UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 29 January 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA): It is a constitutional body established to provide free legal services to the weaker sections of society. The Chief Justice of India serves as its Patron-in-Chief. The Legal Aid Defence Counsel (LADC) Scheme is one of its key initiatives to provide legal support to undertrial prisoners. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is a statutory body, not a constitutional one. It was established under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Its primary mandate is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society, ensuring that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen due to economic or other disabilities. Statement 2 is correct. The organizational structure of NALSA is headed by the Chief Justice of India, who serves as its Patron-in-Chief. This high-level leadership underscores the importance of legal aid in the Indian judicial system. Statement 3 is also correct. The Legal Aid Defence Counsel (LADC) Scheme, launched in 2022, is a significant initiative by NALSA. It aims to provide dedicated legal defence and representation to accused persons, particularly undertrials, across hundreds of districts, thereby strengthening the legal aid delivery mechanism at the grassroots level. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is a statutory body, not a constitutional one. It was established under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Its primary mandate is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society, ensuring that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen due to economic or other disabilities. Statement 2 is correct. The organizational structure of NALSA is headed by the Chief Justice of India, who serves as its Patron-in-Chief. This high-level leadership underscores the importance of legal aid in the Indian judicial system. Statement 3 is also correct. The Legal Aid Defence Counsel (LADC) Scheme, launched in 2022, is a significant initiative by NALSA. It aims to provide dedicated legal defence and representation to accused persons, particularly undertrials, across hundreds of districts, thereby strengthening the legal aid delivery mechanism at the grassroots level.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA):

• It is a constitutional body established to provide free legal services to the weaker sections of society.

• The Chief Justice of India serves as its Patron-in-Chief.

• The Legal Aid Defence Counsel (LADC) Scheme is one of its key initiatives to provide legal support to undertrial prisoners.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is a statutory body, not a constitutional one. It was established under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Its primary mandate is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society, ensuring that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen due to economic or other disabilities.

• Statement 2 is correct. The organizational structure of NALSA is headed by the Chief Justice of India, who serves as its Patron-in-Chief. This high-level leadership underscores the importance of legal aid in the Indian judicial system.

• Statement 3 is also correct. The Legal Aid Defence Counsel (LADC) Scheme, launched in 2022, is a significant initiative by NALSA. It aims to provide dedicated legal defence and representation to accused persons, particularly undertrials, across hundreds of districts, thereby strengthening the legal aid delivery mechanism at the grassroots level.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following Statements. Statement-I: Mangrove forests play a critical role in mitigating the impacts of climate change. Statement-II: Mangrove ecosystems are highly efficient at sequestering atmospheric carbon, storing it in their biomass and soil for long periods. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Mangrove forests are widely recognized for their significant role in climate change mitigation and adaptation. They act as natural buffers against climate-related hazards such as cyclones and sea-level rise. Statement-II is also correct and provides a direct explanation for Statement-I. The climate mitigation capacity of mangroves is primarily due to their ability to sequester large amounts of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. This carbon, often referred to as “blue carbon,” is stored in the plants’ biomass (trunks, roots) and, most importantly, in the underlying soil. The waterlogged, anaerobic soil conditions in mangrove forests slow down decomposition, allowing carbon to remain locked away for centuries or even millennia. This makes them one of the most carbon-dense ecosystems on Earth. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Mangrove forests are widely recognized for their significant role in climate change mitigation and adaptation. They act as natural buffers against climate-related hazards such as cyclones and sea-level rise. Statement-II is also correct and provides a direct explanation for Statement-I. The climate mitigation capacity of mangroves is primarily due to their ability to sequester large amounts of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. This carbon, often referred to as “blue carbon,” is stored in the plants’ biomass (trunks, roots) and, most importantly, in the underlying soil. The waterlogged, anaerobic soil conditions in mangrove forests slow down decomposition, allowing carbon to remain locked away for centuries or even millennia. This makes them one of the most carbon-dense ecosystems on Earth.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following Statements.

Statement-I: Mangrove forests play a critical role in mitigating the impacts of climate change. Statement-II: Mangrove ecosystems are highly efficient at sequestering atmospheric carbon, storing it in their biomass and soil for long periods.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. Mangrove forests are widely recognized for their significant role in climate change mitigation and adaptation. They act as natural buffers against climate-related hazards such as cyclones and sea-level rise.

• Statement-II is also correct and provides a direct explanation for Statement-I.

The climate mitigation capacity of mangroves is primarily due to their ability to sequester large amounts of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. This carbon, often referred to as “blue carbon,” is stored in the plants’ biomass (trunks, roots) and, most importantly, in the underlying soil. The waterlogged, anaerobic soil conditions in mangrove forests slow down decomposition, allowing carbon to remain locked away for centuries or even millennia. This makes them one of the most carbon-dense ecosystems on Earth.

Solution: A

• Statement-II is also correct and provides a direct explanation for Statement-I.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the legal framework for legal aid in India: The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, mandates the provision of free legal services only to members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is responsible for organizing Lok Adalats. Para-Legal Volunteers (PLVs) are qualified lawyers appointed by NALSA to argue cases in court. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, outlines the criteria for persons eligible for free legal services. This list is extensive and includes not only members of SC/ST but also women, children, persons with disabilities, victims of human trafficking, industrial workmen, and persons with an annual income below a certain prescribed limit. Statement 2 is correct. One of the key functions of NALSA, along with the State and District Legal Services Authorities, is to organize Lok Adalats. These are alternative dispute resolution forums where disputes or cases pending in court or at the pre-litigation stage are settled amicably. Statement 3 is incorrect. Para-Legal Volunteers (PLVs) are not qualified lawyers who argue cases. They are trained community legal workers who act as a bridge between the community and legal services institutions. Their role is primarily in outreach, legal awareness, and providing basic legal advice and assistance, not representing clients in court. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, outlines the criteria for persons eligible for free legal services. This list is extensive and includes not only members of SC/ST but also women, children, persons with disabilities, victims of human trafficking, industrial workmen, and persons with an annual income below a certain prescribed limit. Statement 2 is correct. One of the key functions of NALSA, along with the State and District Legal Services Authorities, is to organize Lok Adalats. These are alternative dispute resolution forums where disputes or cases pending in court or at the pre-litigation stage are settled amicably. Statement 3 is incorrect. Para-Legal Volunteers (PLVs) are not qualified lawyers who argue cases. They are trained community legal workers who act as a bridge between the community and legal services institutions. Their role is primarily in outreach, legal awareness, and providing basic legal advice and assistance, not representing clients in court.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the legal framework for legal aid in India:

• The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, mandates the provision of free legal services only to members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

• The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is responsible for organizing Lok Adalats.

• Para-Legal Volunteers (PLVs) are qualified lawyers appointed by NALSA to argue cases in court.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, outlines the criteria for persons eligible for free legal services. This list is extensive and includes not only members of SC/ST but also women, children, persons with disabilities, victims of human trafficking, industrial workmen, and persons with an annual income below a certain prescribed limit.

• Statement 2 is correct. One of the key functions of NALSA, along with the State and District Legal Services Authorities, is to organize Lok Adalats. These are alternative dispute resolution forums where disputes or cases pending in court or at the pre-litigation stage are settled amicably.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Para-Legal Volunteers (PLVs) are not qualified lawyers who argue cases. They are trained community legal workers who act as a bridge between the community and legal services institutions. Their role is primarily in outreach, legal awareness, and providing basic legal advice and assistance, not representing clients in court.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to the writings and ideology of Bal Gangadhar Tilak, consider the following statements: In his book ‘Gita Rahasya’, he interpreted the Bhagavad Gita as a call for selfless action and service to humanity. He launched the newspaper ‘The Mahratta’ in the Marathi language to reach the masses. His revival of the Ganesh Utsav was aimed mainly at religious reform within Hinduism. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. While Tilak’s ‘Gita Rahasya’ is a commentary on the Bhagavad Gita, his interpretation emphasized Karma Yoga (the path of action) over renunciation. However, he framed this as a justification for activism and resistance in the material world, particularly in the context of the freedom struggle, rather than just selfless service in a general sense. Statement 2 is incorrect. Bal Gangadhar Tilak founded two influential newspapers: ‘Kesari’, which was published in Marathi, and ‘The Mahratta’, which was published in English. The English newspaper was intended to convey nationalist views to the English-speaking Indian elite and the British administration, while ‘Kesari’ targeted the Marathi-speaking common populace. Statement 3 is incorrect. The revival of Ganesh Utsav (1893) and Shivaji Jayanti by Tilak was a strategic political move, not mainly religious one. His primary aim was to use these traditional festivals as a platform for mass mobilization, fostering a sense of national pride and unity among people to build a broad-based movement against colonial rule. They were tools of cultural nationalism. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. While Tilak’s ‘Gita Rahasya’ is a commentary on the Bhagavad Gita, his interpretation emphasized Karma Yoga (the path of action) over renunciation. However, he framed this as a justification for activism and resistance in the material world, particularly in the context of the freedom struggle, rather than just selfless service in a general sense. Statement 2 is incorrect. Bal Gangadhar Tilak founded two influential newspapers: ‘Kesari’, which was published in Marathi, and ‘The Mahratta’, which was published in English. The English newspaper was intended to convey nationalist views to the English-speaking Indian elite and the British administration, while ‘Kesari’ targeted the Marathi-speaking common populace. Statement 3 is incorrect. The revival of Ganesh Utsav (1893) and Shivaji Jayanti by Tilak was a strategic political move, not mainly religious one. His primary aim was to use these traditional festivals as a platform for mass mobilization, fostering a sense of national pride and unity among people to build a broad-based movement against colonial rule. They were tools of cultural nationalism.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the writings and ideology of Bal Gangadhar Tilak, consider the following statements:

• In his book ‘Gita Rahasya’, he interpreted the Bhagavad Gita as a call for selfless action and service to humanity.

• He launched the newspaper ‘The Mahratta’ in the Marathi language to reach the masses.

• His revival of the Ganesh Utsav was aimed mainly at religious reform within Hinduism.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While Tilak’s ‘Gita Rahasya’ is a commentary on the Bhagavad Gita, his interpretation emphasized Karma Yoga (the path of action) over renunciation. However, he framed this as a justification for activism and resistance in the material world, particularly in the context of the freedom struggle, rather than just selfless service in a general sense.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Bal Gangadhar Tilak founded two influential newspapers: ‘Kesari’, which was published in Marathi, and ‘The Mahratta’, which was published in English. The English newspaper was intended to convey nationalist views to the English-speaking Indian elite and the British administration, while ‘Kesari’ targeted the Marathi-speaking common populace.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The revival of Ganesh Utsav (1893) and Shivaji Jayanti by Tilak was a strategic political move, not mainly religious one. His primary aim was to use these traditional festivals as a platform for mass mobilization, fostering a sense of national pride and unity among people to build a broad-based movement against colonial rule. They were tools of cultural nationalism.

Solution: C

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Flapshell Turtle (Lissemys punctata): The Indian flapshell turtle is primarily found in saltwater environments such as coastal estuaries and tidal zones. It is named “flapshell” because of the unique flaps of skin on its plastron that cover its limbs when retracted. It is classified as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian flapshell turtle is a freshwater species typically found in rivers, ponds, lakes, and canals, not in saltwater environments. Statement 2 is correct. The turtle is called “flapshell” because of the flaps of skin on its plastron, which can cover its limbs when retracted, providing protection. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Indian flapshell turtle is classified as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List, not Critically Endangered. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian flapshell turtle is a freshwater species typically found in rivers, ponds, lakes, and canals, not in saltwater environments. Statement 2 is correct. The turtle is called “flapshell” because of the flaps of skin on its plastron, which can cover its limbs when retracted, providing protection. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Indian flapshell turtle is classified as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List, not Critically Endangered.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Flapshell Turtle (Lissemys punctata):

• The Indian flapshell turtle is primarily found in saltwater environments such as coastal estuaries and tidal zones.

• It is named “flapshell” because of the unique flaps of skin on its plastron that cover its limbs when retracted.

• It is classified as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian flapshell turtle is a freshwater species typically found in rivers, ponds, lakes, and canals, not in saltwater environments.

Statement 2 is correct. The turtle is called “flapshell” because of the flaps of skin on its plastron, which can cover its limbs when retracted, providing protection.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Indian flapshell turtle is classified as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List, not Critically Endangered.

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian flapshell turtle is a freshwater species typically found in rivers, ponds, lakes, and canals, not in saltwater environments.

Statement 2 is correct. The turtle is called “flapshell” because of the flaps of skin on its plastron, which can cover its limbs when retracted, providing protection.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Indian flapshell turtle is classified as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List, not Critically Endangered.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the legal framework and powers of the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA): The NPPA has the authority to revise prices only once every year. NPPA’s mandate includes enforcing price controls for essential drugs under the Essential Commodities Act. It can initiate legal action against companies failing to comply with pricing regulations under DPCO. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. The NPPA has the authority to revise prices as necessary, including in extraordinary situations, and not only once a year. Statement 2 is correct. Under the Essential Commodities Act, NPPA enforces price controls on essential drugs to ensure availability and affordability. Statement 3 is correct. NPPA has the power to initiate legal action against companies that do not comply with pricing regulations, as mandated under the DPCO, 2013. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. The NPPA has the authority to revise prices as necessary, including in extraordinary situations, and not only once a year. Statement 2 is correct. Under the Essential Commodities Act, NPPA enforces price controls on essential drugs to ensure availability and affordability. Statement 3 is correct. NPPA has the power to initiate legal action against companies that do not comply with pricing regulations, as mandated under the DPCO, 2013.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the legal framework and powers of the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA):

• The NPPA has the authority to revise prices only once every year.

• NPPA’s mandate includes enforcing price controls for essential drugs under the Essential Commodities Act.

• It can initiate legal action against companies failing to comply with pricing regulations under DPCO.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The NPPA has the authority to revise prices as necessary, including in extraordinary situations, and not only once a year.

• Statement 2 is correct. Under the Essential Commodities Act, NPPA enforces price controls on essential drugs to ensure availability and affordability.

Statement 3 is correct. NPPA has the power to initiate legal action against companies that do not comply with pricing regulations, as mandated under the DPCO, 2013.

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The NPPA has the authority to revise prices as necessary, including in extraordinary situations, and not only once a year.

• Statement 2 is correct. Under the Essential Commodities Act, NPPA enforces price controls on essential drugs to ensure availability and affordability.

Statement 3 is correct. NPPA has the power to initiate legal action against companies that do not comply with pricing regulations, as mandated under the DPCO, 2013.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the properties and industrial importance of coking coal: Coking coal has a low carbon content and is unsuitable for blast furnace operations. It produces by-products like coke oven gas, tar, and ammonia sulphate, which are useful for various industries. India is self-sufficient in coking coal production due to vast domestic reserves. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: A Only Statement 2 is correct: Coking coal does indeed produce valuable by-products such as coke oven gas, tar, benzole, and ammonia sulphate, which are widely used across chemical and power industries. Coking coal has a high carbon content, essential for blast furnace operations in steel production, making it suitable for these applications. Additionally, India is not self-sufficient in coking coal production due to limited domestic reserves, and as a result, it remains a net importer to meet its industrial demands. This reliance highlights India’s dependency on coking coal imports despite its status as a major steel producer. Incorrect Solution: A Only Statement 2 is correct: Coking coal does indeed produce valuable by-products such as coke oven gas, tar, benzole, and ammonia sulphate, which are widely used across chemical and power industries. Coking coal has a high carbon content, essential for blast furnace operations in steel production, making it suitable for these applications. Additionally, India is not self-sufficient in coking coal production due to limited domestic reserves, and as a result, it remains a net importer to meet its industrial demands. This reliance highlights India’s dependency on coking coal imports despite its status as a major steel producer.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the properties and industrial importance of coking coal:

• Coking coal has a low carbon content and is unsuitable for blast furnace operations.

• It produces by-products like coke oven gas, tar, and ammonia sulphate, which are useful for various industries.

• India is self-sufficient in coking coal production due to vast domestic reserves.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: A

Only Statement 2 is correct: Coking coal does indeed produce valuable by-products such as coke oven gas, tar, benzole, and ammonia sulphate, which are widely used across chemical and power industries.

Coking coal has a high carbon content, essential for blast furnace operations in steel production, making it suitable for these applications.

Additionally, India is not self-sufficient in coking coal production due to limited domestic reserves, and as a result, it remains a net importer to meet its industrial demands. This reliance highlights India’s dependency on coking coal imports despite its status as a major steel producer.

Solution: A

Coking coal has a high carbon content, essential for blast furnace operations in steel production, making it suitable for these applications.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Great Indian Bustard: The Great Indian Bustard is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List. It primarily inhabits forested regions across central India. The bird’s diet includes grass seeds, insects, and small rodents. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Great Indian Bustard is classified as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List, indicating an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild. Statement 2 is incorrect. The species prefers dry grasslands and scrublands and is mainly found in the Thar Desert of Rajasthan, not in forested regions. Statement 3 is correct. The Great Indian Bustard is an opportunistic feeder, consuming grass seeds, insects, small rodents, and reptiles. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Great Indian Bustard is classified as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List, indicating an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild. Statement 2 is incorrect. The species prefers dry grasslands and scrublands and is mainly found in the Thar Desert of Rajasthan, not in forested regions. Statement 3 is correct. The Great Indian Bustard is an opportunistic feeder, consuming grass seeds, insects, small rodents, and reptiles.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about the Great Indian Bustard:

• The Great Indian Bustard is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.

• It primarily inhabits forested regions across central India.

• The bird’s diet includes grass seeds, insects, and small rodents.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Great Indian Bustard is classified as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List, indicating an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The species prefers dry grasslands and scrublands and is mainly found in the Thar Desert of Rajasthan, not in forested regions.

Statement 3 is correct. The Great Indian Bustard is an opportunistic feeder, consuming grass seeds, insects, small rodents, and reptiles.

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Great Indian Bustard is classified as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List, indicating an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The species prefers dry grasslands and scrublands and is mainly found in the Thar Desert of Rajasthan, not in forested regions.

Statement 3 is correct. The Great Indian Bustard is an opportunistic feeder, consuming grass seeds, insects, small rodents, and reptiles.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Asian Giant Tortoise (Manouria emys): It is a keystone species due to its role in seed dispersal. It is primarily a carnivorous species, feeding on small insects and amphibians. The species is known to exhibit maternal care by guarding its nest. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Asian Giant Tortoise is considered a keystone species because its activities, such as feeding on fruits and dispersing their seeds, significantly influence the structure and health of its forest ecosystem. Its disappearance can have cascading negative effects on forest regeneration. Statement 2 is incorrect. The species is herbivorous, with a diet consisting of leaves, fruits, mushrooms, and other plant matter. It is not a carnivore. Statement 3 is correct. One of the unique biological traits of the Asian Giant Tortoise is that the female guards her nest mound after laying eggs, a form of maternal care that is rare among chelonians (turtles and tortoises). Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Asian Giant Tortoise is considered a keystone species because its activities, such as feeding on fruits and dispersing their seeds, significantly influence the structure and health of its forest ecosystem. Its disappearance can have cascading negative effects on forest regeneration. Statement 2 is incorrect. The species is herbivorous, with a diet consisting of leaves, fruits, mushrooms, and other plant matter. It is not a carnivore. Statement 3 is correct. One of the unique biological traits of the Asian Giant Tortoise is that the female guards her nest mound after laying eggs, a form of maternal care that is rare among chelonians (turtles and tortoises).

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about the Asian Giant Tortoise (Manouria emys):

• It is a keystone species due to its role in seed dispersal.

• It is primarily a carnivorous species, feeding on small insects and amphibians.

• The species is known to exhibit maternal care by guarding its nest.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Asian Giant Tortoise is considered a keystone species because its activities, such as feeding on fruits and dispersing their seeds, significantly influence the structure and health of its forest ecosystem. Its disappearance can have cascading negative effects on forest regeneration.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The species is herbivorous, with a diet consisting of leaves, fruits, mushrooms, and other plant matter. It is not a carnivore.

• Statement 3 is correct. One of the unique biological traits of the Asian Giant Tortoise is that the female guards her nest mound after laying eggs, a form of maternal care that is rare among chelonians (turtles and tortoises).

Solution: B

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The species is herbivorous, with a diet consisting of leaves, fruits, mushrooms, and other plant matter. It is not a carnivore.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: A vacancy in the office of the Vice President of India caused by resignation must be filled by an election within six months from the date of the occurrence of the vacancy. Statement-II: The Constitution of India, under Article 68, explicitly mandates a timeline for conducting the election to fill a vacancy in the office of the Vice President. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is also incorrect Correct Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect because the six-month rule for filling a vacancy applies to the office of the President of India, not the Vice President. The Constitution does not specify a fixed timeline for holding the election for the Vice President’s office when a vacancy occurs due to resignation, death, or removal. Statement-II is also incorrect. While Article 68 of the Constitution deals with the time of holding an election to fill a vacancy in the office of the Vice President, it only states that an election to fill a vacancy must be held “as soon as possible after the occurrence of the vacancy.” It does not prescribe a specific mandatory timeline like the six-month period for the President. The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting the election in a timely manner, but there is no constitutional compulsion for it to be within six months. Incorrect Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect because the six-month rule for filling a vacancy applies to the office of the President of India, not the Vice President. The Constitution does not specify a fixed timeline for holding the election for the Vice President’s office when a vacancy occurs due to resignation, death, or removal. Statement-II is also incorrect. While Article 68 of the Constitution deals with the time of holding an election to fill a vacancy in the office of the Vice President, it only states that an election to fill a vacancy must be held “as soon as possible after the occurrence of the vacancy.” It does not prescribe a specific mandatory timeline like the six-month period for the President. The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting the election in a timely manner, but there is no constitutional compulsion for it to be within six months.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: A vacancy in the office of the Vice President of India caused by resignation must be filled by an election within six months from the date of the occurrence of the vacancy.

Statement-II: The Constitution of India, under Article 68, explicitly mandates a timeline for conducting the election to fill a vacancy in the office of the Vice President.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is also incorrect

Solution: D

• Statement-I is incorrect because the six-month rule for filling a vacancy applies to the office of the President of India, not the Vice President. The Constitution does not specify a fixed timeline for holding the election for the Vice President’s office when a vacancy occurs due to resignation, death, or removal.

• Statement-II is also incorrect. While Article 68 of the Constitution deals with the time of holding an election to fill a vacancy in the office of the Vice President, it only states that an election to fill a vacancy must be held “as soon as possible after the occurrence of the vacancy.” It does not prescribe a specific mandatory timeline like the six-month period for the President. The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting the election in a timely manner, but there is no constitutional compulsion for it to be within six months.

Solution: D

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