UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 3 April 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Technology Innovation Group (TIG) on 6G in India: The TIG was established to lay a roadmap for the development of 6G technology in India. The group includes task forces specifically focused on international standards and funding for R&D. TIG aims primarily at establishing 6G devices and networks for India without prioritizing global collaboration. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The TIG on 6G was set up to create a roadmap for 6G technology in India, covering a comprehensive plan from R&D to deployment. It includes specific task forces on spectrum management, devices and networks, multidisciplinary solutions, international standards, and funding for R&D, highlighting a structured approach toward 6G advancement. Statement 3 is incorrect, as TIG’s focus extends beyond domestic needs; it is also concerned with establishing international standards, showcasing India’s commitment to the global 6G landscape. Incorrect Solution: a) Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The TIG on 6G was set up to create a roadmap for 6G technology in India, covering a comprehensive plan from R&D to deployment. It includes specific task forces on spectrum management, devices and networks, multidisciplinary solutions, international standards, and funding for R&D, highlighting a structured approach toward 6G advancement. Statement 3 is incorrect, as TIG’s focus extends beyond domestic needs; it is also concerned with establishing international standards, showcasing India’s commitment to the global 6G landscape.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Technology Innovation Group (TIG) on 6G in India:

• The TIG was established to lay a roadmap for the development of 6G technology in India.

• The group includes task forces specifically focused on international standards and funding for R&D.

• TIG aims primarily at establishing 6G devices and networks for India without prioritizing global collaboration.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The TIG on 6G was set up to create a roadmap for 6G technology in India, covering a comprehensive plan from R&D to deployment. It includes specific task forces on spectrum management, devices and networks, multidisciplinary solutions, international standards, and funding for R&D, highlighting a structured approach toward 6G advancement.

Statement 3 is incorrect, as TIG’s focus extends beyond domestic needs; it is also concerned with establishing international standards, showcasing India’s commitment to the global 6G landscape.

Solution: a)

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about lightning rods and their mechanisms: The earth acts as a ground for lightning rods due to its low electric potential. Lightning rods ionize the surrounding air, creating a conductive path for the discharge. Franklin rods and Early Streamer Emission (ESE) rods function on the same principle of attracting lightning strikes. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Lightning rods are critical safety devices designed to protect structures from lightning strikes by providing a safe path for the discharge to the ground. Statement 1 is correct as the earth acts as a grounding mechanism due to its low electric potential, effectively neutralizing the high charges from lightning. Statement 2 is also correct because lightning rods ionize the surrounding air, lowering its electrical resistance and creating a conductive path for the lightning to safely travel to the ground. However, Statement 3 is incorrect as Franklin rods and Early Streamer Emission (ESE) rods differ fundamentally in their operational mechanisms. Franklin rods depend solely on the passive ionization of air around them, while ESE rods actively emit an upward streamer to enhance their ability to capture lightning strikes. Incorrect Solution: b) Lightning rods are critical safety devices designed to protect structures from lightning strikes by providing a safe path for the discharge to the ground. Statement 1 is correct as the earth acts as a grounding mechanism due to its low electric potential, effectively neutralizing the high charges from lightning. Statement 2 is also correct because lightning rods ionize the surrounding air, lowering its electrical resistance and creating a conductive path for the lightning to safely travel to the ground. However, Statement 3 is incorrect as Franklin rods and Early Streamer Emission (ESE) rods differ fundamentally in their operational mechanisms. Franklin rods depend solely on the passive ionization of air around them, while ESE rods actively emit an upward streamer to enhance their ability to capture lightning strikes.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about lightning rods and their mechanisms:

• The earth acts as a ground for lightning rods due to its low electric potential.

• Lightning rods ionize the surrounding air, creating a conductive path for the discharge.

• Franklin rods and Early Streamer Emission (ESE) rods function on the same principle of attracting lightning strikes.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Lightning rods are critical safety devices designed to protect structures from lightning strikes by providing a safe path for the discharge to the ground.

Statement 1 is correct as the earth acts as a grounding mechanism due to its low electric potential, effectively neutralizing the high charges from lightning.

Statement 2 is also correct because lightning rods ionize the surrounding air, lowering its electrical resistance and creating a conductive path for the lightning to safely travel to the ground.

However, Statement 3 is incorrect as Franklin rods and Early Streamer Emission (ESE) rods differ fundamentally in their operational mechanisms. Franklin rods depend solely on the passive ionization of air around them, while ESE rods actively emit an upward streamer to enhance their ability to capture lightning strikes.

Solution: b)

Lightning rods are critical safety devices designed to protect structures from lightning strikes by providing a safe path for the discharge to the ground.

Statement 1 is correct as the earth acts as a grounding mechanism due to its low electric potential, effectively neutralizing the high charges from lightning.

Statement 2 is also correct because lightning rods ionize the surrounding air, lowering its electrical resistance and creating a conductive path for the lightning to safely travel to the ground.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Bharat 6G Alliance: The Bharat 6G Alliance is a collaborative effort involving India’s domestic industry, academia, and research institutions. The alliance aims to support the development of 6G technologies and advance India’s 5G ecosystem. The alliance solely focuses on domestic innovation and is not aligned with any global 6G alliances. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 3 is incorrect. The Bharat 6G Alliance is a collaborative initiative bringing together stakeholders from industry, academia, and research sectors within India, focusing on advancing 5G and pioneering 6G product development and patent generation. This collaboration ensures that India’s technological development is rooted in domestic innovation while enhancing India’s capabilities in 5G and future 6G technologies. Statement 3 is incorrect because Bharat 6G Alliance actively aligns with international bodies such as the Next G Alliance in the United States, 6G Flagship in Finland, and South Korea’s 6G Forum, enabling India to participate in and influence global 6G standards and advancements. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 3 is incorrect. The Bharat 6G Alliance is a collaborative initiative bringing together stakeholders from industry, academia, and research sectors within India, focusing on advancing 5G and pioneering 6G product development and patent generation. This collaboration ensures that India’s technological development is rooted in domestic innovation while enhancing India’s capabilities in 5G and future 6G technologies. Statement 3 is incorrect because Bharat 6G Alliance actively aligns with international bodies such as the Next G Alliance in the United States, 6G Flagship in Finland, and South Korea’s 6G Forum, enabling India to participate in and influence global 6G standards and advancements.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Bharat 6G Alliance:

• The Bharat 6G Alliance is a collaborative effort involving India’s domestic industry, academia, and research institutions.

• The alliance aims to support the development of 6G technologies and advance India’s 5G ecosystem.

• The alliance solely focuses on domestic innovation and is not aligned with any global 6G alliances.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

The Bharat 6G Alliance is a collaborative initiative bringing together stakeholders from industry, academia, and research sectors within India, focusing on advancing 5G and pioneering 6G product development and patent generation. This collaboration ensures that India’s technological development is rooted in domestic innovation while enhancing India’s capabilities in 5G and future 6G technologies.

Statement 3 is incorrect because Bharat 6G Alliance actively aligns with international bodies such as the Next G Alliance in the United States, 6G Flagship in Finland, and South Korea’s 6G Forum, enabling India to participate in and influence global 6G standards and advancements.

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India’s National Action Plan (NAP) for Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR): It was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. NAP-AMR focuses on strengthening AMR surveillance and research capacity. It advocates a multisectoral approach, including human and environmental health. The plan mandates the reduction of antibiotic use in livestock farming. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3, and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: d) The National Action Plan (NAP) for Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) was launched in 2017. This plan, developed by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, aims to tackle AMR comprehensively. Statement 2 is correct, as NAP-AMR prioritizes strengthening AMR surveillance and research to monitor resistance trends and improve understanding. Statement 3 is also accurate, as the plan adopts a One Health approach, emphasizing the interconnectedness of human, animal, and environmental health in combating AMR. Statement 4 is correct because the plan specifically addresses reducing the misuse of antibiotics in livestock farming, a key driver of AMR in both humans and animals. These initiatives collectively aim to limit the emergence and spread of resistant microbes. Incorrect Solution: d) The National Action Plan (NAP) for Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) was launched in 2017. This plan, developed by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, aims to tackle AMR comprehensively. Statement 2 is correct, as NAP-AMR prioritizes strengthening AMR surveillance and research to monitor resistance trends and improve understanding. Statement 3 is also accurate, as the plan adopts a One Health approach, emphasizing the interconnectedness of human, animal, and environmental health in combating AMR. Statement 4 is correct because the plan specifically addresses reducing the misuse of antibiotics in livestock farming, a key driver of AMR in both humans and animals. These initiatives collectively aim to limit the emergence and spread of resistant microbes.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India’s National Action Plan (NAP) for Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR):

• It was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

• NAP-AMR focuses on strengthening AMR surveillance and research capacity.

• It advocates a multisectoral approach, including human and environmental health.

• The plan mandates the reduction of antibiotic use in livestock farming.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 3, and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d)

The National Action Plan (NAP) for Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) was launched in 2017. This plan, developed by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, aims to tackle AMR comprehensively.

Statement 2 is correct, as NAP-AMR prioritizes strengthening AMR surveillance and research to monitor resistance trends and improve understanding.

Statement 3 is also accurate, as the plan adopts a One Health approach, emphasizing the interconnectedness of human, animal, and environmental health in combating AMR.

Statement 4 is correct because the plan specifically addresses reducing the misuse of antibiotics in livestock farming, a key driver of AMR in both humans and animals. These initiatives collectively aim to limit the emergence and spread of resistant microbes.

Solution: d)

The National Action Plan (NAP) for Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) was launched in 2017. This plan, developed by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, aims to tackle AMR comprehensively.

Statement 2 is correct, as NAP-AMR prioritizes strengthening AMR surveillance and research to monitor resistance trends and improve understanding.

Statement 3 is also accurate, as the plan adopts a One Health approach, emphasizing the interconnectedness of human, animal, and environmental health in combating AMR.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following is NOT a criterion for identifying D-SIBs in India? a) Interconnectedness within the financial system b) Size relative to GDP c) Profitability ratios d) Cross-jurisdictional activity Correct Solution: c) Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) are identified in India based on their significance to the stability of the financial system. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses criteria such as size relative to GDP, which measures the bank’s scale in the economy, and cross-jurisdictional activity, reflecting its international operations. Additionally, interconnectedness within the financial system evaluates how closely the bank is linked to other institutions, and other factors like complexity and substitutability are also considered. However, profitability ratios are not a criterion for identifying D-SIBs. Profitability measures such as return on assets or equity are more relevant to assessing a bank’s financial performance but do not directly indicate its systemic importance. The focus for D-SIB classification is on a bank’s potential to impact financial stability rather than its earnings. Incorrect Solution: c) Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) are identified in India based on their significance to the stability of the financial system. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses criteria such as size relative to GDP, which measures the bank’s scale in the economy, and cross-jurisdictional activity, reflecting its international operations. Additionally, interconnectedness within the financial system evaluates how closely the bank is linked to other institutions, and other factors like complexity and substitutability are also considered. However, profitability ratios are not a criterion for identifying D-SIBs. Profitability measures such as return on assets or equity are more relevant to assessing a bank’s financial performance but do not directly indicate its systemic importance. The focus for D-SIB classification is on a bank’s potential to impact financial stability rather than its earnings.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following is NOT a criterion for identifying D-SIBs in India?

• a) Interconnectedness within the financial system

• b) Size relative to GDP

• c) Profitability ratios

• d) Cross-jurisdictional activity

Solution: c)

Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) are identified in India based on their significance to the stability of the financial system. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses criteria such as size relative to GDP, which measures the bank’s scale in the economy, and cross-jurisdictional activity, reflecting its international operations. Additionally, interconnectedness within the financial system evaluates how closely the bank is linked to other institutions, and other factors like complexity and substitutability are also considered.

However, profitability ratios are not a criterion for identifying D-SIBs. Profitability measures such as return on assets or equity are more relevant to assessing a bank’s financial performance but do not directly indicate its systemic importance. The focus for D-SIB classification is on a bank’s potential to impact financial stability rather than its earnings.

Solution: c)

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Under the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA), an area can be declared “disturbed” by: a) The Chief Minister of the State b) The Chief Justice of the High Court c) The Governor of the State, the Central Government, or the UT Administrator d) The President of India only Correct Solution: c) Under the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA), the power to declare an area “disturbed” lies with the Governor of the State, the Central Government, or the Union Territory (UT) Administrator. This designation is invoked when the situation in an area becomes severely volatile, characterized by significant law and order issues, ethnic or communal disturbances, or insurgent activities that cannot be controlled by normal administrative means. Declaring an area “disturbed” enables the armed forces to operate with special powers, such as the authority to search without a warrant, arrest without prior approval, and even use force, including lethal measures, if necessary to maintain public order. Incorrect Solution: c) Under the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA), the power to declare an area “disturbed” lies with the Governor of the State, the Central Government, or the Union Territory (UT) Administrator. This designation is invoked when the situation in an area becomes severely volatile, characterized by significant law and order issues, ethnic or communal disturbances, or insurgent activities that cannot be controlled by normal administrative means. Declaring an area “disturbed” enables the armed forces to operate with special powers, such as the authority to search without a warrant, arrest without prior approval, and even use force, including lethal measures, if necessary to maintain public order.

#### 6. Question

Under the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA), an area can be declared “disturbed” by:

• a) The Chief Minister of the State

• b) The Chief Justice of the High Court

• c) The Governor of the State, the Central Government, or the UT Administrator

• d) The President of India only

Solution: c)

Under the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA), the power to declare an area “disturbed” lies with the Governor of the State, the Central Government, or the Union Territory (UT) Administrator.

This designation is invoked when the situation in an area becomes severely volatile, characterized by significant law and order issues, ethnic or communal disturbances, or insurgent activities that cannot be controlled by normal administrative means.

Declaring an area “disturbed” enables the armed forces to operate with special powers, such as the authority to search without a warrant, arrest without prior approval, and even use force, including lethal measures, if necessary to maintain public order.

Solution: c)

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Hard corals differ from soft corals in which of the following ways? a) Hard corals are solitary organisms, while soft corals form colonies. b) Hard corals lack zooxanthellae, while soft corals rely on them. c) Hard corals are non-reef-building, while soft corals build reefs. d) Hard corals have limestone skeletons, while soft corals do not. Correct Solution: d) Hard corals and soft corals differ fundamentally in their structures and ecological roles. Hard corals, also known as stony corals, produce rigid calcium carbonate skeletons, which form the backbone of coral reefs. These skeletons provide structural support, enabling them to create expansive reef systems that serve as habitats for numerous marine species. Hard corals rely on a symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae, microscopic algae that live within their tissues, providing them with nutrients through photosynthesis. In contrast, soft corals lack these limestone skeletons, making them more flexible and often tree-like or fan-shaped in appearance. They are non-reef-building organisms and typically inhabit various marine environments, including reef areas. While soft corals also house zooxanthellae, they are less dependent on them for survival. Incorrect Solution: d) Hard corals and soft corals differ fundamentally in their structures and ecological roles. Hard corals, also known as stony corals, produce rigid calcium carbonate skeletons, which form the backbone of coral reefs. These skeletons provide structural support, enabling them to create expansive reef systems that serve as habitats for numerous marine species. Hard corals rely on a symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae, microscopic algae that live within their tissues, providing them with nutrients through photosynthesis. In contrast, soft corals lack these limestone skeletons, making them more flexible and often tree-like or fan-shaped in appearance. They are non-reef-building organisms and typically inhabit various marine environments, including reef areas. While soft corals also house zooxanthellae, they are less dependent on them for survival.

#### 7. Question

Hard corals differ from soft corals in which of the following ways?

• a) Hard corals are solitary organisms, while soft corals form colonies.

• b) Hard corals lack zooxanthellae, while soft corals rely on them.

• c) Hard corals are non-reef-building, while soft corals build reefs.

• d) Hard corals have limestone skeletons, while soft corals do not.

Solution: d)

Hard corals and soft corals differ fundamentally in their structures and ecological roles. Hard corals, also known as stony corals, produce rigid calcium carbonate skeletons, which form the backbone of coral reefs. These skeletons provide structural support, enabling them to create expansive reef systems that serve as habitats for numerous marine species.

Hard corals rely on a symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae, microscopic algae that live within their tissues, providing them with nutrients through photosynthesis.

In contrast, soft corals lack these limestone skeletons, making them more flexible and often tree-like or fan-shaped in appearance. They are non-reef-building organisms and typically inhabit various marine environments, including reef areas. While soft corals also house zooxanthellae, they are less dependent on them for survival.

Solution: d)

Hard corals rely on a symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae, microscopic algae that live within their tissues, providing them with nutrients through photosynthesis.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about India’s initiatives to tackle Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR): AMR Surveillance and Research Network (AMRSN) was established to monitor resistance in both human and veterinary sectors. National One Health Mission focuses to combat zoonotic diseases and AMR. National guidelines for infection control and antibiotic use were developed by the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC). Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: c) India has undertaken significant initiatives to address Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR). The AMR Surveillance and Research Network (AMRSN), established under the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), monitors AMR trends primarily in human health but does not yet fully integrate veterinary sectors, making statement 1 incorrect. The National One Health Mission, approved in 2022, focuses on a holistic approach to health by addressing zoonotic diseases, AMR, and other public health challenges through a coordinated strategy involving human, animal, and environmental health sectors, making statement 2 correct. Additionally, the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) has developed national guidelines on infection prevention, control, and antibiotic usage to improve stewardship practices and combat AMR in healthcare settings, making statement 3 correct. Incorrect Solution: c) India has undertaken significant initiatives to address Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR). The AMR Surveillance and Research Network (AMRSN), established under the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), monitors AMR trends primarily in human health but does not yet fully integrate veterinary sectors, making statement 1 incorrect. The National One Health Mission, approved in 2022, focuses on a holistic approach to health by addressing zoonotic diseases, AMR, and other public health challenges through a coordinated strategy involving human, animal, and environmental health sectors, making statement 2 correct. Additionally, the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) has developed national guidelines on infection prevention, control, and antibiotic usage to improve stewardship practices and combat AMR in healthcare settings, making statement 3 correct.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about India’s initiatives to tackle Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR):

• AMR Surveillance and Research Network (AMRSN) was established to monitor resistance in both human and veterinary sectors.

• National One Health Mission focuses to combat zoonotic diseases and AMR.

• National guidelines for infection control and antibiotic use were developed by the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c)

India has undertaken significant initiatives to address Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR).

The AMR Surveillance and Research Network (AMRSN), established under the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), monitors AMR trends primarily in human health but does not yet fully integrate veterinary sectors, making statement 1 incorrect.

The National One Health Mission, approved in 2022, focuses on a holistic approach to health by addressing zoonotic diseases, AMR, and other public health challenges through a coordinated strategy involving human, animal, and environmental health sectors, making statement 2 correct.

Additionally, the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) has developed national guidelines on infection prevention, control, and antibiotic usage to improve stewardship practices and combat AMR in healthcare settings, making statement 3 correct.

Solution: c)

India has undertaken significant initiatives to address Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR).

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) immunity provisions: Personnel of the armed forces cannot be prosecuted for actions under AFSPA without Union Government approval. The immunity extends to all acts committed by armed forces personnel, whether or not they are related to AFSPA. Judicial review of AFSPA-related actions is prohibited by law. Civilian complaints against actions under AFSPA can only proceed after the Union Government’s sanction. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: b) The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) provides immunity to armed forces personnel for actions taken in “good faith” under its provisions. Statement 1 is correct because any prosecution, suit, or legal proceeding against armed forces personnel for actions under AFSPA requires prior approval from the Union Government, ensuring that they are not subjected to unwarranted legal action. Statement 2 is incorrect as immunity under AFSPA is confined to acts directly connected to the duties and powers granted under the Act. It does not extend to unrelated acts that fall outside its ambit. Statement 3 is incorrect because judicial review of actions taken under AFSPA is not entirely barred. Courts can examine the legality of actions in specific cases, especially when fundamental rights are in question. Statement 4 is correct since civilian complaints against actions under AFSPA necessitate sanction from the Union Government before any legal proceedings can commence. Incorrect Solution: b) The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) provides immunity to armed forces personnel for actions taken in “good faith” under its provisions. Statement 1 is correct because any prosecution, suit, or legal proceeding against armed forces personnel for actions under AFSPA requires prior approval from the Union Government, ensuring that they are not subjected to unwarranted legal action. Statement 2 is incorrect as immunity under AFSPA is confined to acts directly connected to the duties and powers granted under the Act. It does not extend to unrelated acts that fall outside its ambit. Statement 3 is incorrect because judicial review of actions taken under AFSPA is not entirely barred. Courts can examine the legality of actions in specific cases, especially when fundamental rights are in question. Statement 4 is correct since civilian complaints against actions under AFSPA necessitate sanction from the Union Government before any legal proceedings can commence.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) immunity provisions:

• Personnel of the armed forces cannot be prosecuted for actions under AFSPA without Union Government approval.

• The immunity extends to all acts committed by armed forces personnel, whether or not they are related to AFSPA.

• Judicial review of AFSPA-related actions is prohibited by law.

• Civilian complaints against actions under AFSPA can only proceed after the Union Government’s sanction.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: b)

The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) provides immunity to armed forces personnel for actions taken in “good faith” under its provisions.

Statement 1 is correct because any prosecution, suit, or legal proceeding against armed forces personnel for actions under AFSPA requires prior approval from the Union Government, ensuring that they are not subjected to unwarranted legal action.

Statement 2 is incorrect as immunity under AFSPA is confined to acts directly connected to the duties and powers granted under the Act. It does not extend to unrelated acts that fall outside its ambit.

Statement 3 is incorrect because judicial review of actions taken under AFSPA is not entirely barred. Courts can examine the legality of actions in specific cases, especially when fundamental rights are in question.

Statement 4 is correct since civilian complaints against actions under AFSPA necessitate sanction from the Union Government before any legal proceedings can commence.

Solution: b)

The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) provides immunity to armed forces personnel for actions taken in “good faith” under its provisions.

Statement 4 is correct since civilian complaints against actions under AFSPA necessitate sanction from the Union Government before any legal proceedings can commence.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about coral reefs: Coral reefs are found only in tropical regions due to warm water conditions. Corals can survive long term without zooxanthellae under normal conditions. Coral bleaching occurs when corals expel zooxanthellae due to stress factors like rising temperatures. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Coral reefs are complex marine ecosystems primarily found in tropical regions but can also exist in colder waters, such as in the form of deep-sea corals, making Statement 1 incorrect. While tropical corals thrive in warm, shallow waters, the presence of deep-water corals in colder environments demonstrates the diversity of coral habitats. Statement 2 is incorrect because corals rely on a symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae, a type of algae, for their energy and nutrients. Zooxanthellae perform photosynthesis, providing essential nutrients to corals, which cannot survive long-term without this association under normal conditions. Statement 3 is correct as coral bleaching occurs when stressors like rising sea temperatures, pollution, or changes in water chemistry lead corals to expel zooxanthellae. Without these algae, corals lose their color and primary energy source, often leading to their death if stress persists. Incorrect Solution: b) Coral reefs are complex marine ecosystems primarily found in tropical regions but can also exist in colder waters, such as in the form of deep-sea corals, making Statement 1 incorrect. While tropical corals thrive in warm, shallow waters, the presence of deep-water corals in colder environments demonstrates the diversity of coral habitats. Statement 2 is incorrect because corals rely on a symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae, a type of algae, for their energy and nutrients. Zooxanthellae perform photosynthesis, providing essential nutrients to corals, which cannot survive long-term without this association under normal conditions. Statement 3 is correct as coral bleaching occurs when stressors like rising sea temperatures, pollution, or changes in water chemistry lead corals to expel zooxanthellae. Without these algae, corals lose their color and primary energy source, often leading to their death if stress persists.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about coral reefs:

• Coral reefs are found only in tropical regions due to warm water conditions.

• Corals can survive long term without zooxanthellae under normal conditions.

• Coral bleaching occurs when corals expel zooxanthellae due to stress factors like rising temperatures.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

Coral reefs are complex marine ecosystems primarily found in tropical regions but can also exist in colder waters, such as in the form of deep-sea corals, making Statement 1 incorrect. While tropical corals thrive in warm, shallow waters, the presence of deep-water corals in colder environments demonstrates the diversity of coral habitats.

Statement 2 is incorrect because corals rely on a symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae, a type of algae, for their energy and nutrients. Zooxanthellae perform photosynthesis, providing essential nutrients to corals, which cannot survive long-term without this association under normal conditions.

Statement 3 is correct as coral bleaching occurs when stressors like rising sea temperatures, pollution, or changes in water chemistry lead corals to expel zooxanthellae. Without these algae, corals lose their color and primary energy source, often leading to their death if stress persists.

Solution: b)

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