UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 29 November 2024

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Government of India Act, 1935: It provided for the establishment of a federal government. It introduced provincial autonomy. It included provisions for an independent judiciary. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct: The Act provided for a federal government structure, which aimed to distribute power between the Centre and provinces. However, the federal provisions were never fully implemented due to opposition from princely states. Statement 2 is correct: It introduced provincial autonomy, allowing provinces to govern in certain areas without interference from the central government. Governors retained discretionary powers, but elected provincial legislatures were granted control over subjects listed in the Provincial List. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Act did not establish an independent judiciary. While it created a Federal Court (precursor to the Supreme Court), the judiciary remained subject to British oversight, limiting its independence. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct: The Act provided for a federal government structure, which aimed to distribute power between the Centre and provinces. However, the federal provisions were never fully implemented due to opposition from princely states. Statement 2 is correct: It introduced provincial autonomy, allowing provinces to govern in certain areas without interference from the central government. Governors retained discretionary powers, but elected provincial legislatures were granted control over subjects listed in the Provincial List. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Act did not establish an independent judiciary. While it created a Federal Court (precursor to the Supreme Court), the judiciary remained subject to British oversight, limiting its independence.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about the Government of India Act, 1935:

• It provided for the establishment of a federal government.

• It introduced provincial autonomy.

• It included provisions for an independent judiciary.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct: The Act provided for a federal government structure, which aimed to distribute power between the Centre and provinces. However, the federal provisions were never fully implemented due to opposition from princely states.

Statement 2 is correct: It introduced provincial autonomy, allowing provinces to govern in certain areas without interference from the central government. Governors retained discretionary powers, but elected provincial legislatures were granted control over subjects listed in the Provincial List.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Act did not establish an independent judiciary. While it created a Federal Court (precursor to the Supreme Court), the judiciary remained subject to British oversight, limiting its independence.

Solution: b)

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW): The OPCW was established as part of the United Nations framework. The OPCW’s mission is limited to verifying the destruction of declared chemical weapons stockpiles. The Hague Award is presented annually to OPCW member states for achieving chemical weapons disarmament. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 only d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect: The OPCW was established in 1997 as an independent international organization, not as part of the United Nations framework. It serves as the implementing body of the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC). Statement 2 is incorrect: The OPCW’s mission is not limited to verifying the destruction of declared chemical weapons stockpiles. Its mandate includes preventing the re-emergence of chemical weapons, providing assistance and protection to member states, promoting international cooperation for peaceful uses of chemistry, and ensuring compliance with the CWC. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Hague Award, established in 2014, recognizes individuals and organizations advancing the goals of the CWC, not member states. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect: The OPCW was established in 1997 as an independent international organization, not as part of the United Nations framework. It serves as the implementing body of the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC). Statement 2 is incorrect: The OPCW’s mission is not limited to verifying the destruction of declared chemical weapons stockpiles. Its mandate includes preventing the re-emergence of chemical weapons, providing assistance and protection to member states, promoting international cooperation for peaceful uses of chemistry, and ensuring compliance with the CWC. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Hague Award, established in 2014, recognizes individuals and organizations advancing the goals of the CWC, not member states.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW):

• The OPCW was established as part of the United Nations framework.

• The OPCW’s mission is limited to verifying the destruction of declared chemical weapons stockpiles.

• The Hague Award is presented annually to OPCW member states for achieving chemical weapons disarmament.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• b) 1 and 3 only

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The OPCW was established in 1997 as an independent international organization, not as part of the United Nations framework. It serves as the implementing body of the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC).

Statement 2 is incorrect: The OPCW’s mission is not limited to verifying the destruction of declared chemical weapons stockpiles. Its mandate includes preventing the re-emergence of chemical weapons, providing assistance and protection to member states, promoting international cooperation for peaceful uses of chemistry, and ensuring compliance with the CWC.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Hague Award, established in 2014, recognizes individuals and organizations advancing the goals of the CWC, not member states.

Solution: d)

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Hague Award, established in 2014, recognizes individuals and organizations advancing the goals of the CWC, not member states.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points What is the primary aim of the International Pathogen Surveillance Network (IPSN)? a) Strengthening diagnostic laboratories in high-income countries. b) Supporting open-access pathogen repositories. c) Improving public health decision-making through pathogen genomic surveillance. d) Funding clinical trials for new vaccines. Correct Solution: c) The primary aim of IPSN is to improve public health decision-making through pathogen genomic surveillance. It tracks the evolution, spread, and impact of pathogens, providing critical data to address outbreaks and pandemics effectively. Genomic surveillance enables early detection of mutations in pathogens, helping governments and organizations develop targeted responses to potential health crises. The IPSN focuses on capacity-building in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs), ensuring equitable access to genomic tools and fostering international collaboration. While the IPSN contributes to diagnostic enhancements and vaccine research indirectly, its core objective is improving decision-making by analyzing pathogens’ genetic data. Incorrect Solution: c) The primary aim of IPSN is to improve public health decision-making through pathogen genomic surveillance. It tracks the evolution, spread, and impact of pathogens, providing critical data to address outbreaks and pandemics effectively. Genomic surveillance enables early detection of mutations in pathogens, helping governments and organizations develop targeted responses to potential health crises. The IPSN focuses on capacity-building in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs), ensuring equitable access to genomic tools and fostering international collaboration. While the IPSN contributes to diagnostic enhancements and vaccine research indirectly, its core objective is improving decision-making by analyzing pathogens’ genetic data.

#### 3. Question

What is the primary aim of the International Pathogen Surveillance Network (IPSN)?

• a) Strengthening diagnostic laboratories in high-income countries.

• b) Supporting open-access pathogen repositories.

• c) Improving public health decision-making through pathogen genomic surveillance.

• d) Funding clinical trials for new vaccines.

Solution: c)

• The primary aim of IPSN is to improve public health decision-making through pathogen genomic surveillance. It tracks the evolution, spread, and impact of pathogens, providing critical data to address outbreaks and pandemics effectively.

• Genomic surveillance enables early detection of mutations in pathogens, helping governments and organizations develop targeted responses to potential health crises.

• The IPSN focuses on capacity-building in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs), ensuring equitable access to genomic tools and fostering international collaboration.

• While the IPSN contributes to diagnostic enhancements and vaccine research indirectly, its core objective is improving decision-making by analyzing pathogens’ genetic data.

Solution: c)

• Genomic surveillance enables early detection of mutations in pathogens, helping governments and organizations develop targeted responses to potential health crises.

• The IPSN focuses on capacity-building in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs), ensuring equitable access to genomic tools and fostering international collaboration.

• While the IPSN contributes to diagnostic enhancements and vaccine research indirectly, its core objective is improving decision-making by analyzing pathogens’ genetic data.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following is the primary source of antibiotic contamination in milk? a) Antibiotic residues from treatments like mastitis control. b) Improper storage of milk at collection centers. c) Excessive use of preservatives during milk processing. d) Contaminated water used for cleaning dairy equipment. Correct Solution: a) The primary source of antibiotic contamination in milk is antibiotic residues from veterinary treatments, especially those used for controlling mastitis in dairy animals. Mastitis is a common infection in lactating animals, often treated with antibiotics. If the withdrawal period (time required for antibiotics to clear from the animal’s system) is not observed, residues can remain in the milk. Other contributing factors include improper veterinary drug use and the mixing of milk from treated and untreated animals during collection, increasing the likelihood of contamination. Incorrect Solution: a) The primary source of antibiotic contamination in milk is antibiotic residues from veterinary treatments, especially those used for controlling mastitis in dairy animals. Mastitis is a common infection in lactating animals, often treated with antibiotics. If the withdrawal period (time required for antibiotics to clear from the animal’s system) is not observed, residues can remain in the milk. Other contributing factors include improper veterinary drug use and the mixing of milk from treated and untreated animals during collection, increasing the likelihood of contamination.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following is the primary source of antibiotic contamination in milk?

• a) Antibiotic residues from treatments like mastitis control.

• b) Improper storage of milk at collection centers.

• c) Excessive use of preservatives during milk processing.

• d) Contaminated water used for cleaning dairy equipment.

Solution: a)

The primary source of antibiotic contamination in milk is antibiotic residues from veterinary treatments, especially those used for controlling mastitis in dairy animals. Mastitis is a common infection in lactating animals, often treated with antibiotics. If the withdrawal period (time required for antibiotics to clear from the animal’s system) is not observed, residues can remain in the milk.

Other contributing factors include improper veterinary drug use and the mixing of milk from treated and untreated animals during collection, increasing the likelihood of contamination.

Solution: a)

Other contributing factors include improper veterinary drug use and the mixing of milk from treated and untreated animals during collection, increasing the likelihood of contamination.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Periyar River: The Periyar River originates in the Sivagiri Hills and empties into the Arabian Sea. It powers the Idukki Dam, which is one of the largest hydroelectric projects in Kerala. The Periyar River flows into the Bay of Bengal after passing through the Vembanad Lake. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct: The Periyar River originates in the Sivagiri Hills of the Western Ghats. It flows through various regions of Kerala, including Periyar National Park, and finally empties into the Arabian Sea. Statement 2 is correct: The Periyar powers the Idukki Dam, which is among the largest hydroelectric projects in Kerala. This dam, along with the Cheruthoni and Kulamavu dams, forms a reservoir system that provides significant hydroelectricity to the state. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Periyar River does not flow into the Bay of Bengal. Instead, it empties into the Arabian Sea, making this statement factually inaccurate. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct: The Periyar River originates in the Sivagiri Hills of the Western Ghats. It flows through various regions of Kerala, including Periyar National Park, and finally empties into the Arabian Sea. Statement 2 is correct: The Periyar powers the Idukki Dam, which is among the largest hydroelectric projects in Kerala. This dam, along with the Cheruthoni and Kulamavu dams, forms a reservoir system that provides significant hydroelectricity to the state. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Periyar River does not flow into the Bay of Bengal. Instead, it empties into the Arabian Sea, making this statement factually inaccurate.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the Periyar River:

• The Periyar River originates in the Sivagiri Hills and empties into the Arabian Sea.

• It powers the Idukki Dam, which is one of the largest hydroelectric projects in Kerala.

• The Periyar River flows into the Bay of Bengal after passing through the Vembanad Lake.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct: The Periyar River originates in the Sivagiri Hills of the Western Ghats. It flows through various regions of Kerala, including Periyar National Park, and finally empties into the Arabian Sea.

Statement 2 is correct: The Periyar powers the Idukki Dam, which is among the largest hydroelectric projects in Kerala. This dam, along with the Cheruthoni and Kulamavu dams, forms a reservoir system that provides significant hydroelectricity to the state.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Periyar River does not flow into the Bay of Bengal. Instead, it empties into the Arabian Sea, making this statement factually inaccurate.

Solution: a)

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Periyar River does not flow into the Bay of Bengal. Instead, it empties into the Arabian Sea, making this statement factually inaccurate.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about the Indian Chemical Council (ICC) is incorrect? a) The ICC is the apex body representing India's chemical industry. b) The ICC promotes the Responsible Care (RC) program to ensure sustainability and safety in the chemical industry. c) The ICC exclusively represents the organic chemical industry in India. d) The ICC has launched initiatives like Nicer Globe for chemical transportation safety. Correct Solution: c) Option c is incorrect because the ICC represents a wide range of industries, including organic and inorganic chemicals, petrochemicals, fertilizers, pesticides, plastics, specialty chemicals, and more. It is not limited to the organic chemical sector. The ICC also promotes sustainability, safety, and innovation through initiatives like the Responsible Care (RC) program and Nicer Globe for safe chemical transportation. Incorrect Solution: c) Option c is incorrect because the ICC represents a wide range of industries, including organic and inorganic chemicals, petrochemicals, fertilizers, pesticides, plastics, specialty chemicals, and more. It is not limited to the organic chemical sector. The ICC also promotes sustainability, safety, and innovation through initiatives like the Responsible Care (RC) program and Nicer Globe for safe chemical transportation.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following statements about the Indian Chemical Council (ICC) is incorrect?

• a) The ICC is the apex body representing India's chemical industry.

• b) The ICC promotes the Responsible Care (RC) program to ensure sustainability and safety in the chemical industry.

• c) The ICC exclusively represents the organic chemical industry in India.

• d) The ICC has launched initiatives like Nicer Globe for chemical transportation safety.

Solution: c)

Option c is incorrect because the ICC represents a wide range of industries, including organic and inorganic chemicals, petrochemicals, fertilizers, pesticides, plastics, specialty chemicals, and more. It is not limited to the organic chemical sector. The ICC also promotes sustainability, safety, and innovation through initiatives like the Responsible Care (RC) program and Nicer Globe for safe chemical transportation.

Solution: c)

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Network Readiness Index (NRI) 2024: The NRI evaluates economies across four pillars: Technology, AI, Infrastructure, and Governance. India ranked 1st among lower-middle-income countries in the 2024 NRI. The NRI is published annually by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU). Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 3 only d) None Correct Solution: d) All three statements are incorrect: Statement 1 is incorrect: The NRI evaluates economies on four pillars: Technology, People, Governance, and Impact, not “AI” or “Infrastructure.” Statement 2 is incorrect: India ranked 2nd, not 1st, among lower-middle-income countries, with Vietnam taking the top position. Statement 3 is incorrect: The NRI is published by the Portulans Institute, a Washington-based non-profit research organization, not by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU). About Network Readiness Index 2024: Published by:Portulans Institute, a non-profit research institute based in Washington, DC. Scope:Evaluates 133 economies on four pillars: Technology, People, Governance, and Impact, across 54 variables. India’s Rank:Improved from 60th (2023) to 49th (2024), with a score increase from 49.93 to 53.63. India’s Leadership: 1st rank in AI scientific publications, AI talent concentration, and ICT services exports. 2nd rank in FTTH/Building Internet subscriptions and Mobile broadband internet traffic. 4th rank in investment in telecommunication services. Global Grouping:Ranked 2nd among lower-middle-income countries, after Vietnam Incorrect Solution: d) All three statements are incorrect: Statement 1 is incorrect: The NRI evaluates economies on four pillars: Technology, People, Governance, and Impact, not “AI” or “Infrastructure.” Statement 2 is incorrect: India ranked 2nd, not 1st, among lower-middle-income countries, with Vietnam taking the top position. Statement 3 is incorrect: The NRI is published by the Portulans Institute, a Washington-based non-profit research organization, not by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU). About Network Readiness Index 2024: Published by:Portulans Institute, a non-profit research institute based in Washington, DC. Scope:Evaluates 133 economies on four pillars: Technology, People, Governance, and Impact, across 54 variables. India’s Rank:Improved from 60th (2023) to 49th (2024), with a score increase from 49.93 to 53.63. India’s Leadership: 1st rank in AI scientific publications, AI talent concentration, and ICT services exports. 2nd rank in FTTH/Building Internet subscriptions and Mobile broadband internet traffic. 4th rank in investment in telecommunication services. Global Grouping:Ranked 2nd among lower-middle-income countries, after Vietnam

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about the Network Readiness Index (NRI) 2024:

The NRI evaluates economies across four pillars: Technology, AI, Infrastructure, and Governance.

India ranked 1st among lower-middle-income countries in the 2024 NRI.

The NRI is published annually by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• b) 2 and 3 only

Solution: d)

All three statements are incorrect:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The NRI evaluates economies on four pillars: Technology, People, Governance, and Impact, not “AI” or “Infrastructure.”

Statement 2 is incorrect: India ranked 2nd, not 1st, among lower-middle-income countries, with Vietnam taking the top position.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The NRI is published by the Portulans Institute, a Washington-based non-profit research organization, not by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).

About Network Readiness Index 2024:

• Published by:Portulans Institute, a non-profit research institute based in Washington, DC.

• Scope:Evaluates 133 economies on four pillars: Technology, People, Governance, and Impact, across 54 variables.

• India’s Rank:Improved from 60th (2023) to 49th (2024), with a score increase from 49.93 to 53.63.

• India’s Leadership:

• 1st rank in AI scientific publications, AI talent concentration, and ICT services exports.

• 2nd rank in FTTH/Building Internet subscriptions and Mobile broadband internet traffic.

• 4th rank in investment in telecommunication services.

• Global Grouping:Ranked 2nd among lower-middle-income countries, after Vietnam

Solution: d)

All three statements are incorrect:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The NRI evaluates economies on four pillars: Technology, People, Governance, and Impact, not “AI” or “Infrastructure.”

Statement 2 is incorrect: India ranked 2nd, not 1st, among lower-middle-income countries, with Vietnam taking the top position.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The NRI is published by the Portulans Institute, a Washington-based non-profit research organization, not by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).

About Network Readiness Index 2024:

• Published by:Portulans Institute, a non-profit research institute based in Washington, DC.

• Scope:Evaluates 133 economies on four pillars: Technology, People, Governance, and Impact, across 54 variables.

• India’s Rank:Improved from 60th (2023) to 49th (2024), with a score increase from 49.93 to 53.63.

• India’s Leadership:

• 1st rank in AI scientific publications, AI talent concentration, and ICT services exports.

• 2nd rank in FTTH/Building Internet subscriptions and Mobile broadband internet traffic.

• 4th rank in investment in telecommunication services.

• Global Grouping:Ranked 2nd among lower-middle-income countries, after Vietnam

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the Sabal-20 Drone’s operational environment? a) It is optimized for urban surveillance in densely populated areas. b) It is designed for high-altitude and rugged terrains. c) It specializes in maritime applications and underwater operations. d) It is used exclusively for recreational and civilian photography. Correct Solution: b) The Sabal-20 Drone’s tandem rotor configuration and durability make it ideal for high-altitude, rugged terrains, and extreme conditions. It supports critical supply delivery in inaccessible areas, not urban, maritime, or recreational environments. About Sabal-20 Drone: Design: Electric unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) with variable pitch technology and large rotors, inspired by Chinook helicopters. Payload: Capable of carrying up to 20 kg, about half its own weight. Technology: Features tandem rotor configuration for improved lift and stability in high-altitude and rugged terrains. Features of Sabal-20 Drone: VTOL (Vertical take-off and landing) Technology: Enables vertical take-off and landing, suitable for confined and challenging environments. Stealth Operations: Low RPM design minimizes noise, ideal for sensitive missions. Long-Range and High-Altitude Capability: Supports delivery of critical supplies like ammunition, food, and medical equipment in inaccessible areas. Durability: Designed for tough terrains and extreme operational demands. Incorrect Solution: b) The Sabal-20 Drone’s tandem rotor configuration and durability make it ideal for high-altitude, rugged terrains, and extreme conditions. It supports critical supply delivery in inaccessible areas, not urban, maritime, or recreational environments. About Sabal-20 Drone: Design: Electric unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) with variable pitch technology and large rotors, inspired by Chinook helicopters. Payload: Capable of carrying up to 20 kg, about half its own weight. Technology: Features tandem rotor configuration for improved lift and stability in high-altitude and rugged terrains. Features of Sabal-20 Drone: VTOL (Vertical take-off and landing) Technology: Enables vertical take-off and landing, suitable for confined and challenging environments. Stealth Operations: Low RPM design minimizes noise, ideal for sensitive missions. Long-Range and High-Altitude Capability: Supports delivery of critical supplies like ammunition, food, and medical equipment in inaccessible areas. Durability: Designed for tough terrains and extreme operational demands.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following best describes the Sabal-20 Drone’s operational environment?

• a) It is optimized for urban surveillance in densely populated areas.

• b) It is designed for high-altitude and rugged terrains.

• c) It specializes in maritime applications and underwater operations.

• d) It is used exclusively for recreational and civilian photography.

Solution: b)

The Sabal-20 Drone’s tandem rotor configuration and durability make it ideal for high-altitude, rugged terrains, and extreme conditions. It supports critical supply delivery in inaccessible areas, not urban, maritime, or recreational environments.

About Sabal-20 Drone:

• Design: Electric unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) with variable pitch technology and large rotors, inspired by Chinook helicopters.

• Payload: Capable of carrying up to 20 kg, about half its own weight.

• Technology: Features tandem rotor configuration for improved lift and stability in high-altitude and rugged terrains.

Features of Sabal-20 Drone:

• VTOL (Vertical take-off and landing) Technology: Enables vertical take-off and landing, suitable for confined and challenging environments.

• Stealth Operations: Low RPM design minimizes noise, ideal for sensitive missions.

• Long-Range and High-Altitude Capability: Supports delivery of critical supplies like ammunition, food, and medical equipment in inaccessible areas.

• Durability: Designed for tough terrains and extreme operational demands.

Solution: b)

About Sabal-20 Drone:

• Design: Electric unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) with variable pitch technology and large rotors, inspired by Chinook helicopters.

• Payload: Capable of carrying up to 20 kg, about half its own weight.

• Technology: Features tandem rotor configuration for improved lift and stability in high-altitude and rugged terrains.

Features of Sabal-20 Drone:

• VTOL (Vertical take-off and landing) Technology: Enables vertical take-off and landing, suitable for confined and challenging environments.

• Stealth Operations: Low RPM design minimizes noise, ideal for sensitive missions.

• Long-Range and High-Altitude Capability: Supports delivery of critical supplies like ammunition, food, and medical equipment in inaccessible areas.

• Durability: Designed for tough terrains and extreme operational demands.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the New Moiré Superconductor: It is formed by twisting two layers of molybdenum disulfide at a small angle. Its superconducting state is achieved at room temperature. It exhibits superconductivity driven by weak electron-electron interactions. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect: The New Moiré Superconductor is formed by twisting two layers of tungsten diselenide (tWSe₂) at a small angle, creating flat energy bands essential for its superconducting properties. It does not involve molybdenum disulfide (MoS₂). Statement 2 is incorrect: Its superconducting state is achieved at –272.93º C, which is close to absolute zero, not at room temperature. Room-temperature superconductivity remains a distant goal in physics. Statement 3 is incorrect: The superconducting state in the New Moiré Superconductor is driven by strong electron-electron interactions, which play a key role in enabling its unique electronic properties. Weak interactions would not suffice to achieve this state. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect: The New Moiré Superconductor is formed by twisting two layers of tungsten diselenide (tWSe₂) at a small angle, creating flat energy bands essential for its superconducting properties. It does not involve molybdenum disulfide (MoS₂). Statement 2 is incorrect: Its superconducting state is achieved at –272.93º C, which is close to absolute zero, not at room temperature. Room-temperature superconductivity remains a distant goal in physics. Statement 3 is incorrect: The superconducting state in the New Moiré Superconductor is driven by strong electron-electron interactions, which play a key role in enabling its unique electronic properties. Weak interactions would not suffice to achieve this state.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about the New Moiré Superconductor:

• It is formed by twisting two layers of molybdenum disulfide at a small angle.

• Its superconducting state is achieved at room temperature.

• It exhibits superconductivity driven by weak electron-electron interactions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The New Moiré Superconductor is formed by twisting two layers of tungsten diselenide (tWSe₂) at a small angle, creating flat energy bands essential for its superconducting properties. It does not involve molybdenum disulfide (MoS₂).

Statement 2 is incorrect: Its superconducting state is achieved at –272.93º C, which is close to absolute zero, not at room temperature. Room-temperature superconductivity remains a distant goal in physics.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The superconducting state in the New Moiré Superconductor is driven by strong electron-electron interactions, which play a key role in enabling its unique electronic properties. Weak interactions would not suffice to achieve this state.

Solution: d)

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the International Pathogen Surveillance Network (IPSN): The IPSN is hosted by WHO and funded solely by the UN Foundation. It focuses on tracking pathogen evolution and ensuring equitable access to genomic tools. The network is limited to addressing avian flu-related genomic surveillance. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect: While the IPSN was established by the World Health Organization (WHO) through its Hub for Pandemic and Epidemic Intelligence, its funding is sourced from multiple organizations, including the Gates Foundation, The Rockefeller Foundation, Wellcome, and the UN Foundation, ensuring a collaborative approach. Statement 2 is correct: The IPSN focuses on tracking pathogen evolution, spread, and impact to enhance public health decision-making. It ensures equitable access to genomic tools, particularly in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs), to strengthen global health systems. Statement 3 is incorrect: The IPSN is not limited to addressing avian flu. Its scope includes genomic surveillance for multiple pathogen priorities, such as avian flu, wastewater surveillance, and regional pathogen-specific issues, supporting broad public health initiatives. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect: While the IPSN was established by the World Health Organization (WHO) through its Hub for Pandemic and Epidemic Intelligence, its funding is sourced from multiple organizations, including the Gates Foundation, The Rockefeller Foundation, Wellcome, and the UN Foundation, ensuring a collaborative approach. Statement 2 is correct: The IPSN focuses on tracking pathogen evolution, spread, and impact to enhance public health decision-making. It ensures equitable access to genomic tools, particularly in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs), to strengthen global health systems. Statement 3 is incorrect: The IPSN is not limited to addressing avian flu. Its scope includes genomic surveillance for multiple pathogen priorities, such as avian flu, wastewater surveillance, and regional pathogen-specific issues, supporting broad public health initiatives.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about the International Pathogen Surveillance Network (IPSN):

• The IPSN is hosted by WHO and funded solely by the UN Foundation.

• It focuses on tracking pathogen evolution and ensuring equitable access to genomic tools.

• The network is limited to addressing avian flu-related genomic surveillance.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: While the IPSN was established by the World Health Organization (WHO) through its Hub for Pandemic and Epidemic Intelligence, its funding is sourced from multiple organizations, including the Gates Foundation, The Rockefeller Foundation, Wellcome, and the UN Foundation, ensuring a collaborative approach.

Statement 2 is correct: The IPSN focuses on tracking pathogen evolution, spread, and impact to enhance public health decision-making. It ensures equitable access to genomic tools, particularly in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs), to strengthen global health systems.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The IPSN is not limited to addressing avian flu. Its scope includes genomic surveillance for multiple pathogen priorities, such as avian flu, wastewater surveillance, and regional pathogen-specific issues, supporting broad public health initiatives.

Solution: b)

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