UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 29 October 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Electronics Components Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS): It is a flagship initiative under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to boost electronics exports. The scheme provides a uniform turnover-linked incentive for a period of ten years across all target segments. It focuses on critical components such as PCBs, Camera Modules, and Copper-Clad Laminates. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The ECMS is an initiative under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Its primary aim is to strengthen India’s domestic component-level manufacturing ecosystem and reduce import dependence, rather than just focusing on exports. Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme offers differentiated turnover-linked, capex, and hybrid incentives, not a uniform one. The tenure for the turnover-linked incentive is 6 years (with a 1-year gestation), and the capex incentive is for 5 years, not a flat ten-year period. This differentiated approach is designed to offset specific manufacturing disabilities for different types of components. Statement 3 is correct. The scheme explicitly targets segments like Printed Circuit Boards (PCBs), Camera Modules, Copper-Clad Laminates, Polypropylene Films, and capital equipment for manufacturing these components. This focus is strategic to build domestic capacity in areas with high import dependence. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The ECMS is an initiative under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Its primary aim is to strengthen India’s domestic component-level manufacturing ecosystem and reduce import dependence, rather than just focusing on exports. Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme offers differentiated turnover-linked, capex, and hybrid incentives, not a uniform one. The tenure for the turnover-linked incentive is 6 years (with a 1-year gestation), and the capex incentive is for 5 years, not a flat ten-year period. This differentiated approach is designed to offset specific manufacturing disabilities for different types of components. Statement 3 is correct. The scheme explicitly targets segments like Printed Circuit Boards (PCBs), Camera Modules, Copper-Clad Laminates, Polypropylene Films, and capital equipment for manufacturing these components. This focus is strategic to build domestic capacity in areas with high import dependence.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Electronics Components Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS):

• It is a flagship initiative under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to boost electronics exports.

• The scheme provides a uniform turnover-linked incentive for a period of ten years across all target segments.

• It focuses on critical components such as PCBs, Camera Modules, and Copper-Clad Laminates.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The ECMS is an initiative under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Its primary aim is to strengthen India’s domestic component-level manufacturing ecosystem and reduce import dependence, rather than just focusing on exports.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme offers differentiated turnover-linked, capex, and hybrid incentives, not a uniform one. The tenure for the turnover-linked incentive is 6 years (with a 1-year gestation), and the capex incentive is for 5 years, not a flat ten-year period. This differentiated approach is designed to offset specific manufacturing disabilities for different types of components.

• Statement 3 is correct. The scheme explicitly targets segments like Printed Circuit Boards (PCBs), Camera Modules, Copper-Clad Laminates, Polypropylene Films, and capital equipment for manufacturing these components. This focus is strategic to build domestic capacity in areas with high import dependence.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses: Statement-I: The Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses aims to significantly reduce India’s import dependency on countries like Myanmar and Canada. Statement-II: The Mission guarantees 100% assured procurement of all pulse crops grown by farmers by NAFED and NCCF under the PM-AASHA scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct. A key aim of the mission is to make India self-reliant (Aatmanirbhar) in pulse production. This inherently involves reducing import dependency from nations like Myanmar and Canada, which are significant sources of India’s pulse imports. The goal is to boost domestic output to replace these imports. Statement-II is incorrect. The mission’s features specify 100% assured procurement for Tur (Arhar), Urad, and Masoor—the three focus crops of the mission—by NAFED and NCCF. It does not extend this guarantee to all pulse crops (like moong, chana, etc.) grown in the country, although they are part of the broader pulse ecosystem. Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct. A key aim of the mission is to make India self-reliant (Aatmanirbhar) in pulse production. This inherently involves reducing import dependency from nations like Myanmar and Canada, which are significant sources of India’s pulse imports. The goal is to boost domestic output to replace these imports. Statement-II is incorrect. The mission’s features specify 100% assured procurement for Tur (Arhar), Urad, and Masoor—the three focus crops of the mission—by NAFED and NCCF. It does not extend this guarantee to all pulse crops (like moong, chana, etc.) grown in the country, although they are part of the broader pulse ecosystem.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses:

Statement-I: The Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses aims to significantly reduce India’s import dependency on countries like Myanmar and Canada.

Statement-II: The Mission guarantees 100% assured procurement of all pulse crops grown by farmers by NAFED and NCCF under the PM-AASHA scheme.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement-I is correct. A key aim of the mission is to make India self-reliant (Aatmanirbhar) in pulse production. This inherently involves reducing import dependency from nations like Myanmar and Canada, which are significant sources of India’s pulse imports. The goal is to boost domestic output to replace these imports.

Statement-II is incorrect. The mission’s features specify 100% assured procurement for Tur (Arhar), Urad, and Masoor—the three focus crops of the mission—by NAFED and NCCF. It does not extend this guarantee to all pulse crops (like moong, chana, etc.) grown in the country, although they are part of the broader pulse ecosystem.

Solution: C

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the PM SHRI scheme: It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a funding share of 75:25 between the Centre and general states. The scheme aims to upgrade existing schools by focusing on rote memorization and exam-centric grading. All schools in the country will be automatically upgraded under the scheme based on their UDISE+ data. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. While it is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, the funding pattern for general states is 60:40 (Centre:State), not 75:25. The 90:10 ratio applies to NE & Himalayan States, and it is 100% Central support for UTs without a legislature. The 60:40 ratio is standard for many CSS. Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme’s objective is to shift from rote methods to inquiry-driven, experiential pedagogy and from exam-centric grading to continuous, competency-linked evaluation, as mandated by the NEP 2020. Statement 3 is incorrect. Selection is not automatic. Schools are selected through a competitive challenge-mode. While UDISE+ data is used in the initial shortlisting, the process also involves field verification and approval by an expert committee, ensuring that only schools meeting the criteria are chosen to become “lighthouse schools.” Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. While it is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, the funding pattern for general states is 60:40 (Centre:State), not 75:25. The 90:10 ratio applies to NE & Himalayan States, and it is 100% Central support for UTs without a legislature. The 60:40 ratio is standard for many CSS. Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme’s objective is to shift from rote methods to inquiry-driven, experiential pedagogy and from exam-centric grading to continuous, competency-linked evaluation, as mandated by the NEP 2020. Statement 3 is incorrect. Selection is not automatic. Schools are selected through a competitive challenge-mode. While UDISE+ data is used in the initial shortlisting, the process also involves field verification and approval by an expert committee, ensuring that only schools meeting the criteria are chosen to become “lighthouse schools.”

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the PM SHRI scheme:

• It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a funding share of 75:25 between the Centre and general states.

• The scheme aims to upgrade existing schools by focusing on rote memorization and exam-centric grading.

• All schools in the country will be automatically upgraded under the scheme based on their UDISE+ data.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While it is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, the funding pattern for general states is 60:40 (Centre:State), not 75:25. The 90:10 ratio applies to NE & Himalayan States, and it is 100% Central support for UTs without a legislature. The 60:40 ratio is standard for many CSS.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme’s objective is to shift from rote methods to inquiry-driven, experiential pedagogy and from exam-centric grading to continuous, competency-linked evaluation, as mandated by the NEP 2020.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Selection is not automatic. Schools are selected through a competitive challenge-mode. While UDISE+ data is used in the initial shortlisting, the process also involves field verification and approval by an expert committee, ensuring that only schools meeting the criteria are chosen to become “lighthouse schools.”

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Dogri language: It is an Indo-Aryan language that evolved from Sanskrit and is written exclusively in its original Dogra Akkhar script. Dogri is included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. The language is spoken predominantly in the Jammu region, parts of Himachal Pradesh, and northern Punjab. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. While Dogri is an Indo-Aryan language descended from Sanskrit and was once written in the Dogra Akkhar script (during Maharaja Ranbir Singh’s time), it is no longer written exclusively in it. In the 20th century, the Devanagari script largely replaced Dogra Akkhar for writing Dogri. Statement 2 is correct. Dogri was granted constitutional recognition and added to the Eighth Schedule in 2003 (through the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act). The 2003 amendment also added Bodo, Maithili, and Santhali alongside Dogri. Statement 3 is correct. The language’s primary linguistic base is the Jammu region of the UT of Jammu & Kashmir. It is also spoken by communities in adjoining areas, including Himachal Pradesh and northern Punjab, reflecting the historical and cultural spread of the Dogra community. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. While Dogri is an Indo-Aryan language descended from Sanskrit and was once written in the Dogra Akkhar script (during Maharaja Ranbir Singh’s time), it is no longer written exclusively in it. In the 20th century, the Devanagari script largely replaced Dogra Akkhar for writing Dogri. Statement 2 is correct. Dogri was granted constitutional recognition and added to the Eighth Schedule in 2003 (through the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act). The 2003 amendment also added Bodo, Maithili, and Santhali alongside Dogri. Statement 3 is correct. The language’s primary linguistic base is the Jammu region of the UT of Jammu & Kashmir. It is also spoken by communities in adjoining areas, including Himachal Pradesh and northern Punjab, reflecting the historical and cultural spread of the Dogra community.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Dogri language:

• It is an Indo-Aryan language that evolved from Sanskrit and is written exclusively in its original Dogra Akkhar script.

• Dogri is included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

• The language is spoken predominantly in the Jammu region, parts of Himachal Pradesh, and northern Punjab.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While Dogri is an Indo-Aryan language descended from Sanskrit and was once written in the Dogra Akkhar script (during Maharaja Ranbir Singh’s time), it is no longer written exclusively in it. In the 20th century, the Devanagari script largely replaced Dogra Akkhar for writing Dogri.

• Statement 2 is correct. Dogri was granted constitutional recognition and added to the Eighth Schedule in 2003 (through the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act). The 2003 amendment also added Bodo, Maithili, and Santhali alongside Dogri.

• Statement 3 is correct. The language’s primary linguistic base is the Jammu region of the UT of Jammu & Kashmir. It is also spoken by communities in adjoining areas, including Himachal Pradesh and northern Punjab, reflecting the historical and cultural spread of the Dogra community.

Solution: C

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Ollo tribe: They are a Tibeto-Burman ethnic group found only in the Tirap district of Arunachal Pradesh. Their society is matriarchal, with leadership and land ownership passed down through the female line. The Woraang (Voorang) Festival is a significant agrarian celebration of the Ollo community. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While they are a Tibeto-Burman group native to the Tirap district, they are not found only there. The community also resides in parts of Myanmar’s Naga Self-Administered Zone, highlighting cross-border ethnic continuity. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Ollo social system is patrilineal and patriarchal. They are governed by hereditary chiefs (Lowang) and leaders (Ngongpa), with kinship and land ownership traced through the male line. Statement 3 is correct. The Woraang (Voorang) Festival is a vibrant agrarian celebration of the Ollo tribe, marked by songs, dances, and rituals that symbolize community unity and prosperity. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While they are a Tibeto-Burman group native to the Tirap district, they are not found only there. The community also resides in parts of Myanmar’s Naga Self-Administered Zone, highlighting cross-border ethnic continuity. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Ollo social system is patrilineal and patriarchal. They are governed by hereditary chiefs (Lowang) and leaders (Ngongpa), with kinship and land ownership traced through the male line. Statement 3 is correct. The Woraang (Voorang) Festival is a vibrant agrarian celebration of the Ollo tribe, marked by songs, dances, and rituals that symbolize community unity and prosperity.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the Ollo tribe:

• They are a Tibeto-Burman ethnic group found only in the Tirap district of Arunachal Pradesh.

• Their society is matriarchal, with leadership and land ownership passed down through the female line.

• The Woraang (Voorang) Festival is a significant agrarian celebration of the Ollo community.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While they are a Tibeto-Burman group native to the Tirap district, they are not found only there. The community also resides in parts of Myanmar’s Naga Self-Administered Zone, highlighting cross-border ethnic continuity.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Ollo social system is patrilineal and patriarchal. They are governed by hereditary chiefs (Lowang) and leaders (Ngongpa), with kinship and land ownership traced through the male line.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Woraang (Voorang) Festival is a vibrant agrarian celebration of the Ollo tribe, marked by songs, dances, and rituals that symbolize community unity and prosperity.

Solution: A

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of the Chief Justice of India (CJI): The process is initiated by the incumbent CJI, who recommends their successor to the Union Law Minister. The Constitution, under Article 124(2), explicitly mandates that the senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed as the CJI. The Prime Minister advises the President to make the appointment after receiving the recommendation from the Union Law Minister. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The process is initiated by the Union Law Minister, not the incumbent CJI. The Law Minister seeks the recommendation of the outgoing CJI at least one month before their retirement. The CJI’s role is to recommend, not to initiate the process. Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 124(2) governs the appointment but does not explicitly state that the “senior-most” judge must be appointed. The “seniority principle” is a convention, not a codified constitutional law. The convention has been upheld (with a few exceptions in the past) and reinforced by Supreme Court judgments (e.g., Second Judges Case), but it is not written into Article 124(2) itself. Statement 3 is correct. This describes the final stages of the process. The CJI’s recommendation is submitted by the Law Minister to the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister then advises the President, who formally appoints the CJI. This reflects the constitutional position where the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers (headed by the PM). Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The process is initiated by the Union Law Minister, not the incumbent CJI. The Law Minister seeks the recommendation of the outgoing CJI at least one month before their retirement. The CJI’s role is to recommend, not to initiate the process. Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 124(2) governs the appointment but does not explicitly state that the “senior-most” judge must be appointed. The “seniority principle” is a convention, not a codified constitutional law. The convention has been upheld (with a few exceptions in the past) and reinforced by Supreme Court judgments (e.g., Second Judges Case), but it is not written into Article 124(2) itself. Statement 3 is correct. This describes the final stages of the process. The CJI’s recommendation is submitted by the Law Minister to the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister then advises the President, who formally appoints the CJI. This reflects the constitutional position where the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers (headed by the PM).

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of the Chief Justice of India (CJI):

• The process is initiated by the incumbent CJI, who recommends their successor to the Union Law Minister.

• The Constitution, under Article 124(2), explicitly mandates that the senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed as the CJI.

• The Prime Minister advises the President to make the appointment after receiving the recommendation from the Union Law Minister.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The process is initiated by the Union Law Minister, not the incumbent CJI. The Law Minister seeks the recommendation of the outgoing CJI at least one month before their retirement. The CJI’s role is to recommend, not to initiate the process.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 124(2) governs the appointment but does not explicitly state that the “senior-most” judge must be appointed. The “seniority principle” is a convention, not a codified constitutional law. The convention has been upheld (with a few exceptions in the past) and reinforced by Supreme Court judgments (e.g., Second Judges Case), but it is not written into Article 124(2) itself.

• Statement 3 is correct. This describes the final stages of the process. The CJI’s recommendation is submitted by the Law Minister to the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister then advises the President, who formally appoints the CJI. This reflects the constitutional position where the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers (headed by the PM).

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Loktak Lake: It is the largest saltwater lake in South Asia and is listed as a Ramsar Site. The lake is characterized by its floating masses of vegetation and soil, known as phumdis, which are a natural formation. It is home to the Keibul Lamjao National Park, the natural habitat of the endangered Sangai deer. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in South Asia, not saltwater. It is a Ramsar Site. Statement 2 is correct. The lake’s most unique feature is the phumdis, which are floating mats of vegetation, soil, and organic matter. These are described as natural formations, created by the sediments and organic matter from the rivers that feed the lake. Statement 3 is correct. The lake sustains the Keibul Lamjao National Park, which is the world’s only floating national park (as it rests on a large phumdi). This park is the last natural habitat of the Sangai deer (brow-antlered deer), which is the state animal of Manipur and is listed as endangered. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in South Asia, not saltwater. It is a Ramsar Site. Statement 2 is correct. The lake’s most unique feature is the phumdis, which are floating mats of vegetation, soil, and organic matter. These are described as natural formations, created by the sediments and organic matter from the rivers that feed the lake. Statement 3 is correct. The lake sustains the Keibul Lamjao National Park, which is the world’s only floating national park (as it rests on a large phumdi). This park is the last natural habitat of the Sangai deer (brow-antlered deer), which is the state animal of Manipur and is listed as endangered.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about Loktak Lake:

• It is the largest saltwater lake in South Asia and is listed as a Ramsar Site.

• The lake is characterized by its floating masses of vegetation and soil, known as phumdis, which are a natural formation.

• It is home to the Keibul Lamjao National Park, the natural habitat of the endangered Sangai deer.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in South Asia, not saltwater. It is a Ramsar Site.

• Statement 2 is correct. The lake’s most unique feature is the phumdis, which are floating mats of vegetation, soil, and organic matter. These are described as natural formations, created by the sediments and organic matter from the rivers that feed the lake.

• Statement 3 is correct. The lake sustains the Keibul Lamjao National Park, which is the world’s only floating national park (as it rests on a large phumdi). This park is the last natural habitat of the Sangai deer (brow-antlered deer), which is the state animal of Manipur and is listed as endangered.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in South Asia, not saltwater. It is a Ramsar Site.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Maha MedTech Mission (MAHA): Statement-I: The Maha MedTech Mission (MAHA) aims to significantly reduce India’s dependency on high-cost imported medical technologies. Statement-II: The mission actively promotes industry-academia collaboration by providing substantial funding support for R&D in areas like AI-based tools, diagnostics, and implants. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The primary aim of the mission: to cut import dependence and bolster domestic capacity, aligning with national health priorities and the Atmanirbhar Bharat vision. Statement-II is correct. It provides significant funding (₹5–25 crore per project) to foster collaborations between startups, MSMEs, academia, and industry. This funding is directed at a broad scope of technologies, including diagnostics, AI/ML tools, and implants. Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The primary aim of the mission: to cut import dependence and bolster domestic capacity, aligning with national health priorities and the Atmanirbhar Bharat vision. Statement-II is correct. It provides significant funding (₹5–25 crore per project) to foster collaborations between startups, MSMEs, academia, and industry. This funding is directed at a broad scope of technologies, including diagnostics, AI/ML tools, and implants. Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Maha MedTech Mission (MAHA):

Statement-I: The Maha MedTech Mission (MAHA) aims to significantly reduce India’s dependency on high-cost imported medical technologies.

Statement-II: The mission actively promotes industry-academia collaboration by providing substantial funding support for R&D in areas like AI-based tools, diagnostics, and implants.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. The primary aim of the mission: to cut import dependence and bolster domestic capacity, aligning with national health priorities and the Atmanirbhar Bharat vision.

• Statement-II is correct. It provides significant funding (₹5–25 crore per project) to foster collaborations between startups, MSMEs, academia, and industry. This funding is directed at a broad scope of technologies, including diagnostics, AI/ML tools, and implants.

• Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. The primary aim of the mission: to cut import dependence and bolster domestic capacity, aligning with national health priorities and the Atmanirbhar Bharat vision.

• Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to the Commonwealth Games (CWG), consider the following statements: The 2030 edition, for which Ahmedabad is recommended, will mark the 100th anniversary of the Games. The final decision on the host city for the 2030 Games will be made by the Commonwealth Sport Executive Board. The event was originally named the British Commonwealth Games when it began. If selected, Ahmedabad will be the second Indian city to host the Games, following New Delhi in 2010. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The 2030 edition will mark the “100th anniversary of the Games’ inception in Hamilton, Canada (1930).” Statement 2 is incorrect. The Executive Board recommends, but the “final decision will be taken at the Commonwealth Sport General Assembly in Glasgow.” Statement 3 is incorrect. The games began as the “British Empire Games (1930)” and were later renamed the Commonwealth Games in 1978. Statement 4 is correct. India hosted the games “once before, the 2010 New Delhi Games.” Ahmedabad would be the second host city. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The 2030 edition will mark the “100th anniversary of the Games’ inception in Hamilton, Canada (1930).” Statement 2 is incorrect. The Executive Board recommends, but the “final decision will be taken at the Commonwealth Sport General Assembly in Glasgow.” Statement 3 is incorrect. The games began as the “British Empire Games (1930)” and were later renamed the Commonwealth Games in 1978. Statement 4 is correct. India hosted the games “once before, the 2010 New Delhi Games.” Ahmedabad would be the second host city.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the Commonwealth Games (CWG), consider the following statements:

• The 2030 edition, for which Ahmedabad is recommended, will mark the 100th anniversary of the Games.

• The final decision on the host city for the 2030 Games will be made by the Commonwealth Sport Executive Board.

• The event was originally named the British Commonwealth Games when it began.

• If selected, Ahmedabad will be the second Indian city to host the Games, following New Delhi in 2010.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The 2030 edition will mark the “100th anniversary of the Games’ inception in Hamilton, Canada (1930).”

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Executive Board recommends, but the “final decision will be taken at the Commonwealth Sport General Assembly in Glasgow.”

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The games began as the “British Empire Games (1930)” and were later renamed the Commonwealth Games in 1978.

• Statement 4 is correct. India hosted the games “once before, the 2010 New Delhi Games.” Ahmedabad would be the second host city.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The 2030 edition will mark the “100th anniversary of the Games’ inception in Hamilton, Canada (1930).”

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Executive Board recommends, but the “final decision will be taken at the Commonwealth Sport General Assembly in Glasgow.”

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The games began as the “British Empire Games (1930)” and were later renamed the Commonwealth Games in 1978.

• Statement 4 is correct. India hosted the games “once before, the 2010 New Delhi Games.” Ahmedabad would be the second host city.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the IUCN World Heritage Outlook 4 (2025): The report identified hunting as the most widespread and severe threat to natural World Heritage sites in Asia. The 2025 report observed a welcome decline in the overall percentage of Asian sites classified under “Significant Concern” compared to 2020. As per the report, all of India’s natural World Heritage sites, including Khangchendzonga NP, are now rated as “Significant Concern.” How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The report explicitly notes that climate change replaced hunting as the most widespread threat to Asian sites. Statement 2 is incorrect. The report highlights a worsening The share of sites with “significant concern” has risen from 26% (2020) to 30% (2025), not declined. Statement 3 is incorrect. The report gives a detailed breakdown for India. Only 3 sites (Western Ghats, Manas, Sundarbans) are under “Significant Concern.” Khangchendzonga NP is specifically mentioned as being rated “Good,” and four other sites are “Good with Some Concerns.” Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The report explicitly notes that climate change replaced hunting as the most widespread threat to Asian sites. Statement 2 is incorrect. The report highlights a worsening The share of sites with “significant concern” has risen from 26% (2020) to 30% (2025), not declined. Statement 3 is incorrect. The report gives a detailed breakdown for India. Only 3 sites (Western Ghats, Manas, Sundarbans) are under “Significant Concern.” Khangchendzonga NP is specifically mentioned as being rated “Good,” and four other sites are “Good with Some Concerns.”

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the IUCN World Heritage Outlook 4 (2025):

• The report identified hunting as the most widespread and severe threat to natural World Heritage sites in Asia.

• The 2025 report observed a welcome decline in the overall percentage of Asian sites classified under “Significant Concern” compared to 2020.

• As per the report, all of India’s natural World Heritage sites, including Khangchendzonga NP, are now rated as “Significant Concern.”

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The report explicitly notes that climate change replaced hunting as the most widespread threat to Asian sites.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The report highlights a worsening The share of sites with “significant concern” has risen from 26% (2020) to 30% (2025), not declined.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The report gives a detailed breakdown for India. Only 3 sites (Western Ghats, Manas, Sundarbans) are under “Significant Concern.” Khangchendzonga NP is specifically mentioned as being rated “Good,” and four other sites are “Good with Some Concerns.”

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The report explicitly notes that climate change replaced hunting as the most widespread threat to Asian sites.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The report highlights a worsening The share of sites with “significant concern” has risen from 26% (2020) to 30% (2025), not declined.

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