UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 28 September 2024

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Match the following schemes under PM-AASHA with their respective objectives: Scheme Objective A. Price Support Scheme (PSS) 1. Buffer stock of pulses and onions B. Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS) 2. Managing market surplus of agricultural products C. Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) 3. Compensating farmers when market prices fall below MSP D. Price Stabilisation Fund (PSF) 4. Ensuring fair prices for specific agricultural commodities Options: a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 Correct solution: a) Price Support Scheme (PSS): This scheme ensures that the government directly procures crops at the Minimum Support Price (MSP) when market prices fall below a threshold. It primarily targets pulses and oilseeds to stabilize prices for farmers. Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS): Under PDPS, the government compensates farmers for the difference between the MSP and the actual market price. This scheme applies when the market price is lower than the MSP but does not involve direct procurement. Market Intervention Scheme (MIS): MIS is invoked when there is an overproduction or glut in the market for certain commodities, causing a drop in prices. It helps stabilize prices by removing surplus stock from the market. Price Stabilisation Fund (PSF) maintains buffer stocks of commodities like pulses and onions. Incorrect solution: a) Price Support Scheme (PSS): This scheme ensures that the government directly procures crops at the Minimum Support Price (MSP) when market prices fall below a threshold. It primarily targets pulses and oilseeds to stabilize prices for farmers. Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS): Under PDPS, the government compensates farmers for the difference between the MSP and the actual market price. This scheme applies when the market price is lower than the MSP but does not involve direct procurement. Market Intervention Scheme (MIS): MIS is invoked when there is an overproduction or glut in the market for certain commodities, causing a drop in prices. It helps stabilize prices by removing surplus stock from the market. Price Stabilisation Fund (PSF) maintains buffer stocks of commodities like pulses and onions.

#### 1. Question

Match the following schemes under PM-AASHA with their respective objectives:

Scheme | Objective

A. Price Support Scheme (PSS) | 1. Buffer stock of pulses and onions

B. Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS) | 2. Managing market surplus of agricultural products

C. Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) | 3. Compensating farmers when market prices fall below MSP

D. Price Stabilisation Fund (PSF) | 4. Ensuring fair prices for specific agricultural commodities

• a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

• b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

• c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

• d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

solution: a)

Price Support Scheme (PSS): This scheme ensures that the government directly procures crops at the Minimum Support Price (MSP) when market prices fall below a threshold. It primarily targets pulses and oilseeds to stabilize prices for farmers.

Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS): Under PDPS, the government compensates farmers for the difference between the MSP and the actual market price. This scheme applies when the market price is lower than the MSP but does not involve direct procurement.

Market Intervention Scheme (MIS): MIS is invoked when there is an overproduction or glut in the market for certain commodities, causing a drop in prices. It helps stabilize prices by removing surplus stock from the market.

Price Stabilisation Fund (PSF) maintains buffer stocks of commodities like pulses and onions.

solution: a)

Price Stabilisation Fund (PSF) maintains buffer stocks of commodities like pulses and onions.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM): ISM is part of India’s Digital India Initiative. It offers a 50% capital expenditure subsidy for semiconductor projects. ISM’s focus is only on civilian and defense semiconductor manufacturing. ISM aims to reduce India’s dependency on semiconductor imports. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1, 2, and 4 b) 1, 3, and 4 c) 1 and 3 d) 2 and 4 Correct Solution: d) The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) offers a 50% capital expenditure subsidy to encourage domestic semiconductor manufacturing, making statement 2 correct. The primary goal of ISM is to reduce India’s dependency on semiconductor imports, especially for critical technologies, making statement 4 correct. However, ISM is not specifically part of the Digital India Initiative (statement 1) and does not solely focus on both civilian and defense manufacturing (statement 3), as its scope is broader, covering the overall semiconductor ecosystem. Therefore, only statements 2 and 4 are correct. Incorrect Solution: d) The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) offers a 50% capital expenditure subsidy to encourage domestic semiconductor manufacturing, making statement 2 correct. The primary goal of ISM is to reduce India’s dependency on semiconductor imports, especially for critical technologies, making statement 4 correct. However, ISM is not specifically part of the Digital India Initiative (statement 1) and does not solely focus on both civilian and defense manufacturing (statement 3), as its scope is broader, covering the overall semiconductor ecosystem. Therefore, only statements 2 and 4 are correct.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM):

• ISM is part of India’s Digital India Initiative.

• It offers a 50% capital expenditure subsidy for semiconductor projects.

• ISM’s focus is only on civilian and defense semiconductor manufacturing.

• ISM aims to reduce India’s dependency on semiconductor imports.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) 1, 2, and 4

• b) 1, 3, and 4

• c) 1 and 3

• d) 2 and 4

Solution: d)

The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) offers a 50% capital expenditure subsidy to encourage domestic semiconductor manufacturing, making statement 2 correct.

The primary goal of ISM is to reduce India’s dependency on semiconductor imports, especially for critical technologies, making statement 4 correct.

However, ISM is not specifically part of the Digital India Initiative (statement 1) and does not solely focus on both civilian and defense manufacturing (statement 3), as its scope is broader, covering the overall semiconductor ecosystem. Therefore, only statements 2 and 4 are correct.

Solution: d)

The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) offers a 50% capital expenditure subsidy to encourage domestic semiconductor manufacturing, making statement 2 correct.

The primary goal of ISM is to reduce India’s dependency on semiconductor imports, especially for critical technologies, making statement 4 correct.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which state is not involved in the Eastern Rajasthan Canal Project (ERCP)? a) Rajasthan b) Madhya Pradesh c) Gujarat d) None of the above Correct Solution: c) The ERCP involves Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh, but Gujarat is not part of this river linking project. Incorrect Solution: c) The ERCP involves Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh, but Gujarat is not part of this river linking project.

#### 3. Question

Which state is not involved in the Eastern Rajasthan Canal Project (ERCP)?

• a) Rajasthan

• b) Madhya Pradesh

• c) Gujarat

• d) None of the above

Solution: c)

The ERCP involves Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh, but Gujarat is not part of this river linking project.

Solution: c)

The ERCP involves Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh, but Gujarat is not part of this river linking project.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes India’s role in the GlobE Network as of 2023? a) India has been elected as a member of the 15-member steering committee b) India serves as the chair of the GlobE Network c) India is a non-member observer state d) India has not yet joined the GlobE Network Correct Solution: a) In 2023, India was elected as a member of the 15-member steering committee of the Global Operational Network of Anti-Corruption Law Enforcement Authorities (GlobE Network). This position allows India to contribute significantly to global anti-corruption efforts, leveraging its experience and leadership in tackling corruption, especially after its G20 presidency in 2023. India’s role involves facilitating international cooperation, exchanging criminal intelligence, and supporting asset recovery, positioning the country at the forefront of global efforts to combat cross-border corruption and financial crimes. Therefore, statement a is correct. Incorrect Solution: a) In 2023, India was elected as a member of the 15-member steering committee of the Global Operational Network of Anti-Corruption Law Enforcement Authorities (GlobE Network). This position allows India to contribute significantly to global anti-corruption efforts, leveraging its experience and leadership in tackling corruption, especially after its G20 presidency in 2023. India’s role involves facilitating international cooperation, exchanging criminal intelligence, and supporting asset recovery, positioning the country at the forefront of global efforts to combat cross-border corruption and financial crimes. Therefore, statement a is correct.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following best describes India’s role in the GlobE Network as of 2023?

• a) India has been elected as a member of the 15-member steering committee

• b) India serves as the chair of the GlobE Network

• c) India is a non-member observer state

• d) India has not yet joined the GlobE Network

Solution: a)

In 2023, India was elected as a member of the 15-member steering committee of the Global Operational Network of Anti-Corruption Law Enforcement Authorities (GlobE Network). This position allows India to contribute significantly to global anti-corruption efforts, leveraging its experience and leadership in tackling corruption, especially after its G20 presidency in 2023. India’s role involves facilitating international cooperation, exchanging criminal intelligence, and supporting asset recovery, positioning the country at the forefront of global efforts to combat cross-border corruption and financial crimes. Therefore, statement a is correct.

Solution: a)

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Development Action Plan for Scheduled Tribes (DAPST): DAPST is responsible for funding tribal development programs under Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Unnat Gram Abhiyan (PMJUGA). The funding for DAPST is allocated exclusively to the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. It provides financial resources for schemes aimed at the socio-economic development of tribal areas. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 2 is incorrect. The PMJUGA package is aimed at ensuring the saturation of basic schemes in tribal villages, with interventions to be implemented by 17 Ministries, and funding coming from each Ministry’s allocated share in the Development Action Plan for Scheduled Tribes. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 2 is incorrect. The PMJUGA package is aimed at ensuring the saturation of basic schemes in tribal villages, with interventions to be implemented by 17 Ministries, and funding coming from each Ministry’s allocated share in the Development Action Plan for Scheduled Tribes.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the Development Action Plan for Scheduled Tribes (DAPST):

• DAPST is responsible for funding tribal development programs under Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Unnat Gram Abhiyan (PMJUGA).

• The funding for DAPST is allocated exclusively to the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

• It provides financial resources for schemes aimed at the socio-economic development of tribal areas.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 2 is incorrect.

The PMJUGA package is aimed at ensuring the saturation of basic schemes in tribal villages, with interventions to be implemented by 17 Ministries, and funding coming from each Ministry’s allocated share in the Development Action Plan for Scheduled Tribes.

Solution: b)

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Chambal River: Chambal River originates from the Vindhya Range in Madhya Pradesh. The Chambal River has tributaries such as Banas and Parbati. The Chambal River directly flows into the Ganga River. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 3 is incorrect. The Chambal River originates from the Vindhya Range and has tributaries like Banas and Parbati. However, it flows into the Yamuna, not directly into the Ganga. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 3 is incorrect. The Chambal River originates from the Vindhya Range and has tributaries like Banas and Parbati. However, it flows into the Yamuna, not directly into the Ganga.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about the Chambal River:

• Chambal River originates from the Vindhya Range in Madhya Pradesh.

• The Chambal River has tributaries such as Banas and Parbati.

• The Chambal River directly flows into the Ganga River.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

The Chambal River originates from the Vindhya Range and has tributaries like Banas and Parbati. However, it flows into the Yamuna, not directly into the Ganga.

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

The Chambal River originates from the Vindhya Range and has tributaries like Banas and Parbati. However, it flows into the Yamuna, not directly into the Ganga.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the PARAM series of supercomputers: PARAM Siddhi AI is ranked among the top 100 supercomputers globally. PARAM Pravega and PARAM Utkarsh are part of this series. The PARAM series is developed by ISRO. PARAM Shivay is specifically used for space exploration. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2, and 3 c) 1, 2, and 4 d) Only 1 Correct Solution: a) The PARAM series of supercomputers, developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), includes systems like PARAM Siddhi AI, which is ranked among the top 100 supercomputers globally, and PARAM Pravega and PARAM Utkarsh. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct. However, the PARAM series is not developed by ISRO, but by C-DAC, making statement 3 incorrect. Additionally, PARAM Shivay is not specifically used for space exploration, as it is designed for a range of applications including weather forecasting and scientific research, making statement 4 incorrect. Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct. Incorrect Solution: a) The PARAM series of supercomputers, developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), includes systems like PARAM Siddhi AI, which is ranked among the top 100 supercomputers globally, and PARAM Pravega and PARAM Utkarsh. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct. However, the PARAM series is not developed by ISRO, but by C-DAC, making statement 3 incorrect. Additionally, PARAM Shivay is not specifically used for space exploration, as it is designed for a range of applications including weather forecasting and scientific research, making statement 4 incorrect. Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the PARAM series of supercomputers:

• PARAM Siddhi AI is ranked among the top 100 supercomputers globally.

• PARAM Pravega and PARAM Utkarsh are part of this series.

• The PARAM series is developed by ISRO.

• PARAM Shivay is specifically used for space exploration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2

• b) 1, 2, and 3

• c) 1, 2, and 4

Solution: a)

The PARAM series of supercomputers, developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), includes systems like PARAM Siddhi AI, which is ranked among the top 100 supercomputers globally, and PARAM Pravega and PARAM Utkarsh. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

However, the PARAM series is not developed by ISRO, but by C-DAC, making statement 3 incorrect.

Additionally, PARAM Shivay is not specifically used for space exploration, as it is designed for a range of applications including weather forecasting and scientific research, making statement 4 incorrect. Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Solution: a)

However, the PARAM series is not developed by ISRO, but by C-DAC, making statement 3 incorrect.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the L69 Grouping: African nations are not part of the grouping. The group focuses on UNSC reforms, advocating for both permanent and non-permanent seat expansion. India is a member of the L69 Grouping. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The L69 Grouping comprises developing nations from Asia, Africa, Latin America, and the Pacific, not just African nations. It focuses on both permanent and non-permanent seat expansion, and India is a member of this group. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The L69 Grouping comprises developing nations from Asia, Africa, Latin America, and the Pacific, not just African nations. It focuses on both permanent and non-permanent seat expansion, and India is a member of this group.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the L69 Grouping:

• African nations are not part of the grouping.

• The group focuses on UNSC reforms, advocating for both permanent and non-permanent seat expansion.

• India is a member of the L69 Grouping.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect.

The L69 Grouping comprises developing nations from Asia, Africa, Latin America, and the Pacific, not just African nations. It focuses on both permanent and non-permanent seat expansion, and India is a member of this group.

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the C10 Grouping: The C10 represents 10 countries from the African Union. The C10 promotes the Ezulwini Consensus, advocating for Africa’s inclusion in the UNSC. C10’s primary goal is economic reforms in global institutions. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only 1 b) 1, 2, and 3 c) Only 3 d) 1 and 2 Correct Solution: d) The C10 Grouping is a coalition of 10 African nations focused on UNSC reform, particularly Africa’s representation, as promoted in the Ezulwini Consensus. It is not focused on economic reforms in global institutions. Incorrect Solution: d) The C10 Grouping is a coalition of 10 African nations focused on UNSC reform, particularly Africa’s representation, as promoted in the Ezulwini Consensus. It is not focused on economic reforms in global institutions.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the C10 Grouping:

• The C10 represents 10 countries from the African Union.

• The C10 promotes the Ezulwini Consensus, advocating for Africa’s inclusion in the UNSC.

• C10’s primary goal is economic reforms in global institutions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• b) 1, 2, and 3

• d) 1 and 2

Solution: d)

The C10 Grouping is a coalition of 10 African nations focused on UNSC reform, particularly Africa’s representation, as promoted in the Ezulwini Consensus. It is not focused on economic reforms in global institutions.

Solution: d)

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Security Council (UNSC): It was established after World War II as a principal organ of the United Nations. It is responsible for making binding decisions on international peace and security. All members, both permanent and non-permanent, have equal voting power in the UNSC. Permanent members can veto decisions made by the UNSC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1, 2, and 4 b) 1 and 4 c) Only 3 d) 2 and 3 Correct Solution: a) The UNSC was established in 1945 after World War II, has binding decision-making power, and its permanent members (P5) have veto power. However, non-permanent members do not have equal voting power, as veto is exclusive to the P5. Incorrect Solution: a) The UNSC was established in 1945 after World War II, has binding decision-making power, and its permanent members (P5) have veto power. However, non-permanent members do not have equal voting power, as veto is exclusive to the P5.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Security Council (UNSC):

• It was established after World War II as a principal organ of the United Nations.

• It is responsible for making binding decisions on international peace and security.

• All members, both permanent and non-permanent, have equal voting power in the UNSC.

• Permanent members can veto decisions made by the UNSC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• a) 1, 2, and 4

• b) 1 and 4

• d) 2 and 3

Solution: a)

The UNSC was established in 1945 after World War II, has binding decision-making power, and its permanent members (P5) have veto power. However, non-permanent members do not have equal voting power, as veto is exclusive to the P5.

Solution: a)

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