back to the office, can create conditions that prompt employees to resign, achieving the goal of downsizing.

• Stringent Performance Plans: While legitimate in principle, these can be used to push out employees by setting unachievable goals, leading them to either resign or be terminated for performance issues, which is different from a layoff.

Solution: D

‘Backdoor layoffs’ refer to indirect strategies used by companies to reduce their workforce without resorting to formal, declared layoffs. All four actions fit this description:

• Voluntary Exit Programmes (VEP): These entice employees to resign in exchange for a financial package, effectively reducing headcount without formal terminations.

• Strategic Role Dissolution: By eliminating entire teams or functions, companies force employees out as their roles cease to exist.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Santhal Rebellion (Hul) of 1855-56: The imposition of the Permanent Settlement Act which disrupted traditional land rights. The practice of forced labour known as kamioti. The introduction of a new railway line through the Santhal-inhabited Damin-i-Koh region. The active proselytization efforts by Christian missionaries in the region. How many of the above were the major causes of the Santhal Rebellion? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C The Santhal Rebellion was a response to multiple layers of exploitation. Statement 1 is correct. The Permanent Settlement Act created a new class of zamindars who aggressively seized Santhal lands, displacing them from their ancestral holdings and disrupting their communal ownership system. Statement 2 is correct. The Santhals were subjected to extreme economic exploitation, including predatory moneylending and forced labour practices like *kamioti and harwahi, which pushed them into inescapable cycles of debt bondage. Statement 3 is correct. The construction of railway lines through their territory led to further displacement and brought in an influx of outsiders (dikus), including merchants, moneylenders, and colonial agents, who intensified the exploitation. The disruption caused by railway construction was a major grievance. Statement 4 is incorrect. While missionary activity was present in some tribal areas of India, it was not a primary or direct cause of the Santhal Rebellion. The core issues were economic exploitation and land alienation by the British, zamindars, and moneylenders. Incorrect Solution: C The Santhal Rebellion was a response to multiple layers of exploitation. Statement 1 is correct. The Permanent Settlement Act created a new class of zamindars who aggressively seized Santhal lands, displacing them from their ancestral holdings and disrupting their communal ownership system. Statement 2 is correct. The Santhals were subjected to extreme economic exploitation, including predatory moneylending and forced labour practices like kamioti and harwahi, which pushed them into inescapable cycles of debt bondage. Statement 3 is correct. The construction of railway lines through their territory led to further displacement and brought in an influx of outsiders (dikus), including merchants, moneylenders, and colonial agents, who intensified the exploitation. The disruption caused by railway construction was a major grievance. Statement 4 is incorrect. While missionary activity was present in some tribal areas of India, it was not a primary or direct cause of the Santhal Rebellion. The core issues were economic exploitation and land alienation* by the British, zamindars, and moneylenders.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Santhal Rebellion (Hul) of 1855-56:

• The imposition of the Permanent Settlement Act which disrupted traditional land rights.

• The practice of forced labour known as kamioti.

• The introduction of a new railway line through the Santhal-inhabited Damin-i-Koh region.

• The active proselytization efforts by Christian missionaries in the region.

How many of the above were the major causes of the Santhal Rebellion?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

The Santhal Rebellion was a response to multiple layers of exploitation.

• Statement 1 is correct. The Permanent Settlement Act created a new class of zamindars who aggressively seized Santhal lands, displacing them from their ancestral holdings and disrupting their communal ownership system.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Santhals were subjected to extreme economic exploitation, including predatory moneylending and forced labour practices like *kamioti and harwahi*, which pushed them into inescapable cycles of debt bondage.

• Statement 3 is correct. The construction of railway lines through their territory led to further displacement and brought in an influx of outsiders (dikus), including merchants, moneylenders, and colonial agents, who intensified the exploitation. The disruption caused by railway construction was a major grievance.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. While missionary activity was present in some tribal areas of India, it was not a primary or direct cause of the Santhal Rebellion. The core issues were economic exploitation and land alienation by the British, zamindars, and moneylenders.

Solution: C

The Santhal Rebellion was a response to multiple layers of exploitation.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Estimates Committee: Statement I: The Estimates Committee is often referred to as a ‘continuous economy committee’. Statement II: The committee’s examination of government expenditure is conducted after the funds have been allocated by the Parliament, giving it a post-mortem character. Statement III: The committee can suggest alternative policies to bring about efficiency and economy in administration. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I. (b) Statement III is the correct explanation for Statement I. (c) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct explanations for Statement I. (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is a correct explanation for Statement I. Correct Solution: B Statement I is correct. The Estimates Committee is known as the ‘continuous economy committee’. This title reflects its ongoing work throughout the financial year to scrutinize government spending and suggest ways to achieve economy and efficiency. Statement II is the feature of the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), not the Estimates Committee. The PAC conducts a “post-mortem” examination of expenditure after it has occurred. The Estimates Committee examines the estimates before they are voted upon in detail by the Parliament, or at least during the financial year. Statement III is correct and is the correct explanation. The reason the committee is associated with ‘economy’ is precisely because its key function is to report on what “economies, improvements in organisation, efficiency, or administrative reform, consistent with the policy underlying the estimates” may be effected. It achieves this by suggesting alternative policies and improvements in how budgets are managed and presented. Incorrect Solution: B Statement I is correct. The Estimates Committee is known as the ‘continuous economy committee’. This title reflects its ongoing work throughout the financial year to scrutinize government spending and suggest ways to achieve economy and efficiency. Statement II is the feature of the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), not the Estimates Committee. The PAC conducts a “post-mortem” examination of expenditure after it has occurred. The Estimates Committee examines the estimates before they are voted upon in detail by the Parliament, or at least during the financial year. Statement III is correct and is the correct explanation. The reason the committee is associated with ‘economy’ is precisely because its key function is to report on what “economies, improvements in organisation, efficiency, or administrative reform, consistent with the policy underlying the estimates” may be effected. It achieves this by suggesting alternative policies and improvements in how budgets are managed and presented.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Estimates Committee:

Statement I: The Estimates Committee is often referred to as a ‘continuous economy committee’. Statement II: The committee’s examination of government expenditure is conducted after the funds have been allocated by the Parliament, giving it a post-mortem character.

Statement III: The committee can suggest alternative policies to bring about efficiency and economy in administration.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

• (b) Statement III is the correct explanation for Statement I.

• (c) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct explanations for Statement I.

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is a correct explanation for Statement I.

Solution: B

• Statement I is correct. The Estimates Committee is known as the ‘continuous economy committee’. This title reflects its ongoing work throughout the financial year to scrutinize government spending and suggest ways to achieve economy and efficiency.

• Statement II is the feature of the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), not the Estimates Committee. The PAC conducts a “post-mortem” examination of expenditure after it has occurred. The Estimates Committee examines the estimates before they are voted upon in detail by the Parliament, or at least during the financial year.

• Statement III is correct and is the correct explanation. The reason the committee is associated with ‘economy’ is precisely because its key function is to report on what “economies, improvements in organisation, efficiency, or administrative reform, consistent with the policy underlying the estimates” may be effected. It achieves this by suggesting alternative policies and improvements in how budgets are managed and presented.

Solution: B

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following is the primary principle behind using Black Soldier Fly larvae for creating livestock feed? (a) Genetic modification of insects to produce high-protein biomass. (b) Using chemical processes to extract proteins from insects for feed formulation. (c) Harvesting insects from their natural habitats to ensure organic quality. (d) Waste-to-protein bioconversion through the consumption of organic residues. Correct Solution: D The fundamental principle is waste-to-protein bioconversion. Insects like the Black Soldier Fly (BSF) larvae are exceptionally efficient at consuming and metabolizing a wide range of organic residues, including agricultural waste, food scraps, and brewery waste. In this process, they convert low-value waste materials into high-quality protein and lipid biomass. This is a biological process, not a chemical or genetic one. The larvae grow rapidly, accumulating nutrients and creating a valuable feed ingredient from resources that would otherwise be discarded. This approach aligns with the principles of a circular economy, where waste is valorized into a useful product. Incorrect Solution: D The fundamental principle is waste-to-protein bioconversion. Insects like the Black Soldier Fly (BSF) larvae are exceptionally efficient at consuming and metabolizing a wide range of organic residues, including agricultural waste, food scraps, and brewery waste. In this process, they convert low-value waste materials into high-quality protein and lipid biomass. This is a biological process, not a chemical or genetic one. The larvae grow rapidly, accumulating nutrients and creating a valuable feed ingredient from resources that would otherwise be discarded. This approach aligns with the principles of a circular economy, where waste is valorized into a useful product.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following is the primary principle behind using Black Soldier Fly larvae for creating livestock feed?

• (a) Genetic modification of insects to produce high-protein biomass.

• (b) Using chemical processes to extract proteins from insects for feed formulation.

• (c) Harvesting insects from their natural habitats to ensure organic quality.

• (d) Waste-to-protein bioconversion through the consumption of organic residues.

Solution: D

• The fundamental principle is waste-to-protein bioconversion. Insects like the Black Soldier Fly (BSF) larvae are exceptionally efficient at consuming and metabolizing a wide range of organic residues, including agricultural waste, food scraps, and brewery waste.

• In this process, they convert low-value waste materials into high-quality protein and lipid biomass. This is a biological process, not a chemical or genetic one. The larvae grow rapidly, accumulating nutrients and creating a valuable feed ingredient from resources that would otherwise be discarded.

• This approach aligns with the principles of a circular economy, where waste is valorized into a useful product.

Solution: D

• This approach aligns with the principles of a circular economy, where waste is valorized into a useful product.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which of the following statements best describes the most significant aspect of BSNL’s Quantum 5G Fixed Wireless Access (FWA)? a) It is the first 5G service to be launched in India by a public sector undertaking. b) It offers the highest internet speeds recorded in the country, surpassing all fibre-optic services. c) It represents India's first fully indigenous, SIM-less 5G FWA service, demonstrating technological self-reliance. d) It provides free internet access to rural households as part of the Digital India mission. Correct Solution: C Option c) This statement captures the two most distinctive and strategic features of the service. First, it is fully indigenous, developed under the Atmanirbhar Bharat policy, which is a major achievement in the critical telecom sector. Second, its SIM-less architecture is a novel technological implementation in the Indian context for FWA, simplifying the user experience and deployment. This combination makes it a landmark development. Incorrect Solution: C Option c) This statement captures the two most distinctive and strategic features of the service. First, it is fully indigenous, developed under the Atmanirbhar Bharat policy, which is a major achievement in the critical telecom sector. Second, its SIM-less architecture is a novel technological implementation in the Indian context for FWA, simplifying the user experience and deployment. This combination makes it a landmark development.

#### 10. Question

Which of the following statements best describes the most significant aspect of BSNL’s Quantum 5G Fixed Wireless Access (FWA)?

• a) It is the first 5G service to be launched in India by a public sector undertaking.

• b) It offers the highest internet speeds recorded in the country, surpassing all fibre-optic services.

• c) It represents India's first fully indigenous, SIM-less 5G FWA service, demonstrating technological self-reliance.

• d) It provides free internet access to rural households as part of the Digital India mission.

Solution: C

Option c) This statement captures the two most distinctive and strategic features of the service. First, it is fully indigenous, developed under the Atmanirbhar Bharat policy, which is a major achievement in the critical telecom sector. Second, its SIM-less architecture is a novel technological implementation in the Indian context for FWA, simplifying the user experience and deployment. This combination makes it a landmark development.

Solution: C

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