UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 3 January 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the e-Bill System for fertiliser subsidies: It is an end-to-end digital platform that replaces manual, paper-based workflows for processing subsidy claims. The system allows fertiliser companies to track the status of their payment claims in real-time. The system is managed under the administrative control of the Ministry of Finance to ensure fiscal discipline. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Union Government launched the e-Bill System to streamline the disbursal of fertiliser subsidies, which is one of India’s largest subsidy outlays (approximately ₹2 lakh crore). Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The system digitizes the entire workflow, from submission to payment, enhancing transparency and accountability. It features real-time tracking, allowing companies to monitor expenditure and claim status, and employs FIFO (First-In-First-Out) processing to reduce administrative discretion and ensure fairness. However, Statement 3 is incorrect because the system is an initiative of the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, not the Ministry of Finance. While it aims to strengthen financial control and auditability, it remains under the nodal ministry responsible for the fertiliser sector. The system is significant for improving the ease of doing business for manufacturers by facilitating timely weekly payments and creating a tamper-proof audit trail. Incorrect Solution: B The Union Government launched the e-Bill System to streamline the disbursal of fertiliser subsidies, which is one of India’s largest subsidy outlays (approximately ₹2 lakh crore). Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The system digitizes the entire workflow, from submission to payment, enhancing transparency and accountability. It features real-time tracking, allowing companies to monitor expenditure and claim status, and employs FIFO (First-In-First-Out) processing to reduce administrative discretion and ensure fairness. However, Statement 3 is incorrect because the system is an initiative of the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, not the Ministry of Finance. While it aims to strengthen financial control and auditability, it remains under the nodal ministry responsible for the fertiliser sector. The system is significant for improving the ease of doing business for manufacturers by facilitating timely weekly payments and creating a tamper-proof audit trail.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the e-Bill System for fertiliser subsidies:

• It is an end-to-end digital platform that replaces manual, paper-based workflows for processing subsidy claims.

• The system allows fertiliser companies to track the status of their payment claims in real-time.

• The system is managed under the administrative control of the Ministry of Finance to ensure fiscal discipline.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Union Government launched the e-Bill System to streamline the disbursal of fertiliser subsidies, which is one of India’s largest subsidy outlays (approximately ₹2 lakh crore).

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The system digitizes the entire workflow, from submission to payment, enhancing transparency and accountability. It features real-time tracking, allowing companies to monitor expenditure and claim status, and employs FIFO (First-In-First-Out) processing to reduce administrative discretion and ensure fairness.

However, Statement 3 is incorrect because the system is an initiative of the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, not the Ministry of Finance. While it aims to strengthen financial control and auditability, it remains under the nodal ministry responsible for the fertiliser sector. The system is significant for improving the ease of doing business for manufacturers by facilitating timely weekly payments and creating a tamper-proof audit trail.

Solution: B

• The Union Government launched the e-Bill System to streamline the disbursal of fertiliser subsidies, which is one of India’s largest subsidy outlays (approximately ₹2 lakh crore).

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Line of Control (LoC) is not an internationally recognized legal border between India and Pakistan. Statement-II: The Simla Agreement of 1972 converted the earlier Ceasefire Line into the Line of Control and committed both nations to resolving disputes bilaterally. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: B Statement-I is correct because the Line of Control (LoC) is a de facto military boundary rather than a de jure international border. It emerged from the conflict over the former princely state of Jammu and Kashmir. Statement-II is also correct; the Simla Agreement of 1972, signed after the 1971 war, formally renamed the 1949 Ceasefire Line (established via the Karachi Agreement) as the Line of Control. This agreement was pivotal as it shifted the framework of the dispute from UN-mediated to bilateral resolution. However, Statement-II is not the explanation for why the LoC lacks international recognition as a border. Its lack of international status is due to the sovereignty claims maintained by both India and Pakistan over the entire region, which prevents the final delimitation of a legal international boundary. Incorrect Solution: B Statement-I is correct because the Line of Control (LoC) is a de facto military boundary rather than a de jure international border. It emerged from the conflict over the former princely state of Jammu and Kashmir. Statement-II is also correct; the Simla Agreement of 1972, signed after the 1971 war, formally renamed the 1949 Ceasefire Line (established via the Karachi Agreement) as the Line of Control. This agreement was pivotal as it shifted the framework of the dispute from UN-mediated to bilateral resolution. However, Statement-II is not the explanation for why the LoC lacks international recognition as a border. Its lack of international status is due to the sovereignty claims maintained by both India and Pakistan over the entire region, which prevents the final delimitation of a legal international boundary.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Line of Control (LoC) is not an internationally recognized legal border between India and Pakistan.

Statement-II: The Simla Agreement of 1972 converted the earlier Ceasefire Line into the Line of Control and committed both nations to resolving disputes bilaterally.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: B

• Statement-I is correct because the Line of Control (LoC) is a de facto military boundary rather than a de jure international border. It emerged from the conflict over the former princely state of Jammu and Kashmir.

• Statement-II is also correct; the Simla Agreement of 1972, signed after the 1971 war, formally renamed the 1949 Ceasefire Line (established via the Karachi Agreement) as the Line of Control. This agreement was pivotal as it shifted the framework of the dispute from UN-mediated to bilateral resolution.

• However, Statement-II is not the explanation for why the LoC lacks international recognition as a border. Its lack of international status is due to the sovereignty claims maintained by both India and Pakistan over the entire region, which prevents the final delimitation of a legal international boundary.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to Voice over WiFi (VoWiFi) technology, consider the following statements: It requires the installation of a specific third-party mobile application to route calls through a Wi-Fi network. The technology uses the IP Multimedia Subsystem (IMS) to ensure a seamless handover between Wi-Fi and cellular networks. Users can only make VoWiFi calls if they have a specialized satellite-linked SIM card. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Voice over WiFi (VoWiFi) is a modern communication technology that allows users to make voice calls and send SMS over a Wi-Fi connection. Statement 2 is correct as it utilizes the IP Multimedia Subsystem (IMS) to manage digital data packets, enabling a seamless transition (handover) to VoLTE (cellular) if the Wi-Fi signal drops. Statement 1 is incorrect because VoWiFi works natively through the phone’s default dialer and does not require any third-party apps like WhatsApp or Skype. Statement 3 is also incorrect; it uses a regular SIM card for authentication and secure login, maintaining the same identity verification as standard mobile services. The service is particularly beneficial for indoor areas or basements with poor cellular reception (signal-dark zones). BSNL’s nationwide launch aims to reduce network congestion by offloading traffic to Wi-Fi networks without imposing additional calling charges on subscribers. Incorrect Solution: A Voice over WiFi (VoWiFi) is a modern communication technology that allows users to make voice calls and send SMS over a Wi-Fi connection. Statement 2 is correct as it utilizes the IP Multimedia Subsystem (IMS) to manage digital data packets, enabling a seamless transition (handover) to VoLTE (cellular) if the Wi-Fi signal drops. Statement 1 is incorrect because VoWiFi works natively through the phone’s default dialer and does not require any third-party apps like WhatsApp or Skype. Statement 3 is also incorrect; it uses a regular SIM card for authentication and secure login, maintaining the same identity verification as standard mobile services. The service is particularly beneficial for indoor areas or basements with poor cellular reception (signal-dark zones). BSNL’s nationwide launch aims to reduce network congestion by offloading traffic to Wi-Fi networks without imposing additional calling charges on subscribers.

#### 3. Question

With reference to Voice over WiFi (VoWiFi) technology, consider the following statements:

• It requires the installation of a specific third-party mobile application to route calls through a Wi-Fi network.

• The technology uses the IP Multimedia Subsystem (IMS) to ensure a seamless handover between Wi-Fi and cellular networks.

• Users can only make VoWiFi calls if they have a specialized satellite-linked SIM card.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Voice over WiFi (VoWiFi) is a modern communication technology that allows users to make voice calls and send SMS over a Wi-Fi connection.

• Statement 2 is correct as it utilizes the IP Multimedia Subsystem (IMS) to manage digital data packets, enabling a seamless transition (handover) to VoLTE (cellular) if the Wi-Fi signal drops.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because VoWiFi works natively through the phone’s default dialer and does not require any third-party apps like WhatsApp or Skype.

• Statement 3 is also incorrect; it uses a regular SIM card for authentication and secure login, maintaining the same identity verification as standard mobile services. The service is particularly beneficial for indoor areas or basements with poor cellular reception (signal-dark zones).

• BSNL’s nationwide launch aims to reduce network congestion by offloading traffic to Wi-Fi networks without imposing additional calling charges on subscribers.

Solution: A

• Voice over WiFi (VoWiFi) is a modern communication technology that allows users to make voice calls and send SMS over a Wi-Fi connection.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because VoWiFi works natively through the phone’s default dialer and does not require any third-party apps like WhatsApp or Skype.

• BSNL’s nationwide launch aims to reduce network congestion by offloading traffic to Wi-Fi networks without imposing additional calling charges on subscribers.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Eurozone represents a subset of European Union (EU) member states that have achieved high levels of fiscal and monetary convergence. Statement II: The Maastricht Treaty of 1992 established the legal roadmap for the Economic and Monetary Union (EMU) and the single currency. Statement III: The European Central Bank (ECB) is the sole authority responsible for setting interest rates and conducting monetary policy for all 21 Eurozone members. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct; the Eurozone (or Euro area) consists of those EU countries (21 as of Bulgaria’s 2026 entry) that have adopted the Euro, requiring them to meet strict convergence criteria (inflation, fiscal deficit, etc.). Statement II is correct and explains Statement I by providing the historical and legal foundation. The Maastricht Treaty set the rules for the EMU, ensuring that only states with macroeconomic stability could join the currency union. Statement III is also correct and explains Statement I further; once a country joins the Eurozone, it relinquishes its national monetary sovereignty to the European Central Bank (ECB). The ECB’s unified policy ensures the “monetary convergence” mentioned in Statement I. Therefore, both Statement II (the legal roadmap) and Statement III (the operational mechanism) are correct and provide a comprehensive explanation of what the Eurozone represents. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct; the Eurozone (or Euro area) consists of those EU countries (21 as of Bulgaria’s 2026 entry) that have adopted the Euro, requiring them to meet strict convergence criteria (inflation, fiscal deficit, etc.). Statement II is correct and explains Statement I by providing the historical and legal foundation. The Maastricht Treaty set the rules for the EMU, ensuring that only states with macroeconomic stability could join the currency union. Statement III is also correct and explains Statement I further; once a country joins the Eurozone, it relinquishes its national monetary sovereignty to the European Central Bank (ECB). The ECB’s unified policy ensures the “monetary convergence” mentioned in Statement I. Therefore, both Statement II (the legal roadmap) and Statement III (the operational mechanism) are correct and provide a comprehensive explanation of what the Eurozone represents.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Eurozone represents a subset of European Union (EU) member states that have achieved high levels of fiscal and monetary convergence.

Statement II: The Maastricht Treaty of 1992 established the legal roadmap for the Economic and Monetary Union (EMU) and the single currency.

Statement III: The European Central Bank (ECB) is the sole authority responsible for setting interest rates and conducting monetary policy for all 21 Eurozone members.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct; the Eurozone (or Euro area) consists of those EU countries (21 as of Bulgaria’s 2026 entry) that have adopted the Euro, requiring them to meet strict convergence criteria (inflation, fiscal deficit, etc.).

• Statement II is correct and explains Statement I by providing the historical and legal foundation. The Maastricht Treaty set the rules for the EMU, ensuring that only states with macroeconomic stability could join the currency union.

• Statement III is also correct and explains Statement I further; once a country joins the Eurozone, it relinquishes its national monetary sovereignty to the European Central Bank (ECB). The ECB’s unified policy ensures the “monetary convergence” mentioned in Statement I.

• Therefore, both Statement II (the legal roadmap) and Statement III (the operational mechanism) are correct and provide a comprehensive explanation of what the Eurozone represents.

Solution: A

• Therefore, both Statement II (the legal roadmap) and Statement III (the operational mechanism) are correct and provide a comprehensive explanation of what the Eurozone represents.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The GST compensation cess was originally intended to be a permanent feature of the Indian indirect tax system to support weaker states. Statement-II: The Union government extended the levy of the compensation cess until March 2026 primarily to repay loans taken to meet revenue shortfalls during the COVID-19 pandemic. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect because the GST compensation cess was never intended to be permanent. It was introduced in July 2017 for a transitional period of five years (ending June 2022) to compensate states for any potential revenue loss due to the GST rollout. Statement-II is correct; although the five-year period ended, the cess was extended until March 31, 2026. This extension was necessary because the Centre had to borrow approximately ₹2.7 lakh crore to pay states during the COVID-19 pandemic when GST collections plummeted. The current levy of the cess is purely to service and repay that debt. Once the debt is cleared, the cess is scheduled to be phased out, which is why the Central Excise (Amendment) Act 2025 was passed—to adjust other taxes (like Excise) to ensure revenue stability after the cess disappears. Incorrect Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect because the GST compensation cess was never intended to be permanent. It was introduced in July 2017 for a transitional period of five years (ending June 2022) to compensate states for any potential revenue loss due to the GST rollout. Statement-II is correct; although the five-year period ended, the cess was extended until March 31, 2026. This extension was necessary because the Centre had to borrow approximately ₹2.7 lakh crore to pay states during the COVID-19 pandemic when GST collections plummeted. The current levy of the cess is purely to service and repay that debt. Once the debt is cleared, the cess is scheduled to be phased out, which is why the Central Excise (Amendment) Act 2025 was passed—to adjust other taxes (like Excise) to ensure revenue stability after the cess disappears.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The GST compensation cess was originally intended to be a permanent feature of the Indian indirect tax system to support weaker states.

Statement-II: The Union government extended the levy of the compensation cess until March 2026 primarily to repay loans taken to meet revenue shortfalls during the COVID-19 pandemic.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: D

• Statement-I is incorrect because the GST compensation cess was never intended to be permanent. It was introduced in July 2017 for a transitional period of five years (ending June 2022) to compensate states for any potential revenue loss due to the GST rollout.

• Statement-II is correct; although the five-year period ended, the cess was extended until March 31, 2026. This extension was necessary because the Centre had to borrow approximately ₹2.7 lakh crore to pay states during the COVID-19 pandemic when GST collections plummeted.

• The current levy of the cess is purely to service and repay that debt. Once the debt is cleared, the cess is scheduled to be phased out, which is why the Central Excise (Amendment) Act 2025 was passed—to adjust other taxes (like Excise) to ensure revenue stability after the cess disappears.

Solution: D

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to the Indian Coast Guard (ICG) vessel ‘Samudra Pratap’, consider the following statements: It is the first Pollution Control Vessel (PCV) to be indigenously designed and built in India. The vessel is equipped with Dynamic Positioning (DP-1) capability for precise station-keeping. It has the primary mandate of conducting deep-sea mining exploration in the Indian Ocean. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) recently inducted Samudra Pratap, which is a milestone in maritime environmental protection. Statement 1 is correct: It is indeed the first Pollution Control Vessel (PCV) to be indigenously designed and constructed in India, specifically by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL). Statement 2 is correct: A standout feature of this ship is the Dynamic Positioning (DP-1) capability. This allows the vessel to maintain a precise position and heading even in rough sea conditions, which is critical during delicate oil spill response operations. Statement 3 is incorrect: The vessel’s mandate is focused on marine environmental protection, oil-spill response, and firefighting. It is not designed for deep-sea mining exploration. The ship is the largest in the ICG fleet and carries advanced equipment like oil fingerprinting machines and viscous oil recovery tools, enhancing India’s preparedness for ecological disasters within its Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ). Incorrect Solution: C The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) recently inducted Samudra Pratap, which is a milestone in maritime environmental protection. Statement 1 is correct: It is indeed the first Pollution Control Vessel (PCV) to be indigenously designed and constructed in India, specifically by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL). Statement 2 is correct: A standout feature of this ship is the Dynamic Positioning (DP-1) capability. This allows the vessel to maintain a precise position and heading even in rough sea conditions, which is critical during delicate oil spill response operations. Statement 3 is incorrect: The vessel’s mandate is focused on marine environmental protection, oil-spill response, and firefighting. It is not designed for deep-sea mining exploration. The ship is the largest in the ICG fleet and carries advanced equipment like oil fingerprinting machines and viscous oil recovery tools, enhancing India’s preparedness for ecological disasters within its Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ).

#### 6. Question

With reference to the Indian Coast Guard (ICG) vessel ‘Samudra Pratap’, consider the following statements:

• It is the first Pollution Control Vessel (PCV) to be indigenously designed and built in India.

• The vessel is equipped with Dynamic Positioning (DP-1) capability for precise station-keeping.

• It has the primary mandate of conducting deep-sea mining exploration in the Indian Ocean.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) recently inducted Samudra Pratap, which is a milestone in maritime environmental protection.

• Statement 1 is correct: It is indeed the first Pollution Control Vessel (PCV) to be indigenously designed and constructed in India, specifically by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL).

• Statement 2 is correct: A standout feature of this ship is the Dynamic Positioning (DP-1) capability. This allows the vessel to maintain a precise position and heading even in rough sea conditions, which is critical during delicate oil spill response operations.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The vessel’s mandate is focused on marine environmental protection, oil-spill response, and firefighting. It is not designed for deep-sea mining exploration.

• The ship is the largest in the ICG fleet and carries advanced equipment like oil fingerprinting machines and viscous oil recovery tools, enhancing India’s preparedness for ecological disasters within its Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ).

Solution: C

The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) recently inducted Samudra Pratap, which is a milestone in maritime environmental protection.

• Statement 1 is correct: It is indeed the first Pollution Control Vessel (PCV) to be indigenously designed and constructed in India, specifically by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL).

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The vessel’s mandate is focused on marine environmental protection, oil-spill response, and firefighting. It is not designed for deep-sea mining exploration.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Quality Council of India (QCI). Statement I: The Quality Council of India (QCI) helps Indian exporters overcome Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT) under the WTO. Statement II: QCI maintains international linkages and mutual recognition agreements with global bodies like the International Laboratory Accreditation Cooperation (ILAC). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct: One of the core functions of the QCI is to facilitate trade by ensuring that Indian goods meet internationally acceptable standards, thereby overcoming TBT (Technical Barriers to Trade) and SPS (Sanitary and Phytosanitary) barriers under the WTO framework. Statement II is correct: The QCI maintains linkages with international bodies like ILAC (International Laboratory Accreditation Cooperation) and IAF (International Accreditation Forum). Because the QCI has these international linkages and Mutual Recognition Agreements, the certificates and accreditations issued in India are accepted globally. This global acceptance is precisely what allows Indian exporters to bypass technical barriers in foreign markets. Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct: One of the core functions of the QCI is to facilitate trade by ensuring that Indian goods meet internationally acceptable standards, thereby overcoming TBT (Technical Barriers to Trade) and SPS (Sanitary and Phytosanitary) barriers under the WTO framework. Statement II is correct: The QCI maintains linkages with international bodies like ILAC (International Laboratory Accreditation Cooperation) and IAF (International Accreditation Forum). Because the QCI has these international linkages and Mutual Recognition Agreements, the certificates and accreditations issued in India are accepted globally. This global acceptance is precisely what allows Indian exporters to bypass technical barriers in foreign markets. Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Quality Council of India (QCI).

Statement I: The Quality Council of India (QCI) helps Indian exporters overcome Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT) under the WTO.

Statement II: QCI maintains international linkages and mutual recognition agreements with global bodies like the International Laboratory Accreditation Cooperation (ILAC).

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct: One of the core functions of the QCI is to facilitate trade by ensuring that Indian goods meet internationally acceptable standards, thereby overcoming TBT (Technical Barriers to Trade) and SPS (Sanitary and Phytosanitary) barriers under the WTO framework.

• Statement II is correct: The QCI maintains linkages with international bodies like ILAC (International Laboratory Accreditation Cooperation) and IAF (International Accreditation Forum).

• Because the QCI has these international linkages and Mutual Recognition Agreements, the certificates and accreditations issued in India are accepted globally. This global acceptance is precisely what allows Indian exporters to bypass technical barriers in foreign markets.

• Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

Solution: A

• Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following are the functions of the newly constituted Bureau of Port Security (BoPS)? Enforcing compliance with the International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code. Establishing a dedicated division for the cybersecurity of port IT systems. Conducting oil fingerprinting and marine pollution laboratory analysis. Implementing risk-based, graded security measures across major and non-major ports. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only Correct Solution: D Points 1, 2, and 4 are correct: The BoPS is tasked with regulatory oversight, including the ISPS Code (international framework for ship/port security), establishing a cybersecurity division to protect digital infrastructure, and implementing graded security across all ports. Point 3 is incorrect: Oil fingerprinting and pollution analysis are functions of specialized vessels like Samudra Pratap and the Indian Coast Guard’s environmental wing, not the Bureau of Port Security. The BoPS is focused on security threats like terrorism, smuggling, and piracy. The BoPS acts as a nodal body to bridge gaps between the Coast Guard, Navy, and CISF, ensuring a resilient maritime security environment in line with Maritime India Vision 2030. Incorrect Solution: D Points 1, 2, and 4 are correct: The BoPS is tasked with regulatory oversight, including the ISPS Code (international framework for ship/port security), establishing a cybersecurity division to protect digital infrastructure, and implementing graded security across all ports. Point 3 is incorrect: Oil fingerprinting and pollution analysis are functions of specialized vessels like Samudra Pratap and the Indian Coast Guard’s environmental wing, not the Bureau of Port Security. The BoPS is focused on security threats like terrorism, smuggling, and piracy. The BoPS acts as a nodal body to bridge gaps between the Coast Guard, Navy, and CISF, ensuring a resilient maritime security environment in line with Maritime India Vision 2030.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following are the functions of the newly constituted Bureau of Port Security (BoPS)?

• Enforcing compliance with the International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code.

• Establishing a dedicated division for the cybersecurity of port IT systems.

• Conducting oil fingerprinting and marine pollution laboratory analysis.

• Implementing risk-based, graded security measures across major and non-major ports.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Solution: D

• Points 1, 2, and 4 are correct: The BoPS is tasked with regulatory oversight, including the ISPS Code (international framework for ship/port security), establishing a cybersecurity division to protect digital infrastructure, and implementing graded security across all ports.

• Point 3 is incorrect: Oil fingerprinting and pollution analysis are functions of specialized vessels like Samudra Pratap and the Indian Coast Guard’s environmental wing, not the Bureau of Port Security. The BoPS is focused on security threats like terrorism, smuggling, and piracy.

• The BoPS acts as a nodal body to bridge gaps between the Coast Guard, Navy, and CISF, ensuring a resilient maritime security environment in line with Maritime India Vision 2030.

Solution: D

• The BoPS acts as a nodal body to bridge gaps between the Coast Guard, Navy, and CISF, ensuring a resilient maritime security environment in line with Maritime India Vision 2030.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points The ‘Boramani grasslands’, recently in the news for an archaeological discovery, are located in: (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Karnataka (c) Maharashtra (d) Gujarat Correct Solution: C The Boramani grasslands are located in the Solapur district of Maharashtra. This site has gained international attention due to the discovery of a 2,000-year-old circular stone labyrinth, the largest of its kind in India. The semi-arid ecosystem of these grasslands contributed to the preservation of the stone circuits over two millennia. Archaeologists believe the location was strategic, serving as a landmark for merchants traveling between the Deccan hinterland and the Arabian Sea ports during the Satavahana period. Incorrect Solution: C The Boramani grasslands are located in the Solapur district of Maharashtra. This site has gained international attention due to the discovery of a 2,000-year-old circular stone labyrinth, the largest of its kind in India. The semi-arid ecosystem of these grasslands contributed to the preservation of the stone circuits over two millennia. Archaeologists believe the location was strategic, serving as a landmark for merchants traveling between the Deccan hinterland and the Arabian Sea ports during the Satavahana period.

#### 9. Question

The ‘Boramani grasslands’, recently in the news for an archaeological discovery, are located in:

• (a) Tamil Nadu

• (b) Karnataka

• (c) Maharashtra

• (d) Gujarat

Solution: C

• The Boramani grasslands are located in the Solapur district of Maharashtra.

• This site has gained international attention due to the discovery of a 2,000-year-old circular stone labyrinth, the largest of its kind in India.

• The semi-arid ecosystem of these grasslands contributed to the preservation of the stone circuits over two millennia.

• Archaeologists believe the location was strategic, serving as a landmark for merchants traveling between the Deccan hinterland and the Arabian Sea ports during the Satavahana period.

Solution: C

• The Boramani grasslands are located in the Solapur district of Maharashtra.

• This site has gained international attention due to the discovery of a 2,000-year-old circular stone labyrinth, the largest of its kind in India.

• The semi-arid ecosystem of these grasslands contributed to the preservation of the stone circuits over two millennia.

• Archaeologists believe the location was strategic, serving as a landmark for merchants traveling between the Deccan hinterland and the Arabian Sea ports during the Satavahana period.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: Taiwan is part of the “Pacific Ring of Fire”. Statement II: More than two-thirds of Taiwan’s land area is dominated by the Central Mountain Range. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: B Statement I is correct: Taiwan is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, which is the most seismically and volcanically active zone in the world. This is due to its location at the boundary of tectonic plates. Statement II is correct: Geographically, the island is very rugged, with the Central Mountain Range covering over two-thirds of its territory. While both statements describe the physical geography of Taiwan, Statement II (topography) is not the reason for Statement I (tectonic location). The “Ring of Fire” status is due to plate boundaries, whereas the mountain range is a result of that tectonic activity, but the extent of the range doesn’t “explain” the Ring of Fire. Thus, they are independent facts. Incorrect Solution: B Statement I is correct: Taiwan is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, which is the most seismically and volcanically active zone in the world. This is due to its location at the boundary of tectonic plates. Statement II is correct: Geographically, the island is very rugged, with the Central Mountain Range covering over two-thirds of its territory. While both statements describe the physical geography of Taiwan, Statement II (topography) is not the reason for Statement I (tectonic location). The “Ring of Fire” status is due to plate boundaries, whereas the mountain range is a result of that tectonic activity, but the extent of the range doesn’t “explain” the Ring of Fire. Thus, they are independent facts.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Taiwan is part of the “Pacific Ring of Fire”.

Statement II: More than two-thirds of Taiwan’s land area is dominated by the Central Mountain Range.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: B

• Statement I is correct: Taiwan is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, which is the most seismically and volcanically active zone in the world. This is due to its location at the boundary of tectonic plates.

• Statement II is correct: Geographically, the island is very rugged, with the Central Mountain Range covering over two-thirds of its territory.

• While both statements describe the physical geography of Taiwan, Statement II (topography) is not the reason for Statement I (tectonic location). The “Ring of Fire” status is due to plate boundaries, whereas the mountain range is a result of that tectonic activity, but the extent of the range doesn’t “explain” the Ring of Fire. Thus, they are independent facts.

Solution: B

• Statement II is correct: Geographically, the island is very rugged, with the Central Mountain Range covering over two-thirds of its territory.

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