UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 29 July 2024

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following statements accurately describe the differences between a royalty and a tax? (a) A royalty is a payment made to the government for the use of public resources, while a tax is a payment made to the government for general revenue purposes. (b) A royalty is typically a percentage of revenue or profit derived from the use of a resource, while a tax is usually a fixed amount imposed on income, property, or sales. (c) Royalties are only paid by businesses, whereas taxes are only paid by individuals. (d) Royalties and taxes are both voluntary payments made to the government for various purposes. Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: The Supreme Court ruled that States have the unlimited right to tax mining lands and quarries, independent of the Parliament’s Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act of 1957. Difference between Royalty and a Tax: Aspect Royalty Tax Origin Originates from an agreement between parties. Imposed under a statutory power without reference to any special benefit conferred on the payer. Nature Compensation is paid for the rights and privileges enjoyed by the grantee. Enforced by law and does not require the taxpayer’s consent. Relationship Direct relationship with the benefit or privilege conferred upon the grantee. Imposed for public purposes without any specific benefit to the payer. Specificity Specific to the agreement and often linked to the exploitation of resources or usage of a privilege. Part of the common burden is borne by all citizens, not linked to any specific privilege or benefit. Quid Pro Quo Involves a quid pro quo arrangement. Does not involve a quid pro quo arrangement. Mandatory Nature Payment is linked to a specific benefit or privilege, and the arrangement is contractual. Payment is mandatory and not linked to any specific privilege or benefit. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: The Supreme Court ruled that States have the unlimited right to tax mining lands and quarries, independent of the Parliament’s Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act of 1957. Difference between Royalty and a Tax: Aspect Royalty Tax Origin Originates from an agreement between parties. Imposed under a statutory power without reference to any special benefit conferred on the payer. Nature Compensation is paid for the rights and privileges enjoyed by the grantee. Enforced by law and does not require the taxpayer’s consent. Relationship Direct relationship with the benefit or privilege conferred upon the grantee. Imposed for public purposes without any specific benefit to the payer. Specificity Specific to the agreement and often linked to the exploitation of resources or usage of a privilege. Part of the common burden is borne by all citizens, not linked to any specific privilege or benefit. Quid Pro Quo Involves a quid pro quo arrangement. Does not involve a quid pro quo arrangement. Mandatory Nature Payment is linked to a specific benefit or privilege, and the arrangement is contractual. Payment is mandatory and not linked to any specific privilege or benefit. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

#### 1. Question

Which of the following statements accurately describe the differences between a royalty and a tax?

• (a) A royalty is a payment made to the government for the use of public resources, while a tax is a payment made to the government for general revenue purposes.

• (b) A royalty is typically a percentage of revenue or profit derived from the use of a resource, while a tax is usually a fixed amount imposed on income, property, or sales.

• (c) Royalties are only paid by businesses, whereas taxes are only paid by individuals.

• (d) Royalties and taxes are both voluntary payments made to the government for various purposes.

Explanation:

• Context: The Supreme Court ruled that States have the unlimited right to tax mining lands and quarries, independent of the Parliament’s Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act of 1957.

• Difference between Royalty and a Tax:

Aspect | Royalty | Tax

Origin | Originates from an agreement between parties. | Imposed under a statutory power without reference to any special benefit conferred on the payer.

Nature | Compensation is paid for the rights and privileges enjoyed by the grantee. | Enforced by law and does not require the taxpayer’s consent.

Relationship | Direct relationship with the benefit or privilege conferred upon the grantee. | Imposed for public purposes without any specific benefit to the payer.

Specificity | Specific to the agreement and often linked to the exploitation of resources or usage of a privilege. | Part of the common burden is borne by all citizens, not linked to any specific privilege or benefit.

Quid Pro Quo | Involves a quid pro quo arrangement. | Does not involve a quid pro quo arrangement.

Mandatory Nature | Payment is linked to a specific benefit or privilege, and the arrangement is contractual. | Payment is mandatory and not linked to any specific privilege or benefit.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

Explanation:

• Difference between Royalty and a Tax:

Aspect | Royalty | Tax

Origin | Originates from an agreement between parties. | Imposed under a statutory power without reference to any special benefit conferred on the payer.

Nature | Compensation is paid for the rights and privileges enjoyed by the grantee. | Enforced by law and does not require the taxpayer’s consent.

Relationship | Direct relationship with the benefit or privilege conferred upon the grantee. | Imposed for public purposes without any specific benefit to the payer.

Quid Pro Quo | Involves a quid pro quo arrangement. | Does not involve a quid pro quo arrangement.

Mandatory Nature | Payment is linked to a specific benefit or privilege, and the arrangement is contractual. | Payment is mandatory and not linked to any specific privilege or benefit.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Charaideo moidams are royal burial sites of the Ahom dynasty. Charaideo moidams are mainly located in Tripura. Till now no cultural heritage site in North East India has been included in the UNESCO World Heritage Sites List. Which of the above statements is/are Not correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Assam’s Charaideo Moidams, now a UNESCO World Heritage Site, are royal burial sites of the Ahom dynasty, which ruled Assam from 1228 to 1826 AD. A moidam is a mound of earth over a grave, typically containing one or more chambers with an earthen mound covered in grass and a pavilion on top. Unlike Hindus who cremate their dead, the Ahoms, originating from the Tai people, practiced burial. Charaideo, the first capital established by King Sukaphaa in 1253 AD, remained a symbolic and ritual center of power for the Ahoms. The burial sites contain items for the afterlife and are reminiscent of ancient Egyptian rites, earning the nickname “Pyramids of Assam.” Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Assam’s Charaideo Moidams, now a UNESCO World Heritage Site, are royal burial sites of the Ahom dynasty, which ruled Assam from 1228 to 1826 AD. A moidam is a mound of earth over a grave, typically containing one or more chambers with an earthen mound covered in grass and a pavilion on top. Unlike Hindus who cremate their dead, the Ahoms, originating from the Tai people, practiced burial. Charaideo, the first capital established by King Sukaphaa in 1253 AD, remained a symbolic and ritual center of power for the Ahoms. The burial sites contain items for the afterlife and are reminiscent of ancient Egyptian rites, earning the nickname “Pyramids of Assam.” Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Charaideo moidams are royal burial sites of the Ahom dynasty. Charaideo moidams are mainly located in Tripura. Till now no cultural heritage site in North East India has been included in the UNESCO World Heritage Sites List.

• Charaideo moidams are royal burial sites of the Ahom dynasty.

• Charaideo moidams are mainly located in Tripura.

• Till now no cultural heritage site in North East India has been included in the UNESCO World Heritage Sites List.

Which of the above statements is/are Not correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Context: Assam’s Charaideo Moidams, now a UNESCO World Heritage Site, are royal burial sites of the Ahom dynasty, which ruled Assam from 1228 to 1826 AD.

• A moidam is a mound of earth over a grave, typically containing one or more chambers with an earthen mound covered in grass and a pavilion on top.

• Unlike Hindus who cremate their dead, the Ahoms, originating from the Tai people, practiced burial.

• Charaideo, the first capital established by King Sukaphaa in 1253 AD, remained a symbolic and ritual center of power for the Ahoms.

• The burial sites contain items for the afterlife and are reminiscent of ancient Egyptian rites, earning the nickname “Pyramids of Assam.”

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

Explanation:

• Context: Assam’s Charaideo Moidams, now a UNESCO World Heritage Site, are royal burial sites of the Ahom dynasty, which ruled Assam from 1228 to 1826 AD.

• A moidam is a mound of earth over a grave, typically containing one or more chambers with an earthen mound covered in grass and a pavilion on top.

• Unlike Hindus who cremate their dead, the Ahoms, originating from the Tai people, practiced burial.

• Charaideo, the first capital established by King Sukaphaa in 1253 AD, remained a symbolic and ritual center of power for the Ahoms.

• The burial sites contain items for the afterlife and are reminiscent of ancient Egyptian rites, earning the nickname “Pyramids of Assam.”

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the National Mission for Manuscripts (NMM): The National Mission for Manuscripts was established by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. The mission aims to document and conserve manuscripts in different languages and scripts across India. The mission also provides training in manuscript conservation and paleography. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The National Mission for Manuscripts in India aims to document, conserve, digitize, and disseminate the country’s manuscript heritage. S1 is correct. The National Mission for Manuscripts was established by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India in 2003 with the goal of preserving the vast manuscript wealth of India. S2 is correct. The mission aims to document and conserve manuscripts in various languages and scripts, recognizing the rich cultural heritage they represent. S3 is correct. The mission also focuses on training individuals in manuscript conservation and paleography to build capacity for the preservation of these valuable cultural resources. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The National Mission for Manuscripts in India aims to document, conserve, digitize, and disseminate the country’s manuscript heritage. S1 is correct. The National Mission for Manuscripts was established by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India in 2003 with the goal of preserving the vast manuscript wealth of India. S2 is correct. The mission aims to document and conserve manuscripts in various languages and scripts, recognizing the rich cultural heritage they represent. S3 is correct. The mission also focuses on training individuals in manuscript conservation and paleography to build capacity for the preservation of these valuable cultural resources. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about the National Mission for Manuscripts (NMM):

• The National Mission for Manuscripts was established by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. The mission aims to document and conserve manuscripts in different languages and scripts across India. The mission also provides training in manuscript conservation and paleography.

• The National Mission for Manuscripts was established by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.

• The mission aims to document and conserve manuscripts in different languages and scripts across India.

• The mission also provides training in manuscript conservation and paleography.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Context: The National Mission for Manuscripts in India aims to document, conserve, digitize, and disseminate the country’s manuscript heritage.

• S1 is correct. The National Mission for Manuscripts was established by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India in 2003 with the goal of preserving the vast manuscript wealth of India.

• S2 is correct. The mission aims to document and conserve manuscripts in various languages and scripts, recognizing the rich cultural heritage they represent.

• S3 is correct. The mission also focuses on training individuals in manuscript conservation and paleography to build capacity for the preservation of these valuable cultural resources.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

Explanation:

• Context: The National Mission for Manuscripts in India aims to document, conserve, digitize, and disseminate the country’s manuscript heritage.

• S1 is correct. The National Mission for Manuscripts was established by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India in 2003 with the goal of preserving the vast manuscript wealth of India.

• S2 is correct. The mission aims to document and conserve manuscripts in various languages and scripts, recognizing the rich cultural heritage they represent.

• S3 is correct. The mission also focuses on training individuals in manuscript conservation and paleography to build capacity for the preservation of these valuable cultural resources.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points The ‘White category’ sectors, as classified by environmental regulations in many countries, are characterized by which of the following attributes? (a) High pollution potential and extensive regulatory requirements. (b) Moderate pollution potential with moderate regulatory oversight. (c) Low pollution potential and minimal regulatory requirements. (d) No pollution potential and no regulatory requirements. Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Industries classified under the ‘white category’ by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), considered non-polluting, will no longer need prior permissions (‘consent to establish’ (CTE) and ‘consent to operate’ (CTO)) from state pollution control boards to operate under the Air Act, 1981, and Water Act, 1974, according to draft notifications from the Environment Ministry. White category industries, such as wind and solar power projects and air cooler assembly, must now inform state boards of their operations via self-declarations. Categorizing Industrial Sectors: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) categorizes industrial sectors based on their Pollution Index (PI), which reflects the level of emissions, effluents, hazardous waste, and resource consumption. The Pollution Index ranges from 0 to 100, with higher values indicating greater pollution. The criteria for categorization are as follows: Red category: PI score of 60 and above Orange category: PI score of 41 to 59 Green category: PI score of 21 to 40 White category: PI score up to 20 This categorization is based on references from the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess (Amendment) Act, 2003, Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 standards, and the Doon Valley Notification, 1989. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Industries classified under the ‘white category’ by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), considered non-polluting, will no longer need prior permissions (‘consent to establish’ (CTE) and ‘consent to operate’ (CTO)) from state pollution control boards to operate under the Air Act, 1981, and Water Act, 1974, according to draft notifications from the Environment Ministry. White category industries, such as wind and solar power projects and air cooler assembly, must now inform state boards of their operations via self-declarations. Categorizing Industrial Sectors: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) categorizes industrial sectors based on their Pollution Index (PI), which reflects the level of emissions, effluents, hazardous waste, and resource consumption. The Pollution Index ranges from 0 to 100, with higher values indicating greater pollution. The criteria for categorization are as follows: Red category: PI score of 60 and above Orange category: PI score of 41 to 59 Green category: PI score of 21 to 40 White category: PI score up to 20 This categorization is based on references from the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess (Amendment) Act, 2003, Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 standards, and the Doon Valley Notification, 1989. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

#### 4. Question

The ‘White category’ sectors, as classified by environmental regulations in many countries, are characterized by which of the following attributes?

• (a) High pollution potential and extensive regulatory requirements.

• (b) Moderate pollution potential with moderate regulatory oversight.

• (c) Low pollution potential and minimal regulatory requirements.

• (d) No pollution potential and no regulatory requirements.

Explanation:

• Context: Industries classified under the ‘white category’ by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), considered non-polluting, will no longer need prior permissions (‘consent to establish’ (CTE) and ‘consent to operate’ (CTO)) from state pollution control boards to operate under the Air Act, 1981, and Water Act, 1974, according to draft notifications from the Environment Ministry. White category industries, such as wind and solar power projects and air cooler assembly, must now inform state boards of their operations via self-declarations.

• White category industries, such as wind and solar power projects and air cooler assembly, must now inform state boards of their operations via self-declarations.

• Categorizing Industrial Sectors: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) categorizes industrial sectors based on their Pollution Index (PI), which reflects the level of emissions, effluents, hazardous waste, and resource consumption. The Pollution Index ranges from 0 to 100, with higher values indicating greater pollution. The criteria for categorization are as follows: Red category: PI score of 60 and above Orange category: PI score of 41 to 59 Green category: PI score of 21 to 40 White category: PI score up to 20 This categorization is based on references from the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess (Amendment) Act, 2003, Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 standards, and the Doon Valley Notification, 1989.

• The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) categorizes industrial sectors based on their Pollution Index (PI), which reflects the level of emissions, effluents, hazardous waste, and resource consumption.

• The Pollution Index ranges from 0 to 100, with higher values indicating greater pollution. The criteria for categorization are as follows: Red category: PI score of 60 and above Orange category: PI score of 41 to 59 Green category: PI score of 21 to 40 White category: PI score up to 20

• Red category: PI score of 60 and above

• Orange category: PI score of 41 to 59

• Green category: PI score of 21 to 40

• White category: PI score up to 20

• This categorization is based on references from the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess (Amendment) Act, 2003, Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 standards, and the Doon Valley Notification, 1989.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

Explanation:

• White category industries, such as wind and solar power projects and air cooler assembly, must now inform state boards of their operations via self-declarations.

• Red category: PI score of 60 and above

• Orange category: PI score of 41 to 59

• Green category: PI score of 21 to 40

• White category: PI score up to 20

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C): The I4C is established under the Ministry of Home Affairs. One of the sectors of I4C is dedicated to providing cybercrime investigation training. The I4C also focuses on creating awareness about cybercrimes among citizens. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) has been upgraded to an “attached office” of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). About The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C): The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) was initially established as a scheme under the Ministry of Home Affairs’ Cyber and Information Security (C&IS) division in 2018. Its objective is to act as a central point to curb cybercrime, serve as an early warning system for cybercrime prevention and detection, and facilitate easy complaint filing. I4C operates through various verticals, including the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal, the National Cybercrime Threat Analytics Unit, and the National Cybercrime Research & Innovation Centre. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) has been upgraded to an “attached office” of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). About The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C): The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) was initially established as a scheme under the Ministry of Home Affairs’ Cyber and Information Security (C&IS) division in 2018. Its objective is to act as a central point to curb cybercrime, serve as an early warning system for cybercrime prevention and detection, and facilitate easy complaint filing. I4C operates through various verticals, including the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal, the National Cybercrime Threat Analytics Unit, and the National Cybercrime Research & Innovation Centre. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C):

• The I4C is established under the Ministry of Home Affairs. One of the sectors of I4C is dedicated to providing cybercrime investigation training. The I4C also focuses on creating awareness about cybercrimes among citizens.

• The I4C is established under the Ministry of Home Affairs.

• One of the sectors of I4C is dedicated to providing cybercrime investigation training.

• The I4C also focuses on creating awareness about cybercrimes among citizens.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Context: The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) has been upgraded to an “attached office” of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).

• About The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C): The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) was initially established as a scheme under the Ministry of Home Affairs’ Cyber and Information Security (C&IS) division in 2018. Its objective is to act as a central point to curb cybercrime, serve as an early warning system for cybercrime prevention and detection, and facilitate easy complaint filing. I4C operates through various verticals, including the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal, the National Cybercrime Threat Analytics Unit, and the National Cybercrime Research & Innovation Centre.

• The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) was initially established as a scheme under the Ministry of Home Affairs’ Cyber and Information Security (C&IS) division in 2018.

• Its objective is to act as a central point to curb cybercrime, serve as an early warning system for cybercrime prevention and detection, and facilitate easy complaint filing.

• I4C operates through various verticals, including the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal, the National Cybercrime Threat Analytics Unit, and the National Cybercrime Research & Innovation Centre.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

Explanation:

• Context: The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) has been upgraded to an “attached office” of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).

• The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) was initially established as a scheme under the Ministry of Home Affairs’ Cyber and Information Security (C&IS) division in 2018.

• Its objective is to act as a central point to curb cybercrime, serve as an early warning system for cybercrime prevention and detection, and facilitate easy complaint filing.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the ‘Lithium’ sectors: Lithium is primarily used in the production of glass and ceramics. The electric vehicle (EV) industry is one of the largest consumers of lithium. Lithium is used in the pharmaceutical industry for mood-stabilizing drugs. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: S1 is incorrect: While lithium is used in the production of glass and ceramics, it is not the primary use. The primary use of lithium is in batteries. S2 is Correct. The electric vehicle (EV) industry is indeed one of the largest consumers of lithium, primarily for lithium-ion batteries. S3 is Correct. Lithium is used in the pharmaceutical industry for the production of mood-stabilizing drugs, particularly for treating bipolar disorder. Rfere: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: S1 is incorrect: While lithium is used in the production of glass and ceramics, it is not the primary use. The primary use of lithium is in batteries. S2 is Correct. The electric vehicle (EV) industry is indeed one of the largest consumers of lithium, primarily for lithium-ion batteries. S3 is Correct. Lithium is used in the pharmaceutical industry for the production of mood-stabilizing drugs, particularly for treating bipolar disorder. Rfere: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about the ‘Lithium’ sectors:

• Lithium is primarily used in the production of glass and ceramics. The electric vehicle (EV) industry is one of the largest consumers of lithium. Lithium is used in the pharmaceutical industry for mood-stabilizing drugs.

• Lithium is primarily used in the production of glass and ceramics.

• The electric vehicle (EV) industry is one of the largest consumers of lithium.

• Lithium is used in the pharmaceutical industry for mood-stabilizing drugs.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• S1 is incorrect: While lithium is used in the production of glass and ceramics, it is not the primary use. The primary use of lithium is in batteries.

• S2 is Correct. The electric vehicle (EV) industry is indeed one of the largest consumers of lithium, primarily for lithium-ion batteries.

• S3 is Correct. Lithium is used in the pharmaceutical industry for the production of mood-stabilizing drugs, particularly for treating bipolar disorder.

Rfere: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

Explanation:

• S1 is incorrect: While lithium is used in the production of glass and ceramics, it is not the primary use. The primary use of lithium is in batteries.

• S2 is Correct. The electric vehicle (EV) industry is indeed one of the largest consumers of lithium, primarily for lithium-ion batteries.

• S3 is Correct. Lithium is used in the pharmaceutical industry for the production of mood-stabilizing drugs, particularly for treating bipolar disorder.

Rfere: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Tinzaparin is primarily used for: (a) Treating high blood pressure (b) Preventing blood clots (c) Managing diabetes (d) Reducing cholesterol levels Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: Researchers have discovered that tinzaparin, a drug used to prevent blood clots, can significantly reduce the damage caused by spitting cobra venom to human cells. The venom of the red spitting cobra, native to Tanzania, can cause severe pain and permanent damage or death to its victims. Current antivenom treatments, derived from animal antibodies, are costly, difficult to produce, and can have severe side effects. They found that many of these genes are involved in the synthesis of heparan sulphate, a compound regulating blood vessels and clot formation. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: Researchers have discovered that tinzaparin, a drug used to prevent blood clots, can significantly reduce the damage caused by spitting cobra venom to human cells. The venom of the red spitting cobra, native to Tanzania, can cause severe pain and permanent damage or death to its victims. Current antivenom treatments, derived from animal antibodies, are costly, difficult to produce, and can have severe side effects. They found that many of these genes are involved in the synthesis of heparan sulphate, a compound regulating blood vessels and clot formation. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

#### 7. Question

Tinzaparin is primarily used for:

• (a) Treating high blood pressure

• (b) Preventing blood clots

• (c) Managing diabetes

• (d) Reducing cholesterol levels

Explanation:

• Context: Researchers have discovered that tinzaparin, a drug used to prevent blood clots, can significantly reduce the damage caused by spitting cobra venom to human cells. The venom of the red spitting cobra, native to Tanzania, can cause severe pain and permanent damage or death to its victims. Current antivenom treatments, derived from animal antibodies, are costly, difficult to produce, and can have severe side effects. They found that many of these genes are involved in the synthesis of heparan sulphate, a compound regulating blood vessels and clot formation.

• The venom of the red spitting cobra, native to Tanzania, can cause severe pain and permanent damage or death to its victims.

• Current antivenom treatments, derived from animal antibodies, are costly, difficult to produce, and can have severe side effects.

• They found that many of these genes are involved in the synthesis of heparan sulphate, a compound regulating blood vessels and clot formation.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

Explanation:

• The venom of the red spitting cobra, native to Tanzania, can cause severe pain and permanent damage or death to its victims.

• Current antivenom treatments, derived from animal antibodies, are costly, difficult to produce, and can have severe side effects.

• They found that many of these genes are involved in the synthesis of heparan sulphate, a compound regulating blood vessels and clot formation.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following is/are tributary/tributaries of Brahmaputra? Dibang Kameng Lohit Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: The Brahmaputra River has several tributaries, and Dibang, Kameng, and Lohit are among them. The Dibang and Lohit Rivers join the Brahmaputra in the state of Arunachal Pradesh, while the Kameng River is also one of its tributaries in the same region. These rivers contribute significantly to the flow and volume of the Brahmaputra. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: The Brahmaputra River has several tributaries, and Dibang, Kameng, and Lohit are among them. The Dibang and Lohit Rivers join the Brahmaputra in the state of Arunachal Pradesh, while the Kameng River is also one of its tributaries in the same region. These rivers contribute significantly to the flow and volume of the Brahmaputra. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

#### 8. Question

Which of the following is/are tributary/tributaries of Brahmaputra?

• Dibang Kameng Lohit

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• The Brahmaputra River has several tributaries, and Dibang, Kameng, and Lohit are among them. The Dibang and Lohit Rivers join the Brahmaputra in the state of Arunachal Pradesh, while the Kameng River is also one of its tributaries in the same region. These rivers contribute significantly to the flow and volume of the Brahmaputra.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points In the context of the developments in Bioinformatics, the term ‘transcriptome’, sometimes seen in the news, refers to (a) a range of enzymes used in genome editing (b) the full range of mRNA molecules expressed by an organism (c) the description of the mechanism of gene expression (d) a mechanism of genetic mutations taking place in cells Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: A transcriptome is the full range of messenger RNA, or mRNA, molecules expressed by an organism. The term “transcriptome” can also be used to describe the array of mRNA transcripts produced in a particular cell or tissue type. In contrast with the genome, which is characterized by its stability, the transcriptome actively changes. In fact, an organism’s transcriptome varies depending on many factors, including stage of development and environmental conditions. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: A transcriptome is the full range of messenger RNA, or mRNA, molecules expressed by an organism. The term “transcriptome” can also be used to describe the array of mRNA transcripts produced in a particular cell or tissue type. In contrast with the genome, which is characterized by its stability, the transcriptome actively changes. In fact, an organism’s transcriptome varies depending on many factors, including stage of development and environmental conditions. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

#### 9. Question

In the context of the developments in Bioinformatics, the term ‘transcriptome’, sometimes seen in the news, refers to

• (a) a range of enzymes used in genome editing

• (b) the full range of mRNA molecules expressed by an organism

• (c) the description of the mechanism of gene expression

• (d) a mechanism of genetic mutations taking place in cells

Explanation:

• A transcriptome is the full range of messenger RNA, or mRNA, molecules expressed by an organism.

• The term “transcriptome” can also be used to describe the array of mRNA transcripts produced in a particular cell or tissue type.

• In contrast with the genome, which is characterized by its stability, the transcriptome actively changes.

• In fact, an organism’s transcriptome varies depending on many factors, including stage of development and environmental conditions.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

Explanation:

• A transcriptome is the full range of messenger RNA, or mRNA, molecules expressed by an organism.

• The term “transcriptome” can also be used to describe the array of mRNA transcripts produced in a particular cell or tissue type.

• In contrast with the genome, which is characterized by its stability, the transcriptome actively changes.

• In fact, an organism’s transcriptome varies depending on many factors, including stage of development and environmental conditions.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points ‘Mission Indradhanush’ launched by the Government of India pertains to (a) immunization of children and pregnant women (b) construction of smart cities across the country (c) India’s own search for the Earth-like planets in outer space (d) New Educational Policy Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Mission Indradhanush is a health initiative launched by the Government of India aimed at increasing the coverage of immunization for children and pregnant women. The mission seeks to ensure that all children under the age of two and all pregnant women are fully immunized against vaccine-preventable diseases. It targets unvaccinated and partially vaccinated children and pregnant women in selected districts and urban areas. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Mission Indradhanush is a health initiative launched by the Government of India aimed at increasing the coverage of immunization for children and pregnant women. The mission seeks to ensure that all children under the age of two and all pregnant women are fully immunized against vaccine-preventable diseases. It targets unvaccinated and partially vaccinated children and pregnant women in selected districts and urban areas. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

#### 10. Question

‘Mission Indradhanush’ launched by the Government of India pertains to

• (a) immunization of children and pregnant women

• (b) construction of smart cities across the country

• (c) India’s own search for the Earth-like planets in outer space

• (d) New Educational Policy

Explanation:

• Mission Indradhanush is a health initiative launched by the Government of India aimed at increasing the coverage of immunization for children and pregnant women. The mission seeks to ensure that all children under the age of two and all pregnant women are fully immunized against vaccine-preventable diseases. It targets unvaccinated and partially vaccinated children and pregnant women in selected districts and urban areas.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/27/upsc-current-affairs-27-july-2024/

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