UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 29 July 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Sohrai Art: It is a mural art form traditionally practiced by men of the Santhal and Munda tribes. The art is created exclusively during the sowing season as a prayer for a bountiful harvest. It primarily uses natural pigments derived from different types of earth and minerals. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Sohrai art is a women-led tradition. It is practiced and passed down through generations by tribal women, not men. It is an expression of feminine creativity and is linked to the celebration of womanhood and fertility. While it is associated with tribes like the Santhal, Munda, and Oraon, it is the women who are the primary artists. Statement 2 is incorrect. Sohrai art is painted during the harvest festival, which coincides with Diwali. It is a form of thanksgiving to honour livestock and the fertility of the land for the harvest already reaped, not a prayer during the sowing season. Statement 3 is correct. Sohrai art is a traditional art form that relies on materials sourced directly from nature. The artists use natural pigments such as red ochre (geru), white kaolin (chui mitti), black manganese, and yellow clay. These earth-based colours give the art its distinctive and organic aesthetic, reflecting the deep connection between the tribal communities and their environment. The application is also done with traditional tools like chewed bamboo sticks and cloth rags. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Sohrai art is a women-led tradition. It is practiced and passed down through generations by tribal women, not men. It is an expression of feminine creativity and is linked to the celebration of womanhood and fertility. While it is associated with tribes like the Santhal, Munda, and Oraon, it is the women who are the primary artists. Statement 2 is incorrect. Sohrai art is painted during the harvest festival, which coincides with Diwali. It is a form of thanksgiving to honour livestock and the fertility of the land for the harvest already reaped, not a prayer during the sowing season. Statement 3 is correct. Sohrai art is a traditional art form that relies on materials sourced directly from nature. The artists use natural pigments such as red ochre (geru), white kaolin (chui mitti), black manganese, and yellow clay. These earth-based colours give the art its distinctive and organic aesthetic, reflecting the deep connection between the tribal communities and their environment. The application is also done with traditional tools like chewed bamboo sticks and cloth rags.

#### 1. Question

• Consider the following statements regarding Sohrai Art:

• It is a mural art form traditionally practiced by men of the Santhal and Munda tribes.

• The art is created exclusively during the sowing season as a prayer for a bountiful harvest.

• It primarily uses natural pigments derived from different types of earth and minerals.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Sohrai art is a women-led tradition. It is practiced and passed down through generations by tribal women, not men. It is an expression of feminine creativity and is linked to the celebration of womanhood and fertility. While it is associated with tribes like the Santhal, Munda, and Oraon, it is the women who are the primary artists.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Sohrai art is painted during the harvest festival, which coincides with Diwali. It is a form of thanksgiving to honour livestock and the fertility of the land for the harvest already reaped, not a prayer during the sowing season.

Statement 3 is correct. Sohrai art is a traditional art form that relies on materials sourced directly from nature. The artists use natural pigments such as red ochre (geru), white kaolin (chui mitti), black manganese, and yellow clay. These earth-based colours give the art its distinctive and organic aesthetic, reflecting the deep connection between the tribal communities and their environment. The application is also done with traditional tools like chewed bamboo sticks and cloth rags.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India’s first private test facility for depleted heavy water upgradation: It was developed independently by a private firm without any collaboration from government nuclear agencies. The facility’s primary function is to enrich uranium for use in India’s nuclear power reactors. The technology for this facility was developed and transferred by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC). How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The facility is a collaborative effort. It was built by a private firm, TEMA India Ltd., but under a technology transfer agreement with BARC and in fulfilment of a purchase order from the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd. (NPCIL). Statement 2 is incorrect. The facility is designed for upgrading depleted heavy water, not for enriching uranium. Heavy water (D2O) is used as a moderator and coolant in Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs), which form the backbone of India’s nuclear power programme. Over time, its isotopic purity degrades. This facility tests the distillation columns required to restore its purity. Statement 3 is correct. The establishment of this facility is a prime example of a successful public-private partnership in a strategic sector. The core technology and guidance for the heavy water upgradation process were developed by the Chemical Engineering Group of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC). BARC then transferred this indigenous technology to the private company, TEMA India Ltd., enabling them to build and commission the facility. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The facility is a collaborative effort. It was built by a private firm, TEMA India Ltd., but under a technology transfer agreement with BARC and in fulfilment of a purchase order from the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd. (NPCIL). Statement 2 is incorrect. The facility is designed for upgrading depleted heavy water, not for enriching uranium. Heavy water (D2O) is used as a moderator and coolant in Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs), which form the backbone of India’s nuclear power programme. Over time, its isotopic purity degrades. This facility tests the distillation columns required to restore its purity. Statement 3 is correct. The establishment of this facility is a prime example of a successful public-private partnership in a strategic sector. The core technology and guidance for the heavy water upgradation process were developed by the Chemical Engineering Group of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC). BARC then transferred this indigenous technology to the private company, TEMA India Ltd., enabling them to build and commission the facility.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India’s first private test facility for depleted heavy water upgradation:

• It was developed independently by a private firm without any collaboration from government nuclear agencies.

• The facility’s primary function is to enrich uranium for use in India’s nuclear power reactors.

• The technology for this facility was developed and transferred by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC).

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The facility is a collaborative effort. It was built by a private firm, TEMA India Ltd., but under a technology transfer agreement with BARC and in fulfilment of a purchase order from the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd. (NPCIL).

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The facility is designed for upgrading depleted heavy water, not for enriching uranium. Heavy water (D2O) is used as a moderator and coolant in Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs), which form the backbone of India’s nuclear power programme. Over time, its isotopic purity degrades. This facility tests the distillation columns required to restore its purity.

Statement 3 is correct. The establishment of this facility is a prime example of a successful public-private partnership in a strategic sector. The core technology and guidance for the heavy water upgradation process were developed by the Chemical Engineering Group of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC). BARC then transferred this indigenous technology to the private company, TEMA India Ltd., enabling them to build and commission the facility.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points The establishment of the Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) is a mandatory requirement for many organisations in India. It derives its direct legal authority from: (a) The recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State relations. (b) A constitutional amendment focusing on gender equality. (c) The guidelines laid down by the Supreme Court in the Vishaka case, later formalised by the POSH Act, 2013. (d) An international treaty on labour rights ratified by the Indian Parliament. Correct Solution: C The legal foundation for the Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) is rooted in the judicial and legislative response to workplace sexual harassment in India. The genesis of the ICC lies in the landmark Vishaka Guidelines, laid down by the Supreme Court of India in 1997 in the case of Vishaka and others v. State of Rajasthan. These guidelines were a set of directives for employers to address sexual harassment at the workplace, filling a legislative vacuum at the time. These judicially mandated guidelines were later given a formal, statutory framework through the enactment of the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 (POSH Act). The POSH Act made the establishment of an ICC mandatory for every workplace with 10 or more employees, making it the principal legal instrument governing the prevention and redressal of sexual harassment in India. Incorrect Solution: C The legal foundation for the Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) is rooted in the judicial and legislative response to workplace sexual harassment in India. The genesis of the ICC lies in the landmark Vishaka Guidelines, laid down by the Supreme Court of India in 1997 in the case of Vishaka and others v. State of Rajasthan. These guidelines were a set of directives for employers to address sexual harassment at the workplace, filling a legislative vacuum at the time. These judicially mandated guidelines were later given a formal, statutory framework through the enactment of the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 (POSH Act). The POSH Act made the establishment of an ICC mandatory for every workplace with 10 or more employees, making it the principal legal instrument governing the prevention and redressal of sexual harassment in India.

#### 3. Question

The establishment of the Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) is a mandatory requirement for many organisations in India. It derives its direct legal authority from:

• (a) The recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State relations.

• (b) A constitutional amendment focusing on gender equality.

• (c) The guidelines laid down by the Supreme Court in the Vishaka case, later formalised by the POSH Act, 2013.

• (d) An international treaty on labour rights ratified by the Indian Parliament.

Solution: C

• The legal foundation for the Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) is rooted in the judicial and legislative response to workplace sexual harassment in India. The genesis of the ICC lies in the landmark Vishaka Guidelines, laid down by the Supreme Court of India in 1997 in the case of Vishaka and others v. State of Rajasthan. These guidelines were a set of directives for employers to address sexual harassment at the workplace, filling a legislative vacuum at the time.

These judicially mandated guidelines were later given a formal, statutory framework through the enactment of the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 (POSH Act). The POSH Act made the establishment of an ICC mandatory for every workplace with 10 or more employees, making it the principal legal instrument governing the prevention and redressal of sexual harassment in India.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to the Android Earthquake Alert (AEA) system, consider the following statements: The system relies on dedicated seismograph sensors installed by Google in partner countries. It was first developed and rolled out for the highly seismic region of Japan. The system is designed to provide alerts several minutes before an earthquake’s P-waves are detected. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The AEA system’s innovative and cost-effective design is based on crowdsourcing data from the accelerometers already present in millions of Android smartphones. It does not require any new, dedicated sensor infrastructure to be installed, which is a key reason for its rapid global scalability. Statement 2 is incorrect. The system was developed by Google in collaboration with the Seismology Laboratory of the University of California, Berkeley, and was first rolled out in the United States (specifically California) in 2020, not Japan. It has since been expanded to over 98 countries. Statement 3 is incorrect. The system works by detecting the initial, less destructive seismic waves (P-waves) and issuing an alert before the subsequent, more destructive shear waves (S-waves) arrive. It cannot provide an alert before the P-waves are detected, as the detection of P-waves is the trigger for the alert itself. The time gap between the P-wave detection and S-wave arrival provides the crucial warning window. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The AEA system’s innovative and cost-effective design is based on crowdsourcing data from the accelerometers already present in millions of Android smartphones. It does not require any new, dedicated sensor infrastructure to be installed, which is a key reason for its rapid global scalability. Statement 2 is incorrect. The system was developed by Google in collaboration with the Seismology Laboratory of the University of California, Berkeley, and was first rolled out in the United States (specifically California) in 2020, not Japan. It has since been expanded to over 98 countries. Statement 3 is incorrect. The system works by detecting the initial, less destructive seismic waves (P-waves) and issuing an alert before the subsequent, more destructive shear waves (S-waves) arrive. It cannot provide an alert before the P-waves are detected, as the detection of P-waves is the trigger for the alert itself. The time gap between the P-wave detection and S-wave arrival provides the crucial warning window.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the Android Earthquake Alert (AEA) system, consider the following statements:

• The system relies on dedicated seismograph sensors installed by Google in partner countries.

• It was first developed and rolled out for the highly seismic region of Japan.

• The system is designed to provide alerts several minutes before an earthquake’s P-waves are detected.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The AEA system’s innovative and cost-effective design is based on crowdsourcing data from the accelerometers already present in millions of Android smartphones. It does not require any new, dedicated sensor infrastructure to be installed, which is a key reason for its rapid global scalability.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The system was developed by Google in collaboration with the Seismology Laboratory of the University of California, Berkeley, and was first rolled out in the United States (specifically California) in 2020, not Japan. It has since been expanded to over 98 countries.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The system works by detecting the initial, less destructive seismic waves (P-waves) and issuing an alert before the subsequent, more destructive shear waves (S-waves) arrive. It cannot provide an alert before the P-waves are detected, as the detection of P-waves is the trigger for the alert itself. The time gap between the P-wave detection and S-wave arrival provides the crucial warning window.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD): It is a contagious bacterial disease that primarily affects cloven-hoofed animals. The disease has significant zoonotic potential and poses a major food safety threat to humans. India’s National Animal Disease Control Programme (NADCP) aims for the eventual eradication of FMD. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. FMD is a highly contagious viral disease, not bacterial. It is caused by an Aphthovirus. Statement 2 is incorrect. FMD is not considered a zoonotic disease, meaning it does not transmit from animals to humans. Consequently, it does not pose a direct public health or food safety threat to people. Its severe economic impact comes from the loss of productivity in affected livestock, such as reduced milk yield, weight loss, and trade restrictions, not from human illness. Statement 3 is correct. The Government of India launched the National Animal Disease Control Programme (NADCP) in 2019 as a major initiative to combat key livestock diseases. It is a 100% centrally funded programme with the explicit twin targets of controlling and eventually eradicating Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) and Brucellosis by 2030. This involves mass vaccination, ear-tagging for traceability, and disease surveillance. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. FMD is a highly contagious viral disease, not bacterial. It is caused by an Aphthovirus. Statement 2 is incorrect. FMD is not considered a zoonotic disease, meaning it does not transmit from animals to humans. Consequently, it does not pose a direct public health or food safety threat to people. Its severe economic impact comes from the loss of productivity in affected livestock, such as reduced milk yield, weight loss, and trade restrictions, not from human illness. Statement 3 is correct. The Government of India launched the National Animal Disease Control Programme (NADCP) in 2019 as a major initiative to combat key livestock diseases. It is a 100% centrally funded programme with the explicit twin targets of controlling and eventually eradicating Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) and Brucellosis by 2030. This involves mass vaccination, ear-tagging for traceability, and disease surveillance.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD):

• It is a contagious bacterial disease that primarily affects cloven-hoofed animals.

• The disease has significant zoonotic potential and poses a major food safety threat to humans.

• India’s National Animal Disease Control Programme (NADCP) aims for the eventual eradication of FMD.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. FMD is a highly contagious viral disease, not bacterial. It is caused by an Aphthovirus.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. FMD is not considered a zoonotic disease, meaning it does not transmit from animals to humans. Consequently, it does not pose a direct public health or food safety threat to people. Its severe economic impact comes from the loss of productivity in affected livestock, such as reduced milk yield, weight loss, and trade restrictions, not from human illness.

Statement 3 is correct. The Government of India launched the National Animal Disease Control Programme (NADCP) in 2019 as a major initiative to combat key livestock diseases. It is a 100% centrally funded programme with the explicit twin targets of controlling and eventually eradicating Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) and Brucellosis by 2030. This involves mass vaccination, ear-tagging for traceability, and disease surveillance.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. FMD is a highly contagious viral disease, not bacterial. It is caused by an Aphthovirus.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Kalu River: It originates in the Konkan lowlands and flows eastward to join the Godavari river basin. The river is perennial, fed by glacial melt from the Harishchandragad peak. It forms a part of the west-flowing river system of the Konkan region. The river basin is located within an arid ecological zone with sparse vegetation. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The river originates on the Deccan Plateau (near Harishchandragad in the Sahyadris) and flows westward into the Konkan region. It does not flow eastward and is not part of the Godavari basin. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Kalu River is a monsoon-fed, non-perennial river, not glacial-fed. Its water levels are highest during the monsoon months due to heavy rainfall in the Western Ghats and dwindle significantly in the dry season. The Harishchandragad peak is in the Sahyadris, which are not high enough to have glaciers. Statement 3 is correct. The Kalu River originates in the Sahyadri ranges and flows westward, eventually draining into the Ulhas River, which empties into the Arabian Sea. This makes it a part of the west-flowing river system that characterizes the Konkan coastal plain. These rivers are typically swift and have short courses. Statement 4 is incorrect. The river flows through the Western Ghats, specifically the Kalsubai–Harishchandragad Wildlife Sanctuary, which is a rich ecological zone with high rainfall and dense forests. This area is known for its biodiversity, not for being arid. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The river originates on the Deccan Plateau (near Harishchandragad in the Sahyadris) and flows westward into the Konkan region. It does not flow eastward and is not part of the Godavari basin. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Kalu River is a monsoon-fed, non-perennial river, not glacial-fed. Its water levels are highest during the monsoon months due to heavy rainfall in the Western Ghats and dwindle significantly in the dry season. The Harishchandragad peak is in the Sahyadris, which are not high enough to have glaciers. Statement 3 is correct. The Kalu River originates in the Sahyadri ranges and flows westward, eventually draining into the Ulhas River, which empties into the Arabian Sea. This makes it a part of the west-flowing river system that characterizes the Konkan coastal plain. These rivers are typically swift and have short courses. Statement 4 is incorrect. The river flows through the Western Ghats, specifically the Kalsubai–Harishchandragad Wildlife Sanctuary, which is a rich ecological zone with high rainfall and dense forests. This area is known for its biodiversity, not for being arid.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Kalu River:

• It originates in the Konkan lowlands and flows eastward to join the Godavari river basin.

• The river is perennial, fed by glacial melt from the Harishchandragad peak.

• It forms a part of the west-flowing river system of the Konkan region.

• The river basin is located within an arid ecological zone with sparse vegetation.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The river originates on the Deccan Plateau (near Harishchandragad in the Sahyadris) and flows westward into the Konkan region. It does not flow eastward and is not part of the Godavari basin.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Kalu River is a monsoon-fed, non-perennial river, not glacial-fed. Its water levels are highest during the monsoon months due to heavy rainfall in the Western Ghats and dwindle significantly in the dry season. The Harishchandragad peak is in the Sahyadris, which are not high enough to have glaciers.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Kalu River originates in the Sahyadri ranges and flows westward, eventually draining into the Ulhas River, which empties into the Arabian Sea. This makes it a part of the west-flowing river system that characterizes the Konkan coastal plain. These rivers are typically swift and have short courses.

Statement 4 is incorrect. The river flows through the Western Ghats, specifically the Kalsubai–Harishchandragad Wildlife Sanctuary, which is a rich ecological zone with high rainfall and dense forests. This area is known for its biodiversity, not for being arid.

Solution: A

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points The primary focus of the bilateral military exercise ‘Bold Kurukshetra’ is on: (a) Counter-insurgency and jungle warfare tactics. (b) Joint anti-piracy and maritime security operations in the South China Sea. (c) Enhancing interoperability in mechanised warfare and UN peacekeeping scenarios. (d) High-altitude combat training in mountainous terrain. Correct Solution: C The core objective of Exercise Bold Kurukshetra, a bilateral engagement between the Indian Army and the Singapore Armed Forces, is to enhance joint operational capabilities, with a specific emphasis on two areas. Firstly, it focuses on mechanised warfare, involving armoured regiments and infantry. This is often simulated through computer-based wargames and tabletop exercises. Secondly, a crucial aspect of recent editions has been the simulation of joint operations under a United Nations (UN) mandate. This involves validating tactics and coordination for multinational peacekeeping missions, which is a key area of modern military cooperation. The exercise aims to improve synergy and interoperability between the two armies for executing such complex missions. Incorrect Solution: C The core objective of Exercise Bold Kurukshetra, a bilateral engagement between the Indian Army and the Singapore Armed Forces, is to enhance joint operational capabilities, with a specific emphasis on two areas. Firstly, it focuses on mechanised warfare, involving armoured regiments and infantry. This is often simulated through computer-based wargames and tabletop exercises. Secondly, a crucial aspect of recent editions has been the simulation of joint operations under a United Nations (UN) mandate. This involves validating tactics and coordination for multinational peacekeeping missions, which is a key area of modern military cooperation. The exercise aims to improve synergy and interoperability between the two armies for executing such complex missions.

#### 7. Question

The primary focus of the bilateral military exercise ‘Bold Kurukshetra’ is on:

• (a) Counter-insurgency and jungle warfare tactics.

• (b) Joint anti-piracy and maritime security operations in the South China Sea.

• (c) Enhancing interoperability in mechanised warfare and UN peacekeeping scenarios.

• (d) High-altitude combat training in mountainous terrain.

Solution: C

• The core objective of Exercise Bold Kurukshetra, a bilateral engagement between the Indian Army and the Singapore Armed Forces, is to enhance joint operational capabilities, with a specific emphasis on two areas.

• Firstly, it focuses on mechanised warfare, involving armoured regiments and infantry. This is often simulated through computer-based wargames and tabletop exercises.

• Secondly, a crucial aspect of recent editions has been the simulation of joint operations under a United Nations (UN) mandate. This involves validating tactics and coordination for multinational peacekeeping missions, which is a key area of modern military cooperation.

• The exercise aims to improve synergy and interoperability between the two armies for executing such complex missions.

Solution: C

• Firstly, it focuses on mechanised warfare, involving armoured regiments and infantry. This is often simulated through computer-based wargames and tabletop exercises.

• The exercise aims to improve synergy and interoperability between the two armies for executing such complex missions.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Android Earthquake Alert (AEA) system has significantly democratised access to seismic early warnings globally. Statement-II: The system functions by leveraging the existing network of millions of personal smartphones as seismic sensors, eliminating the need for costly, specialized infrastructure. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Traditional earthquake early warning systems are expensive and limited to countries that can afford to build and maintain a dense network of seismometers. The AEA system, by being available on standard Android phones, has expanded access to early warnings to hundreds of millions of people in over 98 countries, many of which lacked such systems before. This represents a true democratisation of disaster warning technology. Statement-II is also correct. The fundamental innovation of the AEA system is its crowdsourced approach. It uses the accelerometers built into Android smartphones to detect initial earthquake tremors. By aggregating this data in real-time, it functions as a vast, distributed sensor network without requiring any new, dedicated hardware. This zero-cost infrastructure model is precisely what allows the system to be scaled globally and democratise access. Thus, the mechanism described in Statement-II is the direct cause of the outcome described in Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Traditional earthquake early warning systems are expensive and limited to countries that can afford to build and maintain a dense network of seismometers. The AEA system, by being available on standard Android phones, has expanded access to early warnings to hundreds of millions of people in over 98 countries, many of which lacked such systems before. This represents a true democratisation of disaster warning technology. Statement-II is also correct. The fundamental innovation of the AEA system is its crowdsourced approach. It uses the accelerometers built into Android smartphones to detect initial earthquake tremors. By aggregating this data in real-time, it functions as a vast, distributed sensor network without requiring any new, dedicated hardware. This zero-cost infrastructure model is precisely what allows the system to be scaled globally and democratise access. Thus, the mechanism described in Statement-II is the direct cause of the outcome described in Statement-I.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Android Earthquake Alert (AEA) system has significantly democratised access to seismic early warnings globally.

Statement-II: The system functions by leveraging the existing network of millions of personal smartphones as seismic sensors, eliminating the need for costly, specialized infrastructure.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. Traditional earthquake early warning systems are expensive and limited to countries that can afford to build and maintain a dense network of seismometers. The AEA system, by being available on standard Android phones, has expanded access to early warnings to hundreds of millions of people in over 98 countries, many of which lacked such systems before. This represents a true democratisation of disaster warning technology.

• Statement-II is also correct. The fundamental innovation of the AEA system is its crowdsourced approach. It uses the accelerometers built into Android smartphones to detect initial earthquake tremors. By aggregating this data in real-time, it functions as a vast, distributed sensor network without requiring any new, dedicated hardware. This zero-cost infrastructure model is precisely what allows the system to be scaled globally and democratise access.

• Thus, the mechanism described in Statement-II is the direct cause of the outcome described in Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Thus, the mechanism described in Statement-II is the direct cause of the outcome described in Statement-I.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points The primary reason Aspergillosis is often misattributed to pigeons in urban environments is that: (a) the Aspergillus fumigatus fungus can only survive and multiply within the digestive tract of the Blue Rock Pigeon. (b) the initial symptoms of Aspergillosis are identical to those of Psittacosis, a bacterial infection commonly carried by pigeons. (c) pigeons are the only birds known to carry the fungal spores on their feathers and transmit them to humans through physical contact. (d) pigeon droppings can provide a fertile substrate for the Aspergillus mold to grow, increasing the concentration of airborne spores in their vicinity. Correct Solution: D Option (d) is correct. Pigeon droppings (guano) are rich in nitrogen and other nutrients. When these droppings accumulate in areas like building ledges or air conditioning units, they create an ideal, nutrient-rich environment for the *Aspergillus* mold to proliferate. This leads to a higher local concentration of fungal spores, increasing the risk of inhalation for people nearby. Thus, pigeons are associated with the fungus’s growth, not its direct transmission. Incorrect Solution: D Option (d) is correct. Pigeon droppings (guano) are rich in nitrogen and other nutrients. When these droppings accumulate in areas like building ledges or air conditioning units, they create an ideal, nutrient-rich environment for the *Aspergillus* mold to proliferate. This leads to a higher local concentration of fungal spores, increasing the risk of inhalation for people nearby. Thus, pigeons are associated with the fungus’s growth, not its direct transmission.

#### 9. Question

The primary reason Aspergillosis is often misattributed to pigeons in urban environments is that:

• (a) the Aspergillus fumigatus fungus can only survive and multiply within the digestive tract of the Blue Rock Pigeon.

• (b) the initial symptoms of Aspergillosis are identical to those of Psittacosis, a bacterial infection commonly carried by pigeons.

• (c) pigeons are the only birds known to carry the fungal spores on their feathers and transmit them to humans through physical contact.

• (d) pigeon droppings can provide a fertile substrate for the Aspergillus mold to grow, increasing the concentration of airborne spores in their vicinity.

Solution: D

Option (d) is correct. Pigeon droppings (guano) are rich in nitrogen and other nutrients. When these droppings accumulate in areas like building ledges or air conditioning units, they create an ideal, nutrient-rich environment for the *Aspergillus* mold to proliferate. This leads to a higher local concentration of fungal spores, increasing the risk of inhalation for people nearby. Thus, pigeons are associated with the fungus’s growth, not its direct transmission.

Solution: D

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY): The PMDDKY is designed as a centrally sponsored scheme that converges existing programs from multiple ministries to maximize impact. The selection of districts under the scheme is based on a composite index that includes agricultural productivity, cropping intensity, and the flow of institutional credit. The implementation of the scheme at the district level is overseen by a “District Dhan Dhaanya Samiti,” which includes the District Collector and progressive farmers, but excludes representatives from agricultural universities. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement I is correct. It accurately describes the scheme’s architecture. It is a convergence model, integrating 36 schemes from 11 ministries, and as an agricultural development program with shared funding implications, it fits the model of a centrally sponsored scheme. Statement II is correct. The criteria for district selection are explicitly defined: low productivity, moderate cropping intensity, and low credit flow. This targeted approach ensures that resources are directed towards the most needy areas, which is a key principle of a well-designed convergence scheme. Statement III is incorrect. While it correctly identifies the “District Dhan Dhaanya Samiti” and the inclusion of the Collector and farmers, it wrongly claims that representatives from agricultural universities are excluded. The “Collaboration with Agri Universities and technical institutions for knowledge-sharing” is a key feature. These institutions are vital for providing the scientific and technical inputs that the scheme aims to infuse. Incorrect Solution: B Statement I is correct. It accurately describes the scheme’s architecture. It is a convergence model, integrating 36 schemes from 11 ministries, and as an agricultural development program with shared funding implications, it fits the model of a centrally sponsored scheme. Statement II is correct. The criteria for district selection are explicitly defined: low productivity, moderate cropping intensity, and low credit flow. This targeted approach ensures that resources are directed towards the most needy areas, which is a key principle of a well-designed convergence scheme. Statement III is incorrect. While it correctly identifies the “District Dhan Dhaanya Samiti” and the inclusion of the Collector and farmers, it wrongly claims that representatives from agricultural universities are excluded. The “Collaboration with Agri Universities and technical institutions for knowledge-sharing” is a key feature. These institutions are vital for providing the scientific and technical inputs that the scheme aims to infuse.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY):

• The PMDDKY is designed as a centrally sponsored scheme that converges existing programs from multiple ministries to maximize impact.

• The selection of districts under the scheme is based on a composite index that includes agricultural productivity, cropping intensity, and the flow of institutional credit.

• The implementation of the scheme at the district level is overseen by a “District Dhan Dhaanya Samiti,” which includes the District Collector and progressive farmers, but excludes representatives from agricultural universities.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement I is correct. It accurately describes the scheme’s architecture. It is a convergence model, integrating 36 schemes from 11 ministries, and as an agricultural development program with shared funding implications, it fits the model of a centrally sponsored scheme.

• Statement II is correct. The criteria for district selection are explicitly defined: low productivity, moderate cropping intensity, and low credit flow. This targeted approach ensures that resources are directed towards the most needy areas, which is a key principle of a well-designed convergence scheme.

• Statement III is incorrect. While it correctly identifies the “District Dhan Dhaanya Samiti” and the inclusion of the Collector and farmers, it wrongly claims that representatives from agricultural universities are excluded. The “Collaboration with Agri Universities and technical institutions for knowledge-sharing” is a key feature. These institutions are vital for providing the scientific and technical inputs that the scheme aims to infuse.

Solution: B

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