UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 29 May 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following are correctly stated regarding Carbon Capture and Utilisation (CCU) and the Indian CCU Testbeds initiative? Direct Air Capture (DAC) is a type of carbon capture that extracts CO2 from ambient air and is known for its low cost and high efficiency. The Indian CCU testbeds are being established under a public-private partnership model with a focus on translational R&D. CCU is a subset of Carbon Capture, Utilisation, and Storage (CCUS), where the ‘S’ component is entirely excluded in CCU. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. While Direct Air Capture (DAC) does extract CO2 from ambient air, it is generally characterized by high cost and high energy intensity due to the low concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere. Statement 2 is correct. The five Indian CCU pilot testbeds are indeed being set up in partnership with top academic and industrial institutions (e.g., NCCBM + JK Cement, IIT Kanpur + JSW Cement) through a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model. Their focus includes translational R&D, CO2 catalysis, and industrial integration. Statement 3 is correct. CCU (Carbon Capture and Utilisation) is a subset of CCUS (Carbon Capture, Utilisation, and Storage). CCU focuses specifically on utilizing the captured carbon, while CCUS also includes the option of long-term geological storage of CO2. Thus, in CCU, the ‘Storage’ component of CCUS is indeed excluded from its primary definition, focusing instead on conversion into products. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. While Direct Air Capture (DAC) does extract CO2 from ambient air, it is generally characterized by high cost and high energy intensity due to the low concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere. Statement 2 is correct. The five Indian CCU pilot testbeds are indeed being set up in partnership with top academic and industrial institutions (e.g., NCCBM + JK Cement, IIT Kanpur + JSW Cement) through a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model. Their focus includes translational R&D, CO2 catalysis, and industrial integration. Statement 3 is correct. CCU (Carbon Capture and Utilisation) is a subset of CCUS (Carbon Capture, Utilisation, and Storage). CCU focuses specifically on utilizing the captured carbon, while CCUS also includes the option of long-term geological storage of CO2. Thus, in CCU, the ‘Storage’ component of CCUS is indeed excluded from its primary definition, focusing instead on conversion into products.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following are correctly stated regarding Carbon Capture and Utilisation (CCU) and the Indian CCU Testbeds initiative?

• Direct Air Capture (DAC) is a type of carbon capture that extracts CO2 from ambient air and is known for its low cost and high efficiency.

• The Indian CCU testbeds are being established under a public-private partnership model with a focus on translational R&D.

• CCU is a subset of Carbon Capture, Utilisation, and Storage (CCUS), where the ‘S’ component is entirely excluded in CCU.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While Direct Air Capture (DAC) does extract CO2 from ambient air, it is generally characterized by high cost and high energy intensity due to the low concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere.

• Statement 2 is correct. The five Indian CCU pilot testbeds are indeed being set up in partnership with top academic and industrial institutions (e.g., NCCBM + JK Cement, IIT Kanpur + JSW Cement) through a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model. Their focus includes translational R&D, CO2 catalysis, and industrial integration.

• Statement 3 is correct. CCU (Carbon Capture and Utilisation) is a subset of CCUS (Carbon Capture, Utilisation, and Storage). CCU focuses specifically on utilizing the captured carbon, while CCUS also includes the option of long-term geological storage of CO2. Thus, in CCU, the ‘Storage’ component of CCUS is indeed excluded from its primary definition, focusing instead on conversion into products.

Solution: b)

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following regarding the Mahadayi River dispute and its characteristics: The river flows through Karnataka, Goa, and Kerala. The Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal (MWDT) was constituted under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The Cumbarjua Canal links the Mahadayi (Mandovi) and Zuari rivers in Goa. Dudhsagar Falls is a prominent waterfall on the Mahadayi River. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Mahadayi River flows through Karnataka, Maharashtra (a very short stretch of 1 km), and Goa. It does not flow through Kerala. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal (MWDT) was constituted by the Central Government under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, not the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. This act specifically provides the framework for adjudicating disputes related to waters of inter-state rivers. Statement 3 is correct. The Cumbarjua Canal is an important man-made canal in Goa that links the Mandovi (Mahadayi) River to the Zuari River, facilitating navigation and water exchange between these two major Goan rivers. Statement 4 is correct. The Dudhsagar Falls, one of India’s tallest waterfalls, is located on the Mandovi (Mahadayi) River in Goa, on its journey from the Western Ghats to the Arabian Sea. It is a major tourist attraction. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Mahadayi River flows through Karnataka, Maharashtra (a very short stretch of 1 km), and Goa. It does not flow through Kerala. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal (MWDT) was constituted by the Central Government under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, not the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. This act specifically provides the framework for adjudicating disputes related to waters of inter-state rivers. Statement 3 is correct. The Cumbarjua Canal is an important man-made canal in Goa that links the Mandovi (Mahadayi) River to the Zuari River, facilitating navigation and water exchange between these two major Goan rivers. Statement 4 is correct. The Dudhsagar Falls, one of India’s tallest waterfalls, is located on the Mandovi (Mahadayi) River in Goa, on its journey from the Western Ghats to the Arabian Sea. It is a major tourist attraction.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following regarding the Mahadayi River dispute and its characteristics:

• The river flows through Karnataka, Goa, and Kerala.

• The Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal (MWDT) was constituted under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

• The Cumbarjua Canal links the Mahadayi (Mandovi) and Zuari rivers in Goa.

• Dudhsagar Falls is a prominent waterfall on the Mahadayi River.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2, 3 and 4 only

• c) 1, 3 and 4 only

• d) 3 and 4 only

Solution: d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Mahadayi River flows through Karnataka, Maharashtra (a very short stretch of 1 km), and Goa. It does not flow through Kerala.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal (MWDT) was constituted by the Central Government under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, not the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. This act specifically provides the framework for adjudicating disputes related to waters of inter-state rivers.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Cumbarjua Canal is an important man-made canal in Goa that links the Mandovi (Mahadayi) River to the Zuari River, facilitating navigation and water exchange between these two major Goan rivers.

• Statement 4 is correct. The Dudhsagar Falls, one of India’s tallest waterfalls, is located on the Mandovi (Mahadayi) River in Goa, on its journey from the Western Ghats to the Arabian Sea. It is a major tourist attraction.

Solution: d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Mahadayi River flows through Karnataka, Maharashtra (a very short stretch of 1 km), and Goa. It does not flow through Kerala.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Bird Flu (Avian Influenza): It is a viral infection caused exclusively by Influenza Type B viruses. The primary mode of transmission to humans is through airborne respiratory droplets from one infected human to another. Recent outbreaks have seen the virus detected in mammals such as dairy cows and domestic cats. A widely available and approved human vaccine for the currently circulating H5N1 bird flu strains is administered annually to the general public. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Bird flu is a viral infection primarily caused by Influenza Type A viruses, not Type B viruses. Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary mode of transmission to humans is via direct contact with infected birds, their droppings, or contaminated surfaces. While airborne transmission (droplets or dust from infected animals) is possible, and very rare, limited human-to-human transmission has been reported globally, it is not the primary mode, and sustained human-to-human spread is not common. Statement 3 is correct. Bird flu viruses, notably H5N1, have been detected in various mammal species beyond birds. Recent outbreaks have indeed seen detections in dairy cows, as well as in cats (including house cats), dogs, sheep, and some wild mammals. This has raised concerns about inter-species transmission. Statement 4 is incorrect. Currently, there is no widely available human vaccine for the specific H5N1 bird flu strains that is administered annually to the general public. While some candidate vaccine viruses exist and some vaccines are stockpiled for emergency use for specific groups (like poultry workers), they are not part of routine public vaccination programs. Poultry vaccines are available and used in some countries to curb outbreaks in birds. About Bird Flu: What is Bird Flu (Avian Influenza)? Bird flu is a viral infection caused by influenza Type A viruses, primarily affecting birds, but it can also infect mammals, including humans. Symptoms: In birds: Sudden death, respiratory distress, swelling, reduced egg production. In humans (rare): Fever, cough, sore throat, respiratory issues, sometimes leading to severe complications or death. Transmission: Spreads via direct contact with infected birds, droppings, or contaminated surfaces. Zoonotic: Can cross species barrier, typically bird-to-human. Limited human-to-human transmission reported globally (CDC), but not yet in the US. Other Affected Species: Detected in cats, dogs, dairy cows, sheep, and some wild mammals. Notably, house cats and livestock have shown increasing vulnerability in recent outbreaks. Vaccine Availability: No approved human vaccine exists currently. Poultry vaccines are available and used in countries like France and the US to curb outbreaks. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Bird flu is a viral infection primarily caused by Influenza Type A viruses, not Type B viruses. Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary mode of transmission to humans is via direct contact with infected birds, their droppings, or contaminated surfaces. While airborne transmission (droplets or dust from infected animals) is possible, and very rare, limited human-to-human transmission has been reported globally, it is not the primary mode, and sustained human-to-human spread is not common. Statement 3 is correct. Bird flu viruses, notably H5N1, have been detected in various mammal species beyond birds. Recent outbreaks have indeed seen detections in dairy cows, as well as in cats (including house cats), dogs, sheep, and some wild mammals. This has raised concerns about inter-species transmission. Statement 4 is incorrect. Currently, there is no widely available human vaccine for the specific H5N1 bird flu strains that is administered annually to the general public. While some candidate vaccine viruses exist and some vaccines are stockpiled for emergency use for specific groups (like poultry workers), they are not part of routine public vaccination programs. Poultry vaccines are available and used in some countries to curb outbreaks in birds. About Bird Flu: What is Bird Flu (Avian Influenza)? Bird flu is a viral infection caused by influenza Type A viruses, primarily affecting birds, but it can also infect mammals, including humans. Symptoms: In birds: Sudden death, respiratory distress, swelling, reduced egg production. In humans (rare): Fever, cough, sore throat, respiratory issues, sometimes leading to severe complications or death. Transmission: Spreads via direct contact with infected birds, droppings, or contaminated surfaces. Zoonotic: Can cross species barrier, typically bird-to-human. Limited human-to-human transmission reported globally (CDC), but not yet in the US. Other Affected Species: Detected in cats, dogs, dairy cows, sheep, and some wild mammals. Notably, house cats and livestock have shown increasing vulnerability in recent outbreaks. Vaccine Availability: No approved human vaccine exists currently. Poultry vaccines are available and used in countries like France and the US to curb outbreaks.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about Bird Flu (Avian Influenza):

• It is a viral infection caused exclusively by Influenza Type B viruses.

• The primary mode of transmission to humans is through airborne respiratory droplets from one infected human to another.

• Recent outbreaks have seen the virus detected in mammals such as dairy cows and domestic cats.

• A widely available and approved human vaccine for the currently circulating H5N1 bird flu strains is administered annually to the general public.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Bird flu is a viral infection primarily caused by Influenza Type A viruses, not Type B viruses.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary mode of transmission to humans is via direct contact with infected birds, their droppings, or contaminated surfaces. While airborne transmission (droplets or dust from infected animals) is possible, and very rare, limited human-to-human transmission has been reported globally, it is not the primary mode, and sustained human-to-human spread is not common.

• Statement 3 is correct. Bird flu viruses, notably H5N1, have been detected in various mammal species beyond birds. Recent outbreaks have indeed seen detections in dairy cows, as well as in cats (including house cats), dogs, sheep, and some wild mammals. This has raised concerns about inter-species transmission.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. Currently, there is no widely available human vaccine for the specific H5N1 bird flu strains that is administered annually to the general public. While some candidate vaccine viruses exist and some vaccines are stockpiled for emergency use for specific groups (like poultry workers), they are not part of routine public vaccination programs. Poultry vaccines are available and used in some countries to curb outbreaks in birds.

About Bird Flu:

• What is Bird Flu (Avian Influenza)?

• Bird flu is a viral infection caused by influenza Type A viruses, primarily affecting birds, but it can also infect mammals, including humans.

• Symptoms:

• In birds: Sudden death, respiratory distress, swelling, reduced egg production. In humans (rare): Fever, cough, sore throat, respiratory issues, sometimes leading to severe complications or death.

• In birds: Sudden death, respiratory distress, swelling, reduced egg production.

• In humans (rare): Fever, cough, sore throat, respiratory issues, sometimes leading to severe complications or death.

• Transmission: Spreads via direct contact with infected birds, droppings, or contaminated surfaces.

• Zoonotic: Can cross species barrier, typically bird-to-human. Limited human-to-human transmission reported globally (CDC), but not yet in the US.

• Limited human-to-human transmission reported globally (CDC), but not yet in the US.

• Other Affected Species:

• Detected in cats, dogs, dairy cows, sheep, and some wild mammals. Notably, house cats and livestock have shown increasing vulnerability in recent outbreaks.

• Detected in cats, dogs, dairy cows, sheep, and some wild mammals.

• Notably, house cats and livestock have shown increasing vulnerability in recent outbreaks.

• Vaccine Availability:

• No approved human vaccine exists currently. Poultry vaccines are available and used in countries like France and the US to curb outbreaks.

• No approved human vaccine exists currently.

• Poultry vaccines are available and used in countries like France and the US to curb outbreaks.

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Bird flu is a viral infection primarily caused by Influenza Type A viruses, not Type B viruses.

About Bird Flu:

• What is Bird Flu (Avian Influenza)?

• Bird flu is a viral infection caused by influenza Type A viruses, primarily affecting birds, but it can also infect mammals, including humans.

• Symptoms:

• In birds: Sudden death, respiratory distress, swelling, reduced egg production.

• In humans (rare): Fever, cough, sore throat, respiratory issues, sometimes leading to severe complications or death.

• Transmission: Spreads via direct contact with infected birds, droppings, or contaminated surfaces.

• Zoonotic: Can cross species barrier, typically bird-to-human. Limited human-to-human transmission reported globally (CDC), but not yet in the US.

• Limited human-to-human transmission reported globally (CDC), but not yet in the US.

• Other Affected Species:

• Detected in cats, dogs, dairy cows, sheep, and some wild mammals. Notably, house cats and livestock have shown increasing vulnerability in recent outbreaks.

• Detected in cats, dogs, dairy cows, sheep, and some wild mammals.

• Notably, house cats and livestock have shown increasing vulnerability in recent outbreaks.

• Vaccine Availability:

• No approved human vaccine exists currently. Poultry vaccines are available and used in countries like France and the US to curb outbreaks.

• No approved human vaccine exists currently.

• Poultry vaccines are available and used in countries like France and the US to curb outbreaks.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points What was the primary scientific objective of NASA’s GRAIL mission? (a) To search for water ice in the permanently shadowed craters of the Moon. (b) To land rovers on the lunar surface for sample collection. (c) To map the Moon’s gravitational field in high resolution to understand its internal structure and composition. (d) To study the Moon's exosphere and its interaction with the solar wind. Correct Solution: c) The primary scientific objective of NASA’s GRAIL mission was to map the Moon’s gravitational field in high resolution. This detailed gravity map, when combined with topographic data, was intended to provide unprecedented insights into the Moon’s internal structure, composition, and evolution. About GRAIL mission: What is GRAIL? GRAIL (Gravity Recovery and Interior Laboratory) was a NASA lunar science mission aimed at mapping the Moon’s gravitational field in high resolution. Launch Year: Launched in 2011 using a Delta II rocket from Cape Canaveral. Organizations Involved: Conducted by NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL) in collaboration with MIT for scientific oversight. Key Features: Consisted of two spacecraft, named Ebb and Flow, flying in tandem around the Moon. Measured minute variations in gravitational pull to reveal the Moon’s internal composition. Ended with a controlled impact on the lunar surface after successful mission completion. Key Discoveries from GRAIL: Tidal Deformation & Gravitational Asymmetry: The Moon’s nearside flexes more than the far side due to Earth’s gravitational pull, indicating asymmetry in internal structure. Volcanic History & Heat Distribution: The nearside was more volcanically active, with dark basaltic plains (“known as mare”). Higher concentrations of heat-producing elements like thorium and titanium warmed the nearside mantle up to 200°C more than the farside. Crustal Thickness Variation: Nearside crust is thinner, allowing magma to erupt more easily, forming flat plains. Far side remains rugged and cratered due to thicker crust and less volcanic activity. Incorrect Solution: c) The primary scientific objective of NASA’s GRAIL mission was to map the Moon’s gravitational field in high resolution. This detailed gravity map, when combined with topographic data, was intended to provide unprecedented insights into the Moon’s internal structure, composition, and evolution. About GRAIL mission: What is GRAIL? GRAIL (Gravity Recovery and Interior Laboratory) was a NASA lunar science mission aimed at mapping the Moon’s gravitational field in high resolution. Launch Year: Launched in 2011 using a Delta II rocket from Cape Canaveral. Organizations Involved: Conducted by NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL) in collaboration with MIT for scientific oversight. Key Features: Consisted of two spacecraft, named Ebb and Flow, flying in tandem around the Moon. Measured minute variations in gravitational pull to reveal the Moon’s internal composition. Ended with a controlled impact on the lunar surface after successful mission completion. Key Discoveries from GRAIL: Tidal Deformation & Gravitational Asymmetry: The Moon’s nearside flexes more than the far side due to Earth’s gravitational pull, indicating asymmetry in internal structure. Volcanic History & Heat Distribution: The nearside was more volcanically active, with dark basaltic plains (“known as mare”). Higher concentrations of heat-producing elements like thorium and titanium warmed the nearside mantle up to 200°C more than the farside. Crustal Thickness Variation: Nearside crust is thinner, allowing magma to erupt more easily, forming flat plains. Far side remains rugged and cratered due to thicker crust and less volcanic activity.

#### 4. Question

What was the primary scientific objective of NASA’s GRAIL mission?

• (a) To search for water ice in the permanently shadowed craters of the Moon.

• (b) To land rovers on the lunar surface for sample collection.

• (c) To map the Moon’s gravitational field in high resolution to understand its internal structure and composition.

• (d) To study the Moon's exosphere and its interaction with the solar wind.

Solution: c)

• The primary scientific objective of NASA’s GRAIL mission was to map the Moon’s gravitational field in high resolution. This detailed gravity map, when combined with topographic data, was intended to provide unprecedented insights into the Moon’s internal structure, composition, and evolution.

About GRAIL mission:

• What is GRAIL?

• GRAIL (Gravity Recovery and Interior Laboratory) was a NASA lunar science mission aimed at mapping the Moon’s gravitational field in high resolution.

• Launch Year: Launched in 2011 using a Delta II rocket from Cape Canaveral.

• Organizations Involved: Conducted by NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL) in collaboration with MIT for scientific oversight.

• Key Features:

• Consisted of two spacecraft, named Ebb and Flow, flying in tandem around the Moon. Measured minute variations in gravitational pull to reveal the Moon’s internal composition. Ended with a controlled impact on the lunar surface after successful mission completion.

• Consisted of two spacecraft, named Ebb and Flow, flying in tandem around the Moon.

• Measured minute variations in gravitational pull to reveal the Moon’s internal composition.

• Ended with a controlled impact on the lunar surface after successful mission completion.

Key Discoveries from GRAIL:

• Tidal Deformation & Gravitational Asymmetry: The Moon’s nearside flexes more than the far side due to Earth’s gravitational pull, indicating asymmetry in internal structure.

• Volcanic History & Heat Distribution: The nearside was more volcanically active, with dark basaltic plains (“known as mare”). Higher concentrations of heat-producing elements like thorium and titanium warmed the nearside mantle up to 200°C more than the farside.

• The nearside was more volcanically active, with dark basaltic plains (“known as mare”).

• Higher concentrations of heat-producing elements like thorium and titanium warmed the nearside mantle up to 200°C more than the farside.

• Crustal Thickness Variation: Nearside crust is thinner, allowing magma to erupt more easily, forming flat plains. Far side remains rugged and cratered due to thicker crust and less volcanic activity.

• Nearside crust is thinner, allowing magma to erupt more easily, forming flat plains.

• Far side remains rugged and cratered due to thicker crust and less volcanic activity.

Solution: c)

About GRAIL mission:

• What is GRAIL?

• GRAIL (Gravity Recovery and Interior Laboratory) was a NASA lunar science mission aimed at mapping the Moon’s gravitational field in high resolution.

• Launch Year: Launched in 2011 using a Delta II rocket from Cape Canaveral.

• Organizations Involved: Conducted by NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL) in collaboration with MIT for scientific oversight.

• Key Features:

• Consisted of two spacecraft, named Ebb and Flow, flying in tandem around the Moon.

• Measured minute variations in gravitational pull to reveal the Moon’s internal composition.

• Ended with a controlled impact on the lunar surface after successful mission completion.

Key Discoveries from GRAIL:

• Tidal Deformation & Gravitational Asymmetry: The Moon’s nearside flexes more than the far side due to Earth’s gravitational pull, indicating asymmetry in internal structure.

• The nearside was more volcanically active, with dark basaltic plains (“known as mare”).

• Higher concentrations of heat-producing elements like thorium and titanium warmed the nearside mantle up to 200°C more than the farside.

• Nearside crust is thinner, allowing magma to erupt more easily, forming flat plains.

• Far side remains rugged and cratered due to thicker crust and less volcanic activity.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Peacekeeping operations: UN Peacekeepers are always mandated by the UN Security Council to use robust force, including offensive operations, to enforce peace agreements. A core principle of UN Peacekeeping is strict neutrality, requiring peacekeepers to avoid any action that could be perceived as favoring one party to a conflict over another, even in the execution of their mandate. All funding for UN Peacekeeping operations is directly managed and disbursed by the UN Security Council from a dedicated annual budget. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. A core principle of UN Peacekeeping is the non-use of force, except in self-defence or defence of the mandate. While some missions may have robust mandates under Chapter VII of the UN Charter allowing for the use of force to protect civilians or their mandate, peacekeeping is distinct from peace enforcement, and offensive operations to enforce peace agreements are not the standard or sole approach. The emphasis is on creating conditions for lasting peace through consent and impartiality. Statement 2 is incorrect. While impartiality is a core principle, meaning UN peacekeepers should not favor any party to the conflict in their dealings, this is distinct from neutrality in the execution of their mandate. Peacekeepers must be impartial in their conduct but are not neutral when it comes to upholding the mandate given by the Security Council, which might involve taking action against spoilers of a peace process or protecting civilians from attack, irrespective of the perpetrator. The principle is about even-handedness in dealing with parties, not inaction or indifference to violations of the mandate or international law. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the UN Security Council mandates peacekeeping operations, the funding is approved by the UN General Assembly, and contributions are made by member states based on a special scale of assessments. The Department of Peace Operations (DPO) manages the operations, but the Security Council itself does not directly manage or disburse funds from a dedicated annual budget in the manner described. About UN Peacekeepers: What It Is? UN Peacekeeping involves the deployment of military personnel, police, and civilians to conflict zones to maintain peace and security under UN mandates. Established In: Started in 1948, when the UN deployed observers in West Asia following the Arab-Israeli armistice. Key Features: Mandated by: UN Security Council through formal resolutions. Managed by: UN Department of Peace Operations (DPO). Core Principles: Consent of the parties Impartiality Non-use of force, except in self-defence or defence of mandate Funding: Approved by the UN General Assembly and contributed by member states. Objective: Help countries navigate the transition from conflict to peace, ensure humanitarian aid, and support institution-building. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. A core principle of UN Peacekeeping is the non-use of force, except in self-defence or defence of the mandate. While some missions may have robust mandates under Chapter VII of the UN Charter allowing for the use of force to protect civilians or their mandate, peacekeeping is distinct from peace enforcement, and offensive operations to enforce peace agreements are not the standard or sole approach. The emphasis is on creating conditions for lasting peace through consent and impartiality. Statement 2 is incorrect. While impartiality is a core principle, meaning UN peacekeepers should not favor any party to the conflict in their dealings, this is distinct from neutrality in the execution of their mandate. Peacekeepers must be impartial in their conduct but are not neutral when it comes to upholding the mandate given by the Security Council, which might involve taking action against spoilers of a peace process or protecting civilians from attack, irrespective of the perpetrator. The principle is about even-handedness in dealing with parties, not inaction or indifference to violations of the mandate or international law. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the UN Security Council mandates peacekeeping operations, the funding is approved by the UN General Assembly, and contributions are made by member states based on a special scale of assessments. The Department of Peace Operations (DPO) manages the operations, but the Security Council itself does not directly manage or disburse funds from a dedicated annual budget in the manner described. About UN Peacekeepers: What It Is? UN Peacekeeping involves the deployment of military personnel, police, and civilians to conflict zones to maintain peace and security under UN mandates. Established In: Started in 1948, when the UN deployed observers in West Asia following the Arab-Israeli armistice. Key Features: Mandated by: UN Security Council through formal resolutions. Managed by: UN Department of Peace Operations (DPO). Core Principles: Consent of the parties Impartiality Non-use of force, except in self-defence or defence of mandate Funding: Approved by the UN General Assembly and contributed by member states. Objective: Help countries navigate the transition from conflict to peace, ensure humanitarian aid, and support institution-building.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Peacekeeping operations:

• UN Peacekeepers are always mandated by the UN Security Council to use robust force, including offensive operations, to enforce peace agreements.

• A core principle of UN Peacekeeping is strict neutrality, requiring peacekeepers to avoid any action that could be perceived as favoring one party to a conflict over another, even in the execution of their mandate.

• All funding for UN Peacekeeping operations is directly managed and disbursed by the UN Security Council from a dedicated annual budget.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. A core principle of UN Peacekeeping is the non-use of force, except in self-defence or defence of the mandate. While some missions may have robust mandates under Chapter VII of the UN Charter allowing for the use of force to protect civilians or their mandate, peacekeeping is distinct from peace enforcement, and offensive operations to enforce peace agreements are not the standard or sole approach. The emphasis is on creating conditions for lasting peace through consent and impartiality.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While impartiality is a core principle, meaning UN peacekeepers should not favor any party to the conflict in their dealings, this is distinct from neutrality in the execution of their mandate. Peacekeepers must be impartial in their conduct but are not neutral when it comes to upholding the mandate given by the Security Council, which might involve taking action against spoilers of a peace process or protecting civilians from attack, irrespective of the perpetrator. The principle is about even-handedness in dealing with parties, not inaction or indifference to violations of the mandate or international law.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While the UN Security Council mandates peacekeeping operations, the funding is approved by the UN General Assembly, and contributions are made by member states based on a special scale of assessments. The Department of Peace Operations (DPO) manages the operations, but the Security Council itself does not directly manage or disburse funds from a dedicated annual budget in the manner described.

About UN Peacekeepers:

• What It Is? UN Peacekeeping involves the deployment of military personnel, police, and civilians to conflict zones to maintain peace and security under UN mandates.

• UN Peacekeeping involves the deployment of military personnel, police, and civilians to conflict zones to maintain peace and security under UN mandates.

• Established In: Started in 1948, when the UN deployed observers in West Asia following the Arab-Israeli armistice.

• Key Features: Mandated by: UN Security Council through formal resolutions. Managed by: UN Department of Peace Operations (DPO). Core Principles: Consent of the parties Impartiality Non-use of force, except in self-defence or defence of mandate Funding: Approved by the UN General Assembly and contributed by member states. Objective: Help countries navigate the transition from conflict to peace, ensure humanitarian aid, and support institution-building.

• Mandated by: UN Security Council through formal resolutions.

• Managed by: UN Department of Peace Operations (DPO).

• Core Principles: Consent of the parties Impartiality Non-use of force, except in self-defence or defence of mandate

• Consent of the parties

• Impartiality

• Non-use of force, except in self-defence or defence of mandate

• Funding: Approved by the UN General Assembly and contributed by member states.

• Objective: Help countries navigate the transition from conflict to peace, ensure humanitarian aid, and support institution-building.

Solution: d)

About UN Peacekeepers:

• What It Is? UN Peacekeeping involves the deployment of military personnel, police, and civilians to conflict zones to maintain peace and security under UN mandates.

• UN Peacekeeping involves the deployment of military personnel, police, and civilians to conflict zones to maintain peace and security under UN mandates.

• Established In: Started in 1948, when the UN deployed observers in West Asia following the Arab-Israeli armistice.

• Mandated by: UN Security Council through formal resolutions.

• Managed by: UN Department of Peace Operations (DPO).

• Core Principles: Consent of the parties Impartiality Non-use of force, except in self-defence or defence of mandate

• Consent of the parties

• Impartiality

• Non-use of force, except in self-defence or defence of mandate

• Funding: Approved by the UN General Assembly and contributed by member states.

• Objective: Help countries navigate the transition from conflict to peace, ensure humanitarian aid, and support institution-building.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to the United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL), consider the following statements: UNIFIL’s mandate under UN Security Council Resolution includes assisting the Lebanese Armed Forces in establishing an area south of the Litani River free of unauthorized armed personnel and weapons. UNIFIL operates with the principle that its freedom of movement in its area of operations is guaranteed only when accompanied by the Lebanese Armed Forces. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. UN Security Council Resolution 1701 (2006) significantly expanded UNIFIL’s mandate. One of its key tasks is to assist the Lebanese Armed Forces (LAF) in taking steps towards establishing an area between the Blue Line and the Litani River free of any armed personnel, assets, and weapons other than those of the Government of Lebanon and of UNIFIL deployed in this area. Statement 2 is incorrect. UNIFIL stresses that its mandate, under UN Security Council Resolution 1701, guarantees freedom of movement in its area of operations with or without LAF accompaniment. While coordination with the LAF is standard practice and often preferred, UNIFIL’s freedom of movement is not conditional upon LAF presence for every patrol. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. UN Security Council Resolution 1701 (2006) significantly expanded UNIFIL’s mandate. One of its key tasks is to assist the Lebanese Armed Forces (LAF) in taking steps towards establishing an area between the Blue Line and the Litani River free of any armed personnel, assets, and weapons other than those of the Government of Lebanon and of UNIFIL deployed in this area. Statement 2 is incorrect. UNIFIL stresses that its mandate, under UN Security Council Resolution 1701, guarantees freedom of movement in its area of operations with or without LAF accompaniment. While coordination with the LAF is standard practice and often preferred, UNIFIL’s freedom of movement is not conditional upon LAF presence for every patrol.

#### 6. Question

With reference to the United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL), consider the following statements:

• UNIFIL’s mandate under UN Security Council Resolution includes assisting the Lebanese Armed Forces in establishing an area south of the Litani River free of unauthorized armed personnel and weapons.

• UNIFIL operates with the principle that its freedom of movement in its area of operations is guaranteed only when accompanied by the Lebanese Armed Forces.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is correct. UN Security Council Resolution 1701 (2006) significantly expanded UNIFIL’s mandate. One of its key tasks is to assist the Lebanese Armed Forces (LAF) in taking steps towards establishing an area between the Blue Line and the Litani River free of any armed personnel, assets, and weapons other than those of the Government of Lebanon and of UNIFIL deployed in this area.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. UNIFIL stresses that its mandate, under UN Security Council Resolution 1701, guarantees freedom of movement in its area of operations with or without LAF accompaniment. While coordination with the LAF is standard practice and often preferred, UNIFIL’s freedom of movement is not conditional upon LAF presence for every patrol.

Solution: a)

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The National Manuscripts Mission (NMM), operated under the Ministry of Education and focused solely on Sanskrit manuscripts. A key objective of the revamped Gyan Bharatam Mission is to survey, catalogue, preserve, and provide access to over one crore manuscripts from diverse sources. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Manuscripts Mission (NMM) operated under the Ministry of Culture (anchored by IGNCA), not the Ministry of Education. Its scope was vast, aiming to document India’s manuscript wealth across 80+ scripts and 60+ languages, not solely Sanskrit manuscripts. Statement 2 is correct. The Gyan Bharatam Mission, as a revamped initiative, has the objective to “survey, catalogue, preserve, and provide access to over one crore manuscripts from academic institutions, museums, libraries, and private collectors.” This aligns with its aim to manage India’s vast manuscript wealth and promote Indian classical knowledge systems. The increased budget allocation also supports this comprehensive objective. About Gyan Bharatam Mission: What it is: A revamped national initiative for identifying, conserving, digitising, and sharing India’s vast manuscript wealth. Announced in: Union Budget 2025–26, under the Ministry of Culture. Ministry Involved: Ministry of Culture; anchored by Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA). Objective: To survey, catalogue, preserve, and provide access to over one crore manuscripts from academic institutions, museums, libraries, and private collectors. Key Features: Budget allocation increased from ₹3.5 crore to ₹60 crore. Encourages private manuscript holders to collaborate through access policies. Focuses on digitisation and metadata creation for rare texts. Aims to promote Sanskrit and Indian classical knowledge systems. Linked with institutions like CIIL, IIT Bombay, Samskriti Foundation. About National Manuscripts Mission (NMM): What it is: A national initiative launched to document, conserve and digitise India’s ancient manuscript heritage. Launched in: February 2003. Parent Organisation: Operates under IGNCA, Ministry of Culture. Aim: To preserve India’s intellectual legacy and make manuscripts accessible to researchers and the public. Key Features: India’s manuscript wealth estimated at 1 crore+, across 80+ scripts and 60+ languages. Till 2025, digitised metadata for 52 lakh manuscripts, but only ~1.3 lakh uploaded. 80% of manuscripts lie with private collectors and NMM promotes incentives for sharing. Conservation of over 9 crore folios achieved in 21 years. Emphasis on universal access, awareness, and collaboration with global digital platforms like Google Arts & Culture. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Manuscripts Mission (NMM) operated under the Ministry of Culture (anchored by IGNCA), not the Ministry of Education. Its scope was vast, aiming to document India’s manuscript wealth across 80+ scripts and 60+ languages, not solely Sanskrit manuscripts. Statement 2 is correct. The Gyan Bharatam Mission, as a revamped initiative, has the objective to “survey, catalogue, preserve, and provide access to over one crore manuscripts from academic institutions, museums, libraries, and private collectors.” This aligns with its aim to manage India’s vast manuscript wealth and promote Indian classical knowledge systems. The increased budget allocation also supports this comprehensive objective. About Gyan Bharatam Mission: What it is: A revamped national initiative for identifying, conserving, digitising, and sharing India’s vast manuscript wealth. Announced in: Union Budget 2025–26, under the Ministry of Culture. Ministry Involved: Ministry of Culture; anchored by Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA). Objective: To survey, catalogue, preserve, and provide access to over one crore manuscripts from academic institutions, museums, libraries, and private collectors. Key Features: Budget allocation increased from ₹3.5 crore to ₹60 crore. Encourages private manuscript holders to collaborate through access policies. Focuses on digitisation and metadata creation for rare texts. Aims to promote Sanskrit and Indian classical knowledge systems. Linked with institutions like CIIL, IIT Bombay, Samskriti Foundation. About National Manuscripts Mission (NMM): What it is: A national initiative launched to document, conserve and digitise India’s ancient manuscript heritage. Launched in: February 2003. Parent Organisation: Operates under IGNCA, Ministry of Culture. Aim: To preserve India’s intellectual legacy and make manuscripts accessible to researchers and the public. Key Features: India’s manuscript wealth estimated at 1 crore+, across 80+ scripts and 60+ languages. Till 2025, digitised metadata for 52 lakh manuscripts, but only ~1.3 lakh uploaded. 80% of manuscripts lie with private collectors and NMM promotes incentives for sharing. Conservation of over 9 crore folios achieved in 21 years. Emphasis on universal access, awareness, and collaboration with global digital platforms like Google Arts & Culture.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The National Manuscripts Mission (NMM), operated under the Ministry of Education and focused solely on Sanskrit manuscripts.

• A key objective of the revamped Gyan Bharatam Mission is to survey, catalogue, preserve, and provide access to over one crore manuscripts from diverse sources.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Manuscripts Mission (NMM) operated under the Ministry of Culture (anchored by IGNCA), not the Ministry of Education. Its scope was vast, aiming to document India’s manuscript wealth across 80+ scripts and 60+ languages, not solely Sanskrit manuscripts.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Gyan Bharatam Mission, as a revamped initiative, has the objective to “survey, catalogue, preserve, and provide access to over one crore manuscripts from academic institutions, museums, libraries, and private collectors.” This aligns with its aim to manage India’s vast manuscript wealth and promote Indian classical knowledge systems. The increased budget allocation also supports this comprehensive objective.

About Gyan Bharatam Mission:

• What it is: A revamped national initiative for identifying, conserving, digitising, and sharing India’s vast manuscript wealth.

• Announced in: Union Budget 2025–26, under the Ministry of Culture.

• Ministry Involved: Ministry of Culture; anchored by Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA).

• Objective: To survey, catalogue, preserve, and provide access to over one crore manuscripts from academic institutions, museums, libraries, and private collectors.

Key Features:

• Budget allocation increased from ₹3.5 crore to ₹60 crore.

• Encourages private manuscript holders to collaborate through access policies.

• Focuses on digitisation and metadata creation for rare texts.

• Aims to promote Sanskrit and Indian classical knowledge systems.

• Linked with institutions like CIIL, IIT Bombay, Samskriti Foundation.

About National Manuscripts Mission (NMM):

• What it is: A national initiative launched to document, conserve and digitise India’s ancient manuscript heritage.

• Launched in: February 2003.

• Parent Organisation: Operates under IGNCA, Ministry of Culture.

• Aim: To preserve India’s intellectual legacy and make manuscripts accessible to researchers and the public.

Key Features:

• India’s manuscript wealth estimated at 1 crore+, across 80+ scripts and 60+ languages.

• Till 2025, digitised metadata for 52 lakh manuscripts, but only ~1.3 lakh uploaded.

• 80% of manuscripts lie with private collectors and NMM promotes incentives for sharing.

• Conservation of over 9 crore folios achieved in 21 years.

• Emphasis on universal access, awareness, and collaboration with global digital platforms like Google Arts & Culture.

Solution: b)

About Gyan Bharatam Mission:

• What it is: A revamped national initiative for identifying, conserving, digitising, and sharing India’s vast manuscript wealth.

• Announced in: Union Budget 2025–26, under the Ministry of Culture.

• Ministry Involved: Ministry of Culture; anchored by Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA).

• Objective: To survey, catalogue, preserve, and provide access to over one crore manuscripts from academic institutions, museums, libraries, and private collectors.

Key Features:

• Budget allocation increased from ₹3.5 crore to ₹60 crore.

• Encourages private manuscript holders to collaborate through access policies.

• Focuses on digitisation and metadata creation for rare texts.

• Aims to promote Sanskrit and Indian classical knowledge systems.

• Linked with institutions like CIIL, IIT Bombay, Samskriti Foundation.

About National Manuscripts Mission (NMM):

• What it is: A national initiative launched to document, conserve and digitise India’s ancient manuscript heritage.

• Launched in: February 2003.

• Parent Organisation: Operates under IGNCA, Ministry of Culture.

• Aim: To preserve India’s intellectual legacy and make manuscripts accessible to researchers and the public.

Key Features:

• India’s manuscript wealth estimated at 1 crore+, across 80+ scripts and 60+ languages.

• Till 2025, digitised metadata for 52 lakh manuscripts, but only ~1.3 lakh uploaded.

• 80% of manuscripts lie with private collectors and NMM promotes incentives for sharing.

• Conservation of over 9 crore folios achieved in 21 years.

• Emphasis on universal access, awareness, and collaboration with global digital platforms like Google Arts & Culture.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Sikkim: Sikkim became a state of India through a Constitutional Amendment immediately after India’s independence in 1947. It shares international borders only with China and Bhutan. Sikkim was the first state in India to be declared 100% organic. The merger of Sikkim with India occurred following a referendum in which the majority voted against abolishing the monarchy. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Sikkim became the 22nd state of India in 1975 through the 36th Constitutional Amendment, not immediately after 1947. Post-independence, it was an Indian protectorate under the 1950 Indo-Sikkim Treaty. Statement 2 is incorrect. Sikkim shares international borders with Nepal (west), Bhutan (east), and China (north). It does not exclusively border China and Bhutan; Nepal is also a significant international border. Statement 3 is correct. Sikkim is renowned for being the first state in India to be declared 100% organic, a milestone in sustainable agriculture. Statement 4 is incorrect. The merger with India followed a 1975 referendum where over 97% of the electorate voted *for* abolishing the monarchy and joining India, not against it. The Chogyal dynasty’s rule ended with this referendum. About Sikkim: Location: Part of Northeastern India and shares international borders with Nepal (west), Bhutan (east), China (north), and Indian state West Bengal (south). Capital: Gangtok, known for its fusion of Tibetan Buddhist culture and modernity. Statehood: Became the 22nd state of India through the 36th Constitutional Amendment in 1975. Historical Background: Originally ruled by the Namgyal dynasty (Chogyals) from 1642–1975. Became a British protectorate in 1861 under the Treaty of Tumlong. Post-independence, remained an Indian protectorate through the 1950 Indo-Sikkim Treaty. Merged with India following a 1975 referendum, where over 97% voted for abolishing monarchy and joining India. Key Features of Sikkim: First 100% Organic State in India — pioneered sustainable agriculture. Ecological Richness: Part of the Eastern Himalayas biodiversity hotspot, home to species like the red panda and Himalayan blue poppy. Cultural Diversity: Home to Lepchas, Bhutias, and Nepalis; preserves vibrant Buddhist traditions. Strategic Importance: Acts as a buffer state between India and China; region of historical and geopolitical significance, especially near Doklam. Tourism & Development: Focus on eco-tourism, clean energy, and heritage preservation. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Sikkim became the 22nd state of India in 1975 through the 36th Constitutional Amendment, not immediately after 1947. Post-independence, it was an Indian protectorate under the 1950 Indo-Sikkim Treaty. Statement 2 is incorrect. Sikkim shares international borders with Nepal (west), Bhutan (east), and China (north). It does not exclusively border China and Bhutan; Nepal is also a significant international border. Statement 3 is correct. Sikkim is renowned for being the first state in India to be declared 100% organic, a milestone in sustainable agriculture. Statement 4 is incorrect. The merger with India followed a 1975 referendum where over 97% of the electorate voted *for* abolishing the monarchy and joining India, not against it. The Chogyal dynasty’s rule ended with this referendum. About Sikkim: Location: Part of Northeastern India and shares international borders with Nepal (west), Bhutan (east), China (north), and Indian state West Bengal (south). Capital: Gangtok, known for its fusion of Tibetan Buddhist culture and modernity. Statehood: Became the 22nd state of India through the 36th Constitutional Amendment in 1975. Historical Background: Originally ruled by the Namgyal dynasty (Chogyals) from 1642–1975. Became a British protectorate in 1861 under the Treaty of Tumlong. Post-independence, remained an Indian protectorate through the 1950 Indo-Sikkim Treaty. Merged with India following a 1975 referendum, where over 97% voted for abolishing monarchy and joining India. Key Features of Sikkim: First 100% Organic State in India — pioneered sustainable agriculture. Ecological Richness: Part of the Eastern Himalayas biodiversity hotspot, home to species like the red panda and Himalayan blue poppy. Cultural Diversity: Home to Lepchas, Bhutias, and Nepalis; preserves vibrant Buddhist traditions. Strategic Importance: Acts as a buffer state between India and China; region of historical and geopolitical significance, especially near Doklam. Tourism & Development: Focus on eco-tourism, clean energy, and heritage preservation.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about Sikkim:

• Sikkim became a state of India through a Constitutional Amendment immediately after India’s independence in 1947.

• It shares international borders only with China and Bhutan.

• Sikkim was the first state in India to be declared 100% organic.

• The merger of Sikkim with India occurred following a referendum in which the majority voted against abolishing the monarchy.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Sikkim became the 22nd state of India in 1975 through the 36th Constitutional Amendment, not immediately after 1947. Post-independence, it was an Indian protectorate under the 1950 Indo-Sikkim Treaty.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Sikkim shares international borders with Nepal (west), Bhutan (east), and China (north). It does not exclusively border China and Bhutan; Nepal is also a significant international border.

• Statement 3 is correct. Sikkim is renowned for being the first state in India to be declared 100% organic, a milestone in sustainable agriculture.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The merger with India followed a 1975 referendum where over 97% of the electorate voted *for* abolishing the monarchy and joining India, not against it. The Chogyal dynasty’s rule ended with this referendum.

About Sikkim:

• Location: Part of Northeastern India and shares international borders with Nepal (west), Bhutan (east), China (north), and Indian state West Bengal (south).

• Capital: Gangtok, known for its fusion of Tibetan Buddhist culture and modernity.

• Statehood: Became the 22nd state of India through the 36th Constitutional Amendment in 1975.

• Historical Background: Originally ruled by the Namgyal dynasty (Chogyals) from 1642–1975. Became a British protectorate in 1861 under the Treaty of Tumlong. Post-independence, remained an Indian protectorate through the 1950 Indo-Sikkim Treaty. Merged with India following a 1975 referendum, where over 97% voted for abolishing monarchy and joining India.

• Originally ruled by the Namgyal dynasty (Chogyals) from 1642–1975.

• Became a British protectorate in 1861 under the Treaty of Tumlong.

• Post-independence, remained an Indian protectorate through the 1950 Indo-Sikkim Treaty.

• Merged with India following a 1975 referendum, where over 97% voted for abolishing monarchy and joining India.

Key Features of Sikkim:

• First 100% Organic State in India — pioneered sustainable agriculture.

• Ecological Richness: Part of the Eastern Himalayas biodiversity hotspot, home to species like the red panda and Himalayan blue poppy.

• Cultural Diversity: Home to Lepchas, Bhutias, and Nepalis; preserves vibrant Buddhist traditions.

• Strategic Importance: Acts as a buffer state between India and China; region of historical and geopolitical significance, especially near Doklam.

• Tourism & Development: Focus on eco-tourism, clean energy, and heritage preservation.

Solution: a)

• Statement 3 is correct. Sikkim is renowned for being the first state in India to be declared 100% organic, a milestone in sustainable agriculture.

About Sikkim:

• Location: Part of Northeastern India and shares international borders with Nepal (west), Bhutan (east), China (north), and Indian state West Bengal (south).

• Capital: Gangtok, known for its fusion of Tibetan Buddhist culture and modernity.

• Statehood: Became the 22nd state of India through the 36th Constitutional Amendment in 1975.

• Originally ruled by the Namgyal dynasty (Chogyals) from 1642–1975.

• Became a British protectorate in 1861 under the Treaty of Tumlong.

• Post-independence, remained an Indian protectorate through the 1950 Indo-Sikkim Treaty.

• Merged with India following a 1975 referendum, where over 97% voted for abolishing monarchy and joining India.

Key Features of Sikkim:

• First 100% Organic State in India — pioneered sustainable agriculture.

• Ecological Richness: Part of the Eastern Himalayas biodiversity hotspot, home to species like the red panda and Himalayan blue poppy.

• Cultural Diversity: Home to Lepchas, Bhutias, and Nepalis; preserves vibrant Buddhist traditions.

• Strategic Importance: Acts as a buffer state between India and China; region of historical and geopolitical significance, especially near Doklam.

• Tourism & Development: Focus on eco-tourism, clean energy, and heritage preservation.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to the ISRO PSLV-C61 mission, consider the following statements: The PSLV-C61 was the maiden flight of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle series. The mission’s primary objective was to place the EOS-09 satellite, a communication satellite, into a Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO). The EOS-09 satellite was equipped with a Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) payload for all-weather Earth imagery. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The PSLV-C61 was the 63rd flight of the PSLV and the 27th in its XL configuration, not its maiden flight. PSLV has a long and largely successful history. Statement 2 is incorrect. The mission objective was to launch EOS-09, an Earth Observation Satellite (not a communication satellite), into a Sun Synchronous Polar Orbit (SSPO), not a Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO). Different orbits serve different satellite purposes. Statement 3 is correct. The EOS-09 satellite is a remote sensing satellite designed to provide high-resolution, all-weather Earth imagery using a Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) payload. SAR technology allows for imaging capabilities during day/night and through cloud cover. About ISRO’s PSLV-C61: What it is: The PSLV-C61 was the 63rd flight of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and the 27th in the PSLV-XL configuration. Developed by: Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Mission Objective: To launch EOS-09, an Earth Observation Satellite, into Sun Synchronous Polar Orbit (SSPO). Vehicle Features: Height: 44.5 m, Lift-off Mass: 321 tonnes Four-stage launch vehicle with six solid strap-on boosters Stages: Alternating solid and liquid propulsion Stage 3 Failure: Chamber pressure in solid motor dropped, leading to mission failure Sustainability Effort: Planned Orbit Change Thrusters (OCT) & passivation of PS4 to reduce orbital debris. About EOS-09 Satellite: What it is: EOS-09 is a remote sensing satellite, a successor to EOS-04, developed to serve multi-sectoral imaging applications. Objective: Provide high-resolution, all-weather Earth imagery using Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR). Support disaster monitoring, agriculture, forestry, and urban planning. Key Features: Launch Mass: 1696.24 kg SAR Payload for day/night and all-weather capabilities Mission Life: 5 years Equipped with deorbiting fuel for post-mission disposal compliance. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The PSLV-C61 was the 63rd flight of the PSLV and the 27th in its XL configuration, not its maiden flight. PSLV has a long and largely successful history. Statement 2 is incorrect. The mission objective was to launch EOS-09, an Earth Observation Satellite (not a communication satellite), into a Sun Synchronous Polar Orbit (SSPO), not a Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO). Different orbits serve different satellite purposes. Statement 3 is correct. The EOS-09 satellite is a remote sensing satellite designed to provide high-resolution, all-weather Earth imagery using a Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) payload. SAR technology allows for imaging capabilities during day/night and through cloud cover. About ISRO’s PSLV-C61: What it is: The PSLV-C61 was the 63rd flight of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and the 27th in the PSLV-XL configuration. Developed by: Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Mission Objective: To launch EOS-09, an Earth Observation Satellite, into Sun Synchronous Polar Orbit (SSPO). Vehicle Features: Height: 44.5 m, Lift-off Mass: 321 tonnes Four-stage launch vehicle with six solid strap-on boosters Stages: Alternating solid and liquid propulsion Stage 3 Failure: Chamber pressure in solid motor dropped, leading to mission failure Sustainability Effort: Planned Orbit Change Thrusters (OCT) & passivation of PS4 to reduce orbital debris. About EOS-09 Satellite: What it is: EOS-09 is a remote sensing satellite, a successor to EOS-04, developed to serve multi-sectoral imaging applications. Objective: Provide high-resolution, all-weather Earth imagery using Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR). Support disaster monitoring, agriculture, forestry, and urban planning. Key Features: Launch Mass: 1696.24 kg SAR Payload for day/night and all-weather capabilities Mission Life: 5 years Equipped with deorbiting fuel for post-mission disposal compliance.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the ISRO PSLV-C61 mission, consider the following statements:

• The PSLV-C61 was the maiden flight of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle series.

• The mission’s primary objective was to place the EOS-09 satellite, a communication satellite, into a Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO).

• The EOS-09 satellite was equipped with a Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) payload for all-weather Earth imagery.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The PSLV-C61 was the 63rd flight of the PSLV and the 27th in its XL configuration, not its maiden flight. PSLV has a long and largely successful history.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The mission objective was to launch EOS-09, an Earth Observation Satellite (not a communication satellite), into a Sun Synchronous Polar Orbit (SSPO), not a Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO). Different orbits serve different satellite purposes.

• Statement 3 is correct. The EOS-09 satellite is a remote sensing satellite designed to provide high-resolution, all-weather Earth imagery using a Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) payload. SAR technology allows for imaging capabilities during day/night and through cloud cover.

About ISRO’s PSLV-C61:

• What it is: The PSLV-C61 was the 63rd flight of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and the 27th in the PSLV-XL configuration.

• Developed by: Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).

• Mission Objective: To launch EOS-09, an Earth Observation Satellite, into Sun Synchronous Polar Orbit (SSPO).

• Vehicle Features: Height: 44.5 m, Lift-off Mass: 321 tonnes Four-stage launch vehicle with six solid strap-on boosters Stages: Alternating solid and liquid propulsion Stage 3 Failure: Chamber pressure in solid motor dropped, leading to mission failure

• Height: 44.5 m, Lift-off Mass: 321 tonnes

• Four-stage launch vehicle with six solid strap-on boosters

• Stages: Alternating solid and liquid propulsion

• Stage 3 Failure: Chamber pressure in solid motor dropped, leading to mission failure

• Sustainability Effort: Planned Orbit Change Thrusters (OCT) & passivation of PS4 to reduce orbital debris.

About EOS-09 Satellite:

• What it is: EOS-09 is a remote sensing satellite, a successor to EOS-04, developed to serve multi-sectoral imaging applications.

• Objective: Provide high-resolution, all-weather Earth imagery using Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR). Support disaster monitoring, agriculture, forestry, and urban planning.

• Provide high-resolution, all-weather Earth imagery using Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR).

• Support disaster monitoring, agriculture, forestry, and urban planning.

• Key Features: Launch Mass: 1696.24 kg SAR Payload for day/night and all-weather capabilities Mission Life: 5 years Equipped with deorbiting fuel for post-mission disposal compliance.

• Launch Mass: 1696.24 kg

• SAR Payload for day/night and all-weather capabilities

• Mission Life: 5 years

• Equipped with deorbiting fuel for post-mission disposal compliance.

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The PSLV-C61 was the 63rd flight of the PSLV and the 27th in its XL configuration, not its maiden flight. PSLV has a long and largely successful history.

About ISRO’s PSLV-C61:

• What it is: The PSLV-C61 was the 63rd flight of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and the 27th in the PSLV-XL configuration.

• Developed by: Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).

• Mission Objective: To launch EOS-09, an Earth Observation Satellite, into Sun Synchronous Polar Orbit (SSPO).

• Height: 44.5 m, Lift-off Mass: 321 tonnes

• Four-stage launch vehicle with six solid strap-on boosters

• Stages: Alternating solid and liquid propulsion

• Stage 3 Failure: Chamber pressure in solid motor dropped, leading to mission failure

• Sustainability Effort: Planned Orbit Change Thrusters (OCT) & passivation of PS4 to reduce orbital debris.

About EOS-09 Satellite:

• What it is: EOS-09 is a remote sensing satellite, a successor to EOS-04, developed to serve multi-sectoral imaging applications.

• Objective: Provide high-resolution, all-weather Earth imagery using Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR). Support disaster monitoring, agriculture, forestry, and urban planning.

• Provide high-resolution, all-weather Earth imagery using Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR).

• Support disaster monitoring, agriculture, forestry, and urban planning.

• Key Features: Launch Mass: 1696.24 kg SAR Payload for day/night and all-weather capabilities Mission Life: 5 years Equipped with deorbiting fuel for post-mission disposal compliance.

• Launch Mass: 1696.24 kg

• SAR Payload for day/night and all-weather capabilities

• Mission Life: 5 years

• Equipped with deorbiting fuel for post-mission disposal compliance.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the “Bird-Wing” solar eruption: The event exclusively involved a solar flare without an accompanying Coronal Mass Ejection (CME). The plasma ejection associated with the event occurred on the Sun’s southern hemisphere. Solar flares travel at the speed of light, while CMEs typically take 1–3 days to reach Earth. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is incorrect. The “Bird-Wing” event involved both a solar flare and a coronal mass ejection (CME). Solar flares are intense bursts of radiation, and CMEs are explosive outflows of charged solar plasma; they often occur together. Statement 2 is incorrect. The plasma ejection from the “Bird-Wing” event occurred on the Sun’s northern hemisphere, not the southern hemisphere, as observed by NASA satellites. Statement 3 is correct. Solar flares, being bursts of electromagnetic radiation, travel at the speed of light and their effects (like radio blackouts) are felt on Earth within minutes. Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs), which are ejections of plasma (matter), travel much slower, with speeds ranging from 250 to 3000 km/s, typically taking 1 to 3 days to reach Earth and potentially cause geomagnetic storms. What is the “Bird-Wing” Event? A visually dramatic solar eruption with plasma shaped like wings, observed by NASA satellites. The ejected plasma stream spanned over 1 million km, twice the Earth-Moon distance. Features of the Event: Involved both a solar flare and a coronal mass ejection (CME). Plasma ejection occurred on the Sun’s northern hemisphere. Radiation already caused radio blackouts across parts of Asia, Africa, Europe, and the Americas. What Are Solar Flares? Solar flares are intense bursts of electromagnetic radiation released due to reconnection of magnetic field lines. Often accompanied by CMEs, which are explosive outflows of charged solar plasma. Speed: Flares travel at light speed, CMEs take 1–3 days to reach Earth (speed: 250–3000 km/s). Impact on Earth: Geomagnetic Storms: Disrupt satellite operations, GPS systems, radio communication, and power grids. Auroras: Enhanced Northern/Southern Lights activity possible at lower latitudes. Space Weather Alerts: Agencies on high alert for further space-based disruptions. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is incorrect. The “Bird-Wing” event involved both a solar flare and a coronal mass ejection (CME). Solar flares are intense bursts of radiation, and CMEs are explosive outflows of charged solar plasma; they often occur together. Statement 2 is incorrect. The plasma ejection from the “Bird-Wing” event occurred on the Sun’s northern hemisphere, not the southern hemisphere, as observed by NASA satellites. Statement 3 is correct. Solar flares, being bursts of electromagnetic radiation, travel at the speed of light and their effects (like radio blackouts) are felt on Earth within minutes. Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs), which are ejections of plasma (matter), travel much slower, with speeds ranging from 250 to 3000 km/s, typically taking 1 to 3 days to reach Earth and potentially cause geomagnetic storms. What is the “Bird-Wing” Event? A visually dramatic solar eruption with plasma shaped like wings, observed by NASA satellites. The ejected plasma stream spanned over 1 million km, twice the Earth-Moon distance. Features of the Event: Involved both a solar flare and a coronal mass ejection (CME). Plasma ejection occurred on the Sun’s northern hemisphere. Radiation already caused radio blackouts across parts of Asia, Africa, Europe, and the Americas. What Are Solar Flares? Solar flares are intense bursts of electromagnetic radiation released due to reconnection of magnetic field lines. Often accompanied by CMEs, which are explosive outflows of charged solar plasma. Speed: Flares travel at light speed, CMEs take 1–3 days to reach Earth (speed: 250–3000 km/s). Impact on Earth: Geomagnetic Storms: Disrupt satellite operations, GPS systems, radio communication, and power grids. Auroras: Enhanced Northern/Southern Lights activity possible at lower latitudes. Space Weather Alerts: Agencies on high alert for further space-based disruptions.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the “Bird-Wing” solar eruption:

• The event exclusively involved a solar flare without an accompanying Coronal Mass Ejection (CME).

• The plasma ejection associated with the event occurred on the Sun’s southern hemisphere.

• Solar flares travel at the speed of light, while CMEs typically take 1–3 days to reach Earth.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The “Bird-Wing” event involved both a solar flare and a coronal mass ejection (CME). Solar flares are intense bursts of radiation, and CMEs are explosive outflows of charged solar plasma; they often occur together.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The plasma ejection from the “Bird-Wing” event occurred on the Sun’s northern hemisphere, not the southern hemisphere, as observed by NASA satellites.

• Statement 3 is correct. Solar flares, being bursts of electromagnetic radiation, travel at the speed of light and their effects (like radio blackouts) are felt on Earth within minutes. Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs), which are ejections of plasma (matter), travel much slower, with speeds ranging from 250 to 3000 km/s, typically taking 1 to 3 days to reach Earth and potentially cause geomagnetic storms.

• What is the “Bird-Wing” Event?

• A visually dramatic solar eruption with plasma shaped like wings, observed by NASA satellites. The ejected plasma stream spanned over 1 million km, twice the Earth-Moon distance.

• A visually dramatic solar eruption with plasma shaped like wings, observed by NASA satellites.

• The ejected plasma stream spanned over 1 million km, twice the Earth-Moon distance.

• Features of the Event:

• Involved both a solar flare and a coronal mass ejection (CME). Plasma ejection occurred on the Sun’s northern hemisphere. Radiation already caused radio blackouts across parts of Asia, Africa, Europe, and the Americas.

• Involved both a solar flare and a coronal mass ejection (CME).

• Plasma ejection occurred on the Sun’s northern hemisphere.

• Radiation already caused radio blackouts across parts of Asia, Africa, Europe, and the Americas.

• What Are Solar Flares?

• Solar flares are intense bursts of electromagnetic radiation released due to reconnection of magnetic field lines. Often accompanied by CMEs, which are explosive outflows of charged solar plasma. Speed: Flares travel at light speed, CMEs take 1–3 days to reach Earth (speed: 250–3000 km/s).

• Solar flares are intense bursts of electromagnetic radiation released due to reconnection of magnetic field lines.

• Often accompanied by CMEs, which are explosive outflows of charged solar plasma.

• Speed: Flares travel at light speed, CMEs take 1–3 days to reach Earth (speed: 250–3000 km/s).

• Impact on Earth:

• Geomagnetic Storms: Disrupt satellite operations, GPS systems, radio communication, and power grids. Auroras: Enhanced Northern/Southern Lights activity possible at lower latitudes. Space Weather Alerts: Agencies on high alert for further space-based disruptions.

• Geomagnetic Storms: Disrupt satellite operations, GPS systems, radio communication, and power grids.

• Auroras: Enhanced Northern/Southern Lights activity possible at lower latitudes.

• Space Weather Alerts: Agencies on high alert for further space-based disruptions.

Solution: c)

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The plasma ejection from the “Bird-Wing” event occurred on the Sun’s northern hemisphere, not the southern hemisphere, as observed by NASA satellites.

• What is the “Bird-Wing” Event?

• A visually dramatic solar eruption with plasma shaped like wings, observed by NASA satellites. The ejected plasma stream spanned over 1 million km, twice the Earth-Moon distance.

• A visually dramatic solar eruption with plasma shaped like wings, observed by NASA satellites.

• The ejected plasma stream spanned over 1 million km, twice the Earth-Moon distance.

• Features of the Event:

• Involved both a solar flare and a coronal mass ejection (CME).

• Plasma ejection occurred on the Sun’s northern hemisphere.

• Radiation already caused radio blackouts across parts of Asia, Africa, Europe, and the Americas.

• What Are Solar Flares?

• Solar flares are intense bursts of electromagnetic radiation released due to reconnection of magnetic field lines.

• Often accompanied by CMEs, which are explosive outflows of charged solar plasma.

• Speed: Flares travel at light speed, CMEs take 1–3 days to reach Earth (speed: 250–3000 km/s).

• Impact on Earth:

• Geomagnetic Storms: Disrupt satellite operations, GPS systems, radio communication, and power grids.

• Auroras: Enhanced Northern/Southern Lights activity possible at lower latitudes.

• Space Weather Alerts: Agencies on high alert for further space-based disruptions.

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